Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

In service Prep > Head and Neck > Flashcards

Head and Neck Flashcards

1
Q

What TSH level is ideal for increased radioiodine uptake in tumors?

A

>30mU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What modality is useful for detecting respiratory effort related arousals?

A

Esophageal manometry: esophageal tone and luminal pressure will become elevated prior to an RERA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is UARS and what is it characterized by

A

Upper Airway Resistance Syndrome, majority of symptoms as OSA but with low AHI, they have high RERAs and sleep fragmentation, first line treatment is CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patients with upper lip carcinomas have a ____ prognosis than those with lower lip carcinoma

A

10-20% worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basal cell carcinomas are more commonly found in the ____ lip

A

Upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common oral cavity subsite of cancer?

A

Lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Kadish classification/staging of esthesioneuroblastoma

A

A - tumor limited to nasal cavity B - tumor limited to nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses C - tumor extends beyond the nasal cavity and sinuses (skull base, intracranial compartment) D - Cervical nodal mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the probability that a hypofunctioning nodule found in a patient with Graves’ disease is thyroid CA:

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The most common malignant parotid mass in pediatric patients

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What syndrome are osteomas associated with?

A

Gardner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What malignancy is associated with gardner syndrome

A

colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the likelihood that a cold module found in a graves patient is well diff thyroid CA

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What artery do both the superior and inferior parathyroid glands most commonly derive their blood supply?

A

Inferior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common benign lesion of the sinonasal tract?

A

Patrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When should you do total thyroidectomy for multifocal disease

A

More than 5 foci that are 8-9mm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What percent of severely dysplastic lesions of the VC will undergo transformation to malignancy

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is in Lugol’s solution

A

Potassium iodide and elemental iodine in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which histology of adenoid cystic carcinoma carries the worst prognosis

A

Ciribiform with greater than 30% solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four types of cells in a salivary unit

A

Acinar cells Intercollated cells Striated - most metabolic activity, red staining pattern/oxyphylic Epithelial AISE mnemonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which tumor do acinar cells give rise to?

A

Acinar cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which salivary cells give rise to warthins tumor and Oncocytoma

A

Striated cells Stain oxyphylic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What I the most common malignant rumor of submandibular gland or minor salivary gland

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s most common malignant tumor of parotid tumor

A

Mucoep carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common benign pediatric tumor

A

Hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is risk if malignancy in carotid body tumor

A

3-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is risk of malignancy in Vagal paraganglioma

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is risk of malignancy in jugular paraganglioma

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is risk of malignancy in orbital and laryngeal paraganglioma

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is contained within the infratemporal fossa

A

Lateral and medial pterygoids Mandibular division of Trigeminal nerve Chorda tympani Otic parasympathetic ganglion Maxillary archery and branches Pterygoid venous plexus Deep lobe of parotid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

A

Salivary tissue infarcts. Management is conservative and observation

31
Q

What percentage of paragangliomas of the head and neck secrete catecholamines

A

1-3%

32
Q

How long of a segment of bone can be harvested with fibula free flap?

A

25 cm

33
Q

What is the percent change of agranulocytosis with antithyroid meds?

A

0.2%

34
Q

What sinus is most frequently affected by osteomas?

A

Frontal. Then ethmoid, max, and sphenoid

35
Q

What kind of module on fna of follicular neoplasm is less concerning?

A

Spongiform

36
Q

How long prior to starting radioactive iodine therapy should you stop synthroid

A

6 weeks

37
Q

What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior part of soft palate?

A

GSPN

38
Q

What are the cell types of parathyroid gland

A

Chief cells and oxyphil cells

39
Q

What’s the treatment of advanced laryngeal chondrosarcoma

A

Total laryngectomy

40
Q

Where are the superior parathyroid glands usually located

A

1 cm above intersection of RLN and inferior thyroid artery

41
Q

Describe the sympathetic, parasympathetic and sensory innervation of parotid gland

A

42
Q

What is the name of this tumor if located in the cheek?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

43
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of esthesioneuroblastoma?

A

hyposmia

44
Q

What lesion on the posterior vocal cord is sessile, gray, and stains for S100 and PAS?

A

Granular cell tumor, 3% risk of malignant degeneration

45
Q

Describe the stage of the melanomas depicted

A

T2B, T3

46
Q

Describe the Pittsburgh staging system for temporal bone SCC

A

T1 - limited to the EAC without bony erosion or soft tissue involvement

T2 - partial bony erosion without involvement of middle ear

T3 - trans canal bony erosion with possible invovlement of middle ear or mastoid

T4 - invovlement of the carotid canal, jugular bulb, medial middle ear, petrous apex, or facial nerve

47
Q

What is the blood supply to the temporalis muscle flap?

A

Anterior and posterior deep temporal arteries, superficial temporal artery also gives off a branch but is less important

48
Q

what site of paraganglioma has the highest risk of malignancy?

A

orbital and laryngeal, 25% change

49
Q

How long should someone be off isoretinoin before getting dermabrasion

A

6 months

50
Q

Radiation of what dose to the salivary glands will result in permanent secretory hypofunction

A

over 2600 gray

51
Q

What is the most common preesenting symptom of glosopharyngeal schwannoma and why?

A

Mid frequency SNHL and due to position with relation to the VIII nerve

52
Q

What is a tumor marker for Melanoma?

A

HMB45

53
Q

What does the chemo do in CRT for advanced Laryngeal CA

A

Improved locoregional control

54
Q

What is a granular cell tumor?

A

benign mesenchymal neoplasm of Schwann cell origin. The oral cavity, specifically the tongue, is the most common site for its occurrence in the human body. There is also pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH) of the overlying epithelium

55
Q

What effect does hashimotos have on thyroid cancer?

A

protective

56
Q

What is Reidel’s thyroiditis

A

Autoimmune process where the thyroid gland replaced by fibrosis which extends beyond gland, thought to be related to IgG4 disease

57
Q

How much more common is Thyroid cancer in graves disease compared to regular population

A

twice as more common

58
Q

What is the overall malignant transformation rate of leukoplakic lesions in the larynx

A

14%, mean time to transformation 5 years

59
Q

What muscles border the Killian Triangle

A

Cricopharyngeus and Thyropharyngeus

60
Q

What borders the Laimer triangle

A

Cricopharyngeal muscle and most superior esophgeal circular muscle

61
Q

In what patient population is mucoepidermoid carcinoma slightly more prevalent

A

in women

62
Q

What is the risk of occult lymph node metastases in a parotid tumor that is > 4 cm in diameter

A

20% (vs 4% in smaller ones)

63
Q

What is the most common location of metastatic disease in parathyroid carcinoma

A

lung

64
Q

Based on NCCN for occult primary, what staining should be done on nodes of unknown primary that are adeno or undiff?

A

TTF1, PAX8, thyroglobulin, calcitonin

65
Q

What is the most likely malignancy pictured here and how common is it?

A

Primary thyroid lymphoma (non hodgkins), less than 5% of thyroid malignancies (NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH HODGKINS)

66
Q

What are the most common malignancies that metastasize to the supraclavicular nodes

A

Esophagus, mediastinum, stomach, abdomen

67
Q

How long after treatment with avastin do you do surgery?

A

6 weeks

68
Q

What is the half life of T4? T3?

A

6-7 days, 1 day

69
Q

What is the time frame in which to perform ENOG in acute facial nerve injury? Not acute?

A

3-14 days, 3-21 days

70
Q

What is the most common location in the head and neck for synovial sarcoma to arise?

A

Hypopharynx

71
Q

What is the viral etiology behind oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV, in immunosuppressed state

72
Q

Which vein collects the blood from the deep parts of the face/neck and the scalp?

A

EJ

73
Q

Which vein collects the blood from the brain and the superficial prats of the face/neck?

A

IJ

In service Prep (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions