Health and Disease Week 19 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the immune system?

A

the body’s tool for preventing or limiting infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the immune system made up of?

A

a complex network of cells, organs, proteins and tissues that defend the body from pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the immune system recognise?

A

pathogens and abnormal cells, such as cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two organs of the immune system?

A

thymus and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the lymph system?

A

an organ system that white blood cells circulate in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the lymph system made up of?

A

lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 2 types of immunity?

A

innate and acquired (adaptive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is innate immunity also known as?

A

natural immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features of innate immunity?

A
  1. non-specific
  2. needs minimal energy
  3. fast response
  4. present from birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

the initial response of the body to eliminate microbes and prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 4 main components of innate immunity?

A
  1. physical and structural barriers
  2. chemical barriers
  3. protective cells
  4. also sneezing, coughing, vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some examples of physical and chemical barriers?

A

skin, mucus membranes, tears, digestive enzymes in mouth, stomach acid, blood-brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 main cell types of innate immunity?

A
  1. macrophages, neutrophils and mast cells
  2. natural killer (NK) cells
  3. dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the role of macrophages, neutrophils and mast cells?

A

involved in the removal of pathogens by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of natural killer (NK) cells?

A

to eliminate infected or abnormal host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of dendritic cells?

A

have direct microbicidal activity, and secrete chemicals that recruit and activate other immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does innate immunity trigger inflammation?

A

when physical barriers are broken or infection occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does inflammation do?

A

helps eliminate pathogens and promotes tissue repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in inflammation?

A

there is a release of signalling molecules including cytokines and chemokines and this recruits cells to the site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 4 classic signs of inflammation?

A

heat, pain, redness, swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the complement system?

A

essentially a cascade of plasma proteins involved in innate and adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the complement system made up of?

A

over 30 different plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the complement system do?

A
  1. helps destroy pathogens
  2. active immune cells
  3. clears immune complexes
  4. bridge between innate and adaptive immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is adaptive immunity triggered?

A

when innate immunity fails to clear a pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the features of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. long-term immunity
  2. slow response
  3. antibodies produced by B cells
  4. detects SPECIFIC antigens on the pathogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 2 branches of acquired/adaptive immunity?

A

cellular immunity and humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which 4 cells types does cellular immunity involve?

A
  1. cytotoxic T cells (T killer)
  2. helper T cells
  3. regulatory T cells
  4. memory T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do dendritic cells do?

A

present antigen to T cells to trigger a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

directly attack and kill infected or abnormal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do helper T cells do?

A

help B cells with antibody production and active other immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do regulatory T cells do?

A

help maintain immune balance and prevent excessive response - shuts down immune response after pathogen removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do memory T cells do?

A

retain a ‘memory’ of previously found pathogens, allowing a faster and more effective immune response when exposed again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 2 types of cells are involved in humoral immunity?

A

plasma cells and memory B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do B cells do?

A

produce antibodies in response to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are antibodies?

A

proteins that neutralise pathogens, mark them for destruction by phagocytes, or trigger other immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

define immunisation

A

when the immune system is stimulated to produce an immune response against specific pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How can immunisation be achieved?

A

natural infection OR vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

define vaccination

A

a specific form of immunisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do vaccines contain?

A

weakened, killed or parts of pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the point of vaccination?

A

to enable the immune system to remember and quickly eliminate a specific pathogen when re-exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the steps of vaccination?

A
  1. introduction of antigens
  2. immune response activated
  3. memory formation
  4. protection against disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 4 main types of vaccines?

A
  1. attenuated vaccines
  2. inactivated vaccines
  3. subunit vaccines
  4. nucleic acid vaccines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define attenuated vaccine

A

using a weakened virus to trigger an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define inactivated vaccine

A

using a killed virus to trigger an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

define subunit vaccine

A

using only a portion of a virus to allow the immune response to recognise the whole virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define nucleic acid vaccine

A

using virus DNA or RNA to enable human cells to manufacture portions of a virus to trigger an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an allergy?

A

an overreaction of the immune system to a normally harmless substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How are allergies encountered?

A

through inhalation, ingestion, contact with skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

anaphylactic shock, itching, sneezing, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is autoimmunity?

A

when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own cells and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is autoimmunity caused by?

A

genetic predisposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What can autoimmunity be triggered by?

A

environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are examples of autoimmunity?

A

rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, psoriasis, diabetes, multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are 4 examples of microbes?

A

prokaryotes, eukaryotes, viruses, prions, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are features of prokaryotes?

A

1-5 mCM, haploid, asexual reproduction, unicellular, no true nucleus, cell wall*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are features of eukaryotes?

A

over 10 mCM, diploid, sexual reproduction, uni and multicellular, true nucleusW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are examples of prokaryotes?

A

bacteria and archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are examples of eukaryotes?

A

fungi, protozoa, helminths, slime moulds, algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are features of viruses?

A

no cellular structure - they are genetic material surrounded by protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are features of prions?

A

no nucleic acid - just pieces of infectious protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an example of a prion?

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are features of bacteria?

A

unicellular, huge diversity, majority harmless or even beneficial, some are pharmaceutical contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do we name bacteria?

A

italics - give genus + species - genus is capital, species is lower case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which 3 ways can bacteria be classified?

A

morphology, metabolism and molecular characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is morphology used in bacterial classification?

A

cell shape, size, motility, spore forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is metabolism used in bacterial classification?

A

use of energy sources/nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How are molecular characteristics used in bacterial classification?

A

protein, lipid structure, sequence of gene encoding 16S RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are 2 examples of specific bacterial classification?

A

bacterial shape and 16S ribosomal RNA gene sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What 3 main shapes can bacteria have?

A

coccus (balls), rods, spirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a single coccus called?

A

coccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a double coccus shape called?

A

diplococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a chain of cocci called?

A

streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are clusters of cocci called?

A

staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which two ribosomal subunits do bacteria have?

A

50S and 30S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does the 50S subunit contain?

A

23S rRNA, 5S rRNA + proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the 30S subunit contain?

A

16S rRNA + proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is special about the 16S rRNA gene?

A

it is an ESSENTIAL GENE and is highly conserved, but contains hypervariable regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

define hypervariable region

A

short sections of DNA which are different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How can bacteria be identified by their 16S rRNA gene?

A

there is big variation in the hypervariable regions between species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the function of the plasma membrane of bacterial cells?

A

selectively permeable, site of secretion and respiration, site of environmental response regulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where is the cytoplasm of bacteria located?

A

between the plasma membrane and nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is also located in the cytoplasm?

A

ribosomes (70S) and inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are inclusion bodies?

A

structures in the cytoplasm that contain important nutrients and float around (C, P, N, S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What do bacteria NOT have?

A

mitochondria - energy production occurs on cytoplasmic (plasma) membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What 2 parts make up the nucleoid?

A

double stranded DNA (dsDNA) and plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the features of the dsDNA?

A
  1. NOT enclosed by a nuclear membrane
  2. usually a single closed circular chromosome
  3. DNA is supercoiled to make it compact
  4. 1 copy of each gene - haploid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the features of plasmids?

A
  1. extrachromosomal
  2. small, circular DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is different about plasmids compared to dsDNA?

A

they replicate independently of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What do plasmids encode?

A

auxiliary functions e.g. antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the function of the prokaryotic cell wall?

A

protects bacteria from the environment and provide rigidity and strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the prokaryotic cell wall made of?

A

peptidoglycan cross-linked to form a mesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is a glycan backbone made of?

A

a chain of sugar residues joined by glycosidic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is every other sugar linked to?

A

a short peptide sidechain that crosslinks to a peptide on an adjacent glycan backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does its mesh-like structure enable?

A

molecules to pass in and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What 2 types of bond make the peptidoglycan cell wall strong and rigid?

A

peptide bonds and glycosidic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Why are bacteria easily targeted by antibiotics?

A

the peptidoglycan cell wall is unique to bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the 2 types of peptidoglycan structure?

A

gram positive and gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which colour stain do gram positive bacteria produce?

A

purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which colour stain do gram negative bacteria produce?

A

pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the main features of gram positive peptidoglycan?

A
  • THICK peptidoglycan layer which makes up 6-80% of cell wall
  • X- linked to form a thick mesh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the main features of gram negative peptidoglycan?

A
  • THIN peptidoglycan layer which makes up 10-20% of cell wall
  • surrounded by an outer membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which 2 structures do gram positive cell walls contain?

A

teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are teichoic acids?

A

acidic polysaccharides bonded to peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What do teichoic acids do?

A

transport metal cations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are lipoteichoic acids?

A

teichoic acids bonded to membrane lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What do lipoteichoic acids do?

A

trigger inflammatory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When are lipoteichoic acids released?

A

released by killed bacteria during infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls contain?

A

lipopolysaccharides and porins

109
Q

What is special about gram negative cell walls?

A

the outer membrane is impermeable to large molecules - more resistant to antibiotics

110
Q

What do the lipopolysaccharides do?

A

stabilise the membrane structure

111
Q

What are porins?

A

water-filled channels

112
Q

What is another name for a lipopolysaccharide?

113
Q

What are features of lipopolysaccharides (endotoxins)?

A
  • strongly immunogenic
  • extremely toxic to animal cells
  • heat resistant (difficult to get rid of)
114
Q

What are 2 examples of pathogenic bacteria that are NOT classified by gram stains (atypical)?

A

acid-fast bacilli and bacteria lacking peptidoglycan

115
Q

What is an example of an acid-fast bacilli?

A

mycobacteria tuberculosis - cell wall is a thick waxy lipidic layer

116
Q

What is a common feature of bacteria lacking peptidoglycan?

A

often cause intracellular infections

117
Q

What is an example of bacteria lacking peptidoglycan?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

118
Q

What are 3 examples of bacterial cell components associated with some bacterial cells?

A
  1. bacterial endospores
  2. capsules and slime layers
  3. P-pili (fimbriae) and F-pili
119
Q

What are bacterial endospores?

A

highly resistant dormant structures which form inside a bacterium in response to adverse conditions

120
Q

What are 3 features of endospores?

A

dormant, non-reproductive, tough

121
Q

What are capsules and slime layers?

A

a network of polysaccharides secreted outside of the peptidoglycan cell wall

122
Q

What is the function of capsules and slime layers?

A

protection, aiding attachment and contributing to virulence

123
Q

What are P-pili and F-pili?

A

hair-like structure composed of protein subunits

124
Q

What do P-pili do?

A

aid attachment to surfaces - forming biofilms?

125
Q

What is the function of F-pili?

A

they are used in bacterial conjugation

126
Q

define bacterial conjugation

A

the transfer of genetic material between cells

127
Q

How do bacteria usually live?

A

in biofilms

128
Q

define biofilm

A

a group of microorganisms that attach to a surface and are encased in a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS)

129
Q

Where can bacteria form biofilms?

A

on any surface where there is moisture

130
Q

What actually is a biofilm?

A

when bacteria attach to surfaces, grow and become enveloped in an extracellular matrix composed mostly of polysaccharides, proteins and DNA

131
Q

What are the 5 stages of biofilm formation?

A
  1. initial formation
  2. irreversible attachment
  3. maturation 1
  4. maturation 2
  5. dispersal
132
Q

initial attachment

A

individual bacteria attach weakly to a surface

133
Q

irreversible attachment

A
  • attachment becomes irreversible using fimbrae and pilli
  • bacteria multiply and also attract other microbes to attach
134
Q

maturation 1

A
  • bacteria secrete a sticky, protective extracellular matrix (ECM)
  • bacteria continue to join and multiply
135
Q

maturation 2

A

biofilm grows in size and structure to form a large 3D colony

136
Q

dispersal

A
  • sections of the biofilm break off
  • these cells can go and colonise new areas
137
Q

What is the ECM made up of?

A

polysaccharides, proteins and DNA

138
Q

What does the biofilm do for bacteria?

A

acts as a protective coat and protects them from harm

139
Q

What is the main issue with biofilms?

A

the biofilm makes bacteria very resistant to antibiotics

140
Q

What 3 things to biofilms protect bacteria against?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. antibiotics
  3. disinfectants
141
Q

Why are biofilms a huge issue in healthcare?

A

they grow on medical devices and implants

142
Q

What are the 5 factors affecting bacterial growth?

A
  1. nutrients
  2. iron
  3. oxygen
  4. temperature
  5. pH
143
Q

Why do bacteria need nutrients?

A

for cellular biosynthesis and energy respiration

144
Q

What are examples of macroelements that bacteria need?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, water, sulfur etc

145
Q

What are examples of trace elements bacteria need?

A

zinc, cobalt, nickel, copper, manganese, molybdenum

146
Q

Where do bacteria get nutrients from?

A

their host (aka us)

147
Q

Why is iron crucial for bacteria?

A

it is used for energy generation

148
Q

Why is iron in our body NOT available to bacteria?

A

it is complexed with another molecule

149
Q

How is iron stored within mammalian cells?

A
  • 90% stored in ferritin or as haem group
  • 8% stored in other cellular proteins e.g. myoglobin
150
Q

Where is iron stored outside mammalian cells?

A
  • 1-2% attached to transporters e.g. transferrin in serum, lactoferrin in mucosal secretions
  • no complexed iron exists as Fe3+ which is insoluble and not absorbed into the blood
151
Q

What are siderophores?

A

low MW compounds produced by bacteria with a high affinity for iron

152
Q

When are siderophores produced by bacteria?

A

when concentration of iron is low

153
Q

What do siderophores do?

A

bind iron and allow uptake into the cell

154
Q

What is an example of a siderophore?

A

enterobactin

155
Q

How does enterobactin work?

A

they remove the iron complexed with transferrin and this enables uptake into the bacterial wall

156
Q

How do humans use siderophores to treat infection?

A

we trick bacteria into taking up antibiotics instead of iron

157
Q

define aerobe

A

requires oxygen for growth

158
Q

define anaerobe

A

does not require oxygen for growth

159
Q

What are the 2 types of anaerobe?

A

obligate and facultative

160
Q

define microaerophile

A

can grow in low concentrations of oxygen

161
Q

What is an example of a microaerophile?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

162
Q

define obligate anaerobe

A

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

163
Q

What is an example of an obligate anaerobe?

A

Clostridioides difficile

164
Q

Why is C. diff an issue in hospitals?

A

it produces spores which spread as bacteria are under stress - very hard to get rid of

165
Q

define facultative anaerobe

A

can grow if oxygen is available, but can also grow without oxygen

166
Q

What is an example of a facultative anaerobe?

167
Q

What are 3 different types of temperature-suited bacteria?

A
  1. psychrophiles
  2. mesophiles
  3. thermophiles
168
Q

define psychrophiles

A

grow at -40 to 20 degrees, so can grow in cold conditions, however optimum is greater than 15

169
Q

What is an example of a psychrophile?

170
Q

define mesophile

A

grows at 20-40 degrees (body temperature)

171
Q

define thermophile

A

grows at 40-100 degrees

172
Q

What is an example of a thermophile?

A

Thermophilus aquaticus - produces enzymes used in molecular biology at 100 degrees

173
Q

define neutrophile

A

a bacterium that grows best at body pH (6.5-7.5)

174
Q

define acidophile

A

bacteria that can grow in acidic conditons

175
Q

What is an example of an acidophile?

A

Helicobacter pylori

176
Q

What are the 2 ways of culturing bacteria?

A

suspensions, colony

177
Q

define suspension

A

bacteria are grown in a complex liquid as a batch culture

178
Q

What are bacterial suspensions used for?

A

to determine growth rate or effect of antimicrobial agents

179
Q

define colony

A

when bacteria are grown on complex media solidified with agar

180
Q

What are colonies used for?

A

obtaining a pure culture, performing a viable count, assessing diversity, aiding identification

181
Q

Which method do bacteria divide by?

A

binary fission

182
Q

When does bacterial cell division continue until?

A

nutrients run out or the environment changes to unfavourable

183
Q

How do bacteria increase in numebers?

A

exponential growth

184
Q

What is the time taken for bacteria to divide called?

A

generation time

185
Q

What is the rate of cell division determined by?

A

time needed for DNA replication AND the conditions

186
Q

What are the steps of binary fission?

A
  1. cell elongates to approx. double length
  2. cell about to divide copies its chromosome
  3. a septum begins to form
  4. the 2 copies of the chromosome are pulled apart
  5. septum formation continues until two daughter cells are pinched off
187
Q

What kind of growth curve do batch cultures have?

A

a unique one

188
Q

What are the 4 stages of the growth curve?

A
  1. lag phase
  2. exponential phase
  3. stationary phase
  4. death phase
189
Q

lag phase

A
  • when first inoculated
  • length of phase depends on conditions e.g. fridge
190
Q

exponential phase

A
  • bacteria start doubling
  • cells behave in a constant predictable way
  • the generation time will be constant (straight line on graph)
  • this is the ideal phase to use the bacteria for research
191
Q

stationary phase

A
  • bacteria are running out of resources
  • no increase or decrease in number of cells
  • some cells are dying, other still dividing
  • the cells are behaving unpredictably
192
Q

death phase

A
  • decline in cell numbers
  • some cells called persister cells don’t die but stay dormant
193
Q

What are persister cells?

A

bacterial cells that don’t die in the death phase, but stay dormant until conditions are made more favourable - known as viable but non-culturable cells

194
Q

define generation time

A

the time required for cells to double in number

195
Q

Where is generation time read from?

A

ALWAYS the exponential phase of the growth curve

196
Q

What is the equation for the number of bacterial cells present at time T?

A

NT = N0 x 2^n
N0 = number of cells initially present
N= number of generations

197
Q

What is the equation for generation time?

A

generation time (g) = time (T) / number of generation (n)

198
Q

What is the equation for calculating the number of generation?

A

Log10Nt = Log10N0 + nLog102

199
Q

Test yourself:
* A population of Escherichia coli increases from 103 to 109 cells in 10 hr.
* What is the generation time?

A

30 minutes or 0.5 hours

200
Q

What is a direct measure of bacterial number?

A

viable count

201
Q

What are the steps of a direct measurement of bacterial number using a viable count?

A
  1. dilute a sample of bacteria
  2. spread on agar plate
  3. incubate overnight at 37 degrees
  4. count colonies
  5. express as colony forming units (CFU) / mL
202
Q

What can’t this method be used for?

A

clumps or chains of cells

203
Q

What is a indirect method of measuring bacterial cell number?

A

optical density

204
Q

How does optical density work?

A

optical density increases with increasing cell number over time - essentially how easy it is for light to go through bacteria

205
Q

What are the axes of the optical density graph?

A

optical density vs cell number or time

206
Q

Which stage must cells be in to use the optical density method?

A

exponential phase

207
Q

define microbiota

A

groups of microorganisms living in a SPECIFIC ENVIRONMENT

208
Q

define microbiome

A

all the microorganisms living on almost all of our body surface

209
Q

What does each microenvironment have?

A

a set of common microorganisms

210
Q

What does a person’s microbiota depend on?

A

age, diet, lifestyle, time of year, disease etc

211
Q

What are the microorganisms colonising our body surfaces called?

A

indigenous human commensals

212
Q

define commensal

A

living on us without causing harm

213
Q

What are indigenous human commensals needed for?

A
  • they are beneficial for bacteria and the host
  • they provide some protection against pathogen
214
Q

How do indigenous human commensals protect us against pathogenic bacteris?

A

they make it harder for pathogenic bacteria to adhere to surfaces to gain nutrients from the host and they now have to compete

215
Q

When does the human microbiota develop?

A

from birth - it takes about 2-3 years for stable biome to form

216
Q

What is the gut microbiome crucial for?

A
  • breakdown of food
  • synthesising essential vitamins B12 and K
217
Q

When can indigenous human commensals become opportunistic pathogens?

A

when our natural barriers to infection are broken

218
Q

define opportunistic pathogen

A

pathogens that usually don’t cause infection but will if they get a chance

219
Q

What is an example of an opportunistic pathogen?

A

E. coli when it gets into urinary tract from gut - causes a UTI

220
Q

What are the 6 major regions with normal human microbiota?

A
  1. skin
  2. upper respiratory tract
  3. lower respiratory tract
  4. digestive system
  5. urinary tract
  6. adult female genital tract
221
Q

Which 3 microenvironments is the skin divided into?

A

dry skin, moist skin areas, areas rich in sebaceous glands

222
Q

What are the natural colonisers of the skin?

A

gram positive bacteria as they have a thick cell wall and are resistant to drying e.g. Staphylococcus, Streptococcus

223
Q

When can natural colonisers on the skin become an issue?

A

when skin wound lead to infection by bacteria getting into bloodstream

224
Q

What is the upper respiratory tract made up of?

A

the nose and throat

225
Q

What are examples of natural colonisers in the nose and throat?

A

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Neisseria, Haemophilus

226
Q

Which of these can cause issues?

A

Streptococcus, Neisseria, Haemophilus as most people have these living at the back of the throat

227
Q

What is important about the lower respiratory tract?

A

it is usually sterile - but can be a common site for infection

228
Q

What are bacteria that cause infections in the lower respiratory tract?

A

haemophilus, streptococcus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis

229
Q

Which areas is the mouth divided into?

A

different microenvironments depending on how aerobic they are

230
Q

What type of bacteria inhabits the cheeks + gums?

A

facultative anaerobes e.g. Streptococcus

231
Q

Which bacteria inhabit the gingival groove (where teeth and gums meet)?

A

anaerobes - can cause gum disease e.g. Bacteroides

232
Q

Which bacteria inhabit the tooth enamel?

A

facultative anaerobes e.g. Streptococcus

233
Q

Which bacteria inhabit the stomach?

A

very few due to acidic environment - however, Helicobacter pylori can survive here and cause gastric ulcers

234
Q

What bacteria inhabit the duodenum?

A

very few due to acidity and high numbers of enzymes

235
Q

Which bacteria inhabit the ileum?

A

an increase in number due to less acidity

236
Q

Which is the most heavily colonised part of the digestive system?

A

the large intestine

237
Q

What is unique about the large intestine?

A

there is very little oxygen - so bacteria are either anaerobes or facultative anaerobes

238
Q

What are the 3 most common examples of bacteria in the large intestine?

A
  1. Bacteroides fragilis - most common cause of appendicitis
  2. Enterococcus faecalis - doesn’t cause issues in intestine but can move to heart
  3. E. coli - can move to urethra
239
Q

What bacteria inhabit the kidneys, bladder and ureters?

A

none- they are usually sterile in a healthy adult!

240
Q

Which bacteria colonise the urethra?

A

lower part is lightly colonised but upper kept mostly sterile due to flushing effect - E. coli can cause UTIs

241
Q

What is unique about the adult female genital tract microbiome?

A

acidic environment

242
Q

What does the microbiome in the adult female genital tract depend on?

A

age, menopausal status, diet, childbirth, stage in cycle etc

243
Q

Which bacteria colonise the adult female genital tract?

A

Lactobacillus grows

244
Q

What causes vaginal thrush?

A

Candida albicans (a yeast) when it overgrows - exists normally

245
Q

What are the main non-specific defences against infection?

A

indigenous microbiota, physical barriers, blood and tissues

246
Q

How do commensals protect against pathogenic infection?

A

a pathogen must compete with natural microflora for adhesion sites for food

247
Q

define probiotics

A

live microorganisms that prevent or treat conditions - in tablets and yoghurt

248
Q

define prebiotics

A

chemicals that induce growth / activity of microorganisms

249
Q

What are the 3 main layers of skin acting as defence?

A

epidermis, sebaceous glands and sweat glands, skin associated with lymphoid tissue (SALT)

250
Q

How is the epidermis a barrier?

A

dry and acidic and the upper layer is constantly shed - hard for pathogenic bacteria to colonise

251
Q

How are sebaceous glands and sweat glands a defence?

A

they both secrete an enzyme called lysozyme, which breaks down the peptidoglycan cell wall - gram positive are more susceptible

252
Q

How is the skin associated with lymphoid tissue (SALT) a barrier?

A

invading pathogens are detected by lymphoid tissue which induces a local inflammatory response

253
Q

What are the 3 main barriers in mucosal surfaces?

A

mucus, epithelium, mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

254
Q

How is mucus a physical barrier?

A
  • contains mucin and is produced by the submucosal glands
  • mucin traps bacteria
  • lysozyme kills gram positive bacteria
  • lactoferrin binds iron
  • lactoperoxidase kills bacteria
255
Q

How is the epithelium a physical barrier?

A

cilia waft mucus, also contains indigenous bacteria

256
Q

How is the mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) a barrier?

A

responds to any invading pathogens which breach this layer by inducing a local inflammatory response

257
Q

What are polymorphonuclear (PMN) leucocytes?

A

a group of leucocytes that circulate in the blood and recongise and remove invading pathogens

258
Q

What are the 3 types of PMN leucocytes?

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. basophils
259
Q

What is the role of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis

260
Q

What is the role of eosinophils?

A

releasing cytotoxic substances which kill bacteria

261
Q

What is the role of basophils?

A

when stimulated, release inflammatory mediatories like histamine which induce inflammation

262
Q

What is the role of macrophages?

A

phagocytosis, producing cytokines, presenting antigens to T cells for acquired immunity

263
Q

What do lysosomes contain?

A

digestive enzymes, defensins, enzymes of respiratory burst

264
Q

What is the complement system?

A

a biochemical cascade involving over 30 proteins activated by infection

265
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the complement system?

A
  1. lysis
  2. opsonisation
  3. activation of inflammatory response
  4. clearance of immune complexes
266
Q

What is the role of transferrin?

A

it binds iron so it is unavailable for bacteria to use in growth and energy release

267
Q

What is mannose binding lectin?

A

a soluble factor produced by the liver following an infection

268
Q

What is the role of mannose binding lectin?

A
  1. it binds to patterns on the surface of bacteria cells
  2. one end binds to the bacteria and the other end binds to receptors on the macrophage
  3. the macrophages can now recognise and phagocytose the bacteria
  4. also increases the activation of the complement system - positive feedback