Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacy > Health and Disease Week 20 > Flashcards

Health and Disease Week 20 Flashcards

1
Q

What are properties of viruses?

A
  1. obligate intracellular
  2. host specific
  3. very small
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define obligate intracellular

A

has to live inside another organisms and cannot grow or replicate outside of its host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do viruses live?

A

they steal nutrients from the host to produce - they use the host to synthesise proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 4 ways might a virus be classified?

A
  1. type of nucleic acid
  2. morphology
  3. the presence of absence of an envelope
  4. the host organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 main classes of viruses (based on nucleic acid type)?

A
  1. DNA viruses
  2. RNA viruses
  3. RNA <=> DNA viruses (somewhere in between)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two types of DNA viruses?

A

ssDNA (single stranded) and dsDNA (double stranded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 2 types of RNA viruses?

A

ssRNA and dsRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name given to a virus that uses the host cell to convert its ssRNA material into DNA material?

A

a retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name given to viruses that use the host cell to convert its dsDNA into into RNA?

A

hepadnaviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 2 main structures of viruses?

A

naked viruses and enveloped viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of naked viruses?

A
  1. no outer membrane
  2. very simple structure
  3. essentially a shell of protein filled with nucleic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the features of enveloped viruses?

A
  1. have an outer membrane
  2. the cell membrane is derived from the host cell
  3. they are modified with viral proteins for recognition and attachment to host cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the overall steps of viral multiplication?

A
  1. a virus particles attaches to its host cell
  2. the virus or its nucleic acid goes inside the host cell
  3. the virus uncoats and the capsid shell is removed either partly of fully
  4. the nucleic acid is now free inside the cell
  5. the nucleic acid and proteins are replicated
  6. they are assembled into virus particles
  7. released from the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 5 main steps of viral replication?

A
  1. attachment
  2. entry and uncoating
  3. synthesis of viral compounds
  4. assembly
  5. release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do viruses attach to their host cells?

A

they are not motile - so it occurs by random collision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must happen for a virus to attach to its host cell?

A

a specific interaction between the attachment site on the viral surface (e.g. a spike protein) and the receptor on the cell surface - very specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which 2 methods are used for entry and uncoating?

A

endocytosis and fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For which shape of virus does entry by endocytosis occur?

A

BOTH enveloped and naked viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For which shape of virus does entry through fusion occur?

A

ONLY enveloped viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens during uncoating?

A

there is full or partial shedding of capsid proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the viral nucleic acid do inside the host cell?

A

compete with the host cell for control of biological machinery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens during synthesis of viral components?

A
  1. the viral mRNA is produced
  2. mRNA directs the synthesis of early proteins
  3. early proteins then aid nucleic acid replication
  4. this allows synthesis of late proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In which 2 ways is the nucleic acid assembled?

A
  1. packed into a preassembled capsid (capsid forms first then nucleic acid goes inside)
  2. it associates with the capsid proteins during formation (both happens at the same time)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 methods of release?

A
  1. cytolysis
  2. budding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are viruses released by cytolysis?

A

the host cell bursts and releases all virus particles in one go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are viruses released by budding?

A

membrane wraps around the virus particles and pinches it off - essentially the opposite to endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 4 types of outcomes from viral infection?

A
  1. cytocidal infection
  2. chronic infection
  3. latent infection
  4. transforming infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

define cytocidal infection and give example

A

acute infections leading to lots of cell death - polio virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

define chronic infection and give an example

A

the cell death is slower, and the virus can be maintained for a very long time - hepatitis B virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

define latent infection and give an example

A

the infection hides for a while with no symptoms, and then something triggers the release of the virus - HIV, herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define transforming infection and give an example

A

a virus that can cause cancer by insertion of an oncogene - human papilloma virus (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the steps of the life cycle of HIV?

A
  1. HIV virus infects T helper cells
  2. entry and uncoating
  3. production of viral DNA by reverse transcriptase
  4. this makes a DNA copy from an RNA molecule
  5. the viral DNA gets integrated into the nucleus
  6. something eventually triggers the release of viral DNA
  7. viral DNA is released by budding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 main types of viral vaccines?

A
  1. live vaccines
  2. killed vaccines
  3. component vaccines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do live vaccines work?

A

use attenuated strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do killed vaccines work?

A

using a virus killed by heat or chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do component vaccines work?

A

small parts of the virus are isolated from whole particles - for example, just 1 protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the issues with component vaccines?

A

the single component may change in the virus - so no longer effective in the vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 3 types of modern vaccines?

A
  1. vector vaccines
  2. mRNA vaccines
  3. DNA vaccines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do vector vaccines work?

A

use a harmless virus to smuggle the instructions for making antigens from the disease-causing virus into cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do mRNA vaccines work?

A

the mRNA that encodes the antigen from the virus is introduced into a tissue and your own cells start to make the antigen - triggers the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How do DNA vaccines work?

A

by introducing a plasmid that encodes the viral antigen into the host tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which 2 main ways are used to produce virus particles?

A

cell cultures and embryonated hen’s eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How are cell cultures used to produce virus particles?

A
  1. infect the mammalian cell line with the virus
  2. isolate and purify the virus particles produced
  3. expensive fermenters used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define protozoa

A

a diverse group of single-celled ‘animal-like’ eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How are embryonated hen’s eggs used to produce virus particles?

A
  1. the virus is injected into the fertilised chicken eggs
  2. the virus is grown in the chicken eggs
  3. the eggs are incubated for 2-3 days
  4. isolate and purify the virus particles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which group are protozoa a part of?

A

protists - this group includes protozoa, slime moulds, unicellular algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where are protozoa prevalent?

A

subtropical and tropical regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How can protozoa infect tissues and organs?

A
  • intracellular parasites inside cells
  • extracellular parasites in the blood, intestines, urogenital system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are protozoa transmitted?

A

by vectors or contaminated water, soil and food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the features of protozoa cells?

A
  • plasma membrane
  • pseudopodia
  • nucleus
  • ER
    -golgi
  • mitochondria
  • food vacuole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of the pseudopodia?

A

they are extensions of the cell to aid movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of the food vacuole?

A

this is where food is stored or degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the classification of protozoa based on?

A

shape/morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 4 classes of protozoa?

A
  1. amoeba
  2. flaggellates
  3. ciliates
  4. apicomplexa (sporozoa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are features of amoeba?

A
  • move by pseudopodia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are features of flagellates?

A
  • have flagella
  • the direction of spinning due to the flagella determines which nutrients are available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are features of ciliates?

A
  • have cilia
  • most are NOT pathogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are features of apicomplexa (sporozoa)?

A
  • they have a specific apical complex on the cell membrane used to invade other cells
  • the are ALL parasitic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the main causative agent of malaria?

A

plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the life cycle of malaria?

A
  1. the parasites are injected into the host along with the saliva of blood-feeding female mosquitos
  2. plasmodium first moves to the liver and stays there for about 2 weeks
  3. plasmodium is released from the liver
  4. plasmodium then infects red blood cells repeatedly for days
  5. mosquitos ingest the parasites with blood meal
  6. parasites then go through a reproductive phase inside the mosquito and it becomes infective for other humans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What do infected liver cells do?

A

rupture and burst open to release merozoites, which penetrate more red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the 3 stages of uncomplicated malarial?

A
  1. cold stage - shivering
  2. hot stage - fever
  3. sweating stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebral malaria?

A

cerebral malaria - abnormal behaviour, seizures, coma

64
Q

What are the symptoms of uncomplicated malaria?

A

headache, body ache, nausea, vomiting, enlarged spleen

65
Q

What are the symptoms of complicated malaria?

A

shock, severe anaemia, liver failure, jaundice, ruptured spleen

66
Q

define chemoprohphylaxis

A

preventing malaria through the use of drugs or chemicals

67
Q

What drug are some malaria resistant to?

A

chloroquine

68
Q

Which other drugs must be used for chemoprophylaxis in areas of chloroquine resistant plasmodium?

A
  • mefloquine
  • doxycycline
  • atovaquone-proguanil
69
Q

What are helminths?

A

parasitic worms

70
Q

What are the features of helminths?

A
  1. multicellular
  2. have differentiated organs
  3. no circulatory tract
71
Q

What else do some helminths have?

A

suckers, hooks or plates at the anterior end that are used for attachment

72
Q

Do helminths have their full life cycle in humans?

73
Q

What is the life cycle of helminths?

A
  1. they can produce eggs in humans
  2. but they replicate free, in another host
74
Q

Why is it difficult for the immune system to eradicate helminths?

A

they have a tough cuticle and some are camouflaged by coating with host molecules so hide from the immune system

75
Q

What do parasitic helminths feed on?

A

body fluids or intestinal contents

76
Q

What are the 3 main classes of worms that infect humans?

A
  1. nematodes
  2. cestodes
  3. trematodes
77
Q

What is another name for nematodes?

A

roundworms

78
Q

What are the features of round worms?

A
  1. long, cylindrical body
  2. alimentary canal
79
Q

What is another name for cestodes?

80
Q

What are features of tapeworms?

A
  1. flat, ribbon shaped
  2. no digestive tract
  3. its nutrients are absorbed through the cuticle
81
Q

What is another name for trematodes?

82
Q

What are the features of trematodes?

A
  1. leaf-shaped
  2. blind-branched alimentary tract
  3. small
  4. food goes in one way and comes out the same way
83
Q

What is the latin name for large roundworms?

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

84
Q

What is the major danger posed from Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

larvae may migrate to the lungs

85
Q

What are symptoms of heavy infection with Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

abdominal pain, malnutrition

86
Q

What are the symptoms of severe infection with Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

blockage of the intestines

87
Q

What are the steps of the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?

A
  1. starts with adult worms in the small intestines
  2. they produce eggs that are excreted in faeces
  3. they go into the soil and develop
  4. when fully developed and ingested, they initially go to the small intestine
  5. the larvae hatch, and may these migrate to the lungs
88
Q

What are blood and tissue nematodes called?

89
Q

What is the life cycle of filariae?

A
  1. adults in tissue or blood release larvae which are much smaller and circulate in the blood
  2. they are taken up by a vector e.g. mosquito
  3. the larvae develop in the vector and the vector can spread it
  4. larvae gets into tissues and develop into adults
90
Q

What is different about filariae compared to most roundworms?

A

need a vector to complete its lifestyle

91
Q

What are 3 examples of disease caused by nematodes?

A
  1. lympathic filariases
  2. onchoceriasis
  3. loiasis
92
Q

What is another name for lympathic filariases?

A

elephantiasis

93
Q

What does lymphatic filariasis cause?

A

damage to the lymphatic system and fluid build-up which results in the enlargement of the parts of the body and secondary infections

94
Q

What is another name for onchocerciasis?

A

river blindness

95
Q

What does onchocerciasis cause?

A
  • microfilariae enter the internal tissues of the eye (except the lens)
  • leads to inflammation, bleeding and blindness
96
Q

What does loiasis cause?

A
  • the adult Loa loa worm travels through the subcutaneous tissues
  • causes inflammation of the skin and eyes
97
Q

What is another name for cestodes?

98
Q

How do cestodes infect humans?

A

when humans ingest a cyst

99
Q

define cyst

A

the resting or dormant stage of a tapeworm

100
Q

Where may cyst be ingested from?

A

undercooked meat or fish

101
Q

Which type of helminth causes the largest number of deaths in humans?

A

trematodes

102
Q

What organism do trematodes use as an intermediate host?

103
Q

Which pathogen causes schistosomiasis?

A

Schistosoma spp. (blood flukes)

104
Q

What is another name for Schistosomiasis?

A

snail fever

105
Q

What is the main route of contamination with Schistosomiasis?

A

drinking infected water as the eggs are excreted in faeces or urine

106
Q

What are the initial symptoms of Schistosomiasis?

A

rash or itchy skin

107
Q

What is the main damage caused by Schistosomiasis?

A

eggs getting stuck in tissues and subsequent response of the immune system - this causes organ damage due to inflammation and scarring

108
Q

How is are intestinal nematodes/cestodes diagnosed?

A
  • the eggs or laevae can be detected in faecal samples
  • sometimes incidental diagnosis due to coughing up ascarids
109
Q

How is Schistosomas (flukes) diagnosed?

A

eggs can be detected in faecal or urine samples

110
Q

How are tissue nematodes diagnosed?

A

microfilaria in the blood

111
Q

How may helminths be used as therapeutics in the future?

A

they are not cleared as they are able to modulate the immune system, and many studies have shown that NEMATODE infection protects against allergic diseases

112
Q

What can GI nematodes do?

A

reduced skin reactivity to dust mite allergen

113
Q

What is there an inverse correlation between?

A

incidence of asthma and hookworms

114
Q

Which type of patients do fungal diseases mostly affect?

A

immune-compromised patients

115
Q

What are the main features of fungi?

A
  1. cell wall made of mainly beta-glucan and chitin
  2. ergosterol in the cell membrane
  3. reproduce by spores
  4. eukaryotic
  5. can be unicellular or multicellular
  6. not susceptible to antibiotics
116
Q

Which 4 areas are fungi important in? Why?

A
  1. ecology - degrade organic matter
  2. commercial - making bread, beer
  3. pharmaceutical - create lots of enzymes, penicillin
  4. pathogens - many different species
117
Q

What are the 3 types of fungi?

A
  1. yeasts
  2. multicellular
  3. macroscopic filamentous fungi
118
Q

What is an example of a yeast?

A

Candida albicans

119
Q

What is an example of a multicellular filamentous mould?

A

Trichophyton spp.

120
Q

What is an example of macroscopic filamentous fungi?

121
Q

What is the structure of the fungal cell wall?

A
  • beta-glucan and mannan are linked by a number of proteins
  • chitin is the thin layer above the cell membrane
122
Q

How do yeasts reproduce?

A

by budding or fission

123
Q

Describe budding

A

fungal cells grow bigger until they break off

124
Q

How do moulds grow?

A

they grow as masses of overlapping and interlinking hyphal filaments - this forms a mycelium

125
Q

define dimorphic

A

fungi that can switch between yeast and hyphal forms

126
Q

How to myeliums grow?

A

cells are added at the tips of tubes - so hyphae grow at the tips

127
Q

What are the 2 types of myelium?

A

septate and non-septate

128
Q

define septate

A

mycelium that keeps its cell walls

129
Q

define non-septate

A

mycelium that loses its cell walls

130
Q

What can dimorphic fungi grow as?

A

yeasts or can form hyphae

131
Q

What plays a role in determining the form of dimorphic fungi?

A

temperature and type of tissue - usually form hyphae at environmental temperature and grow as yeast cells in the body

132
Q

What is an example of a dimorphic fungi?

A

Candida albicans

133
Q

What disease does Candida albicans cause?

A

candidasis and thrush

134
Q

What is Candidiasis?

A

when fungi gets into the lungs and infects lung tissue

135
Q

How does Candida albicans cause Candidiasis?

A
  1. yeast stage - fungus stays are yeast cells, usually in the gut
  2. if there is damage to the intestine wall and the fungus gets into the blood, the candida can now form germ tubes
  3. they may grow into a large fungal mass
  4. gets into lungs and causes pulmonary candidiasis
136
Q

define mycoses

A

diseases caused by fungi

137
Q

What are the 3 categories of mycoses?

A
  1. superficial and cutaneous mycoses
  2. subcutaneous mycoses
  3. systemic/deep mycoses
138
Q

define superficial and cutaneous mycoses

A

when fungus grows on the body surface e.g. skin, hair, nails

139
Q

What are examples of superficial/cutaneous mycoses?

A

Athlete’s food, vaginal candidiasis

140
Q

define subcutaneous mycoses

A

fungi infecting the deeper layers of skin, but it stays LOCALISED

141
Q

What do subcutaneous mycoses feed on?

A

organic matter

142
Q

What are these infections caused by?

A

traumatic inoculation - introduction of fungi through a wound or burn

143
Q

define systemic/deep mycoses

A

fungal infections mainly through the lungs, but may spread to any organ

144
Q

What are systemic/deep mycoses caused by?

A

inhalation of spores

145
Q

Which type of patient is most susceptible to systemic/deep mycoses?

A

immune compromised patients - healthy patients have immune system to fight it off

146
Q

Which type of fungus is Trichophyton spp?

147
Q

Which type of disease does Trichophyton cause?

A

cutaenous mycoses

148
Q

What diseases does Trichophyton spp cause?

A

Athlete’s food, ringworm, onychomyosis

149
Q

What type of fungus is Candida albicans?

150
Q

Which type of fungal disease does Candida albicans cause?

A

systemic or superficial mycoses

151
Q

What are diseases caused by Candida albicans?

A
  • oral/vaginal thrush
  • nail and skin infection
  • sepsis
152
Q

define dermatophytes

A

a group of fungi that cause skin infections in humans

153
Q

What is the main food source for dermatophytes?

154
Q

How is infection with dermatophytes caused?

A

can be direct (human/animal contact) OR indirect (swimming pool, towels)

155
Q

What do most antifungals act on?

A

the membrane lipid ergosterol

156
Q

How do antifungals work?

A
  1. can inhibit synthesis of ergosterol leading to accumulation of toxic sterol intermediates
  2. OR they may bind directly causing leaky cells
  3. may inhibit synthesis of beta-glucan for the cell wall

Pharmacy (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions