Head and Neck 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the treatment options for T1s, microinvasive, and Tl glottic carcinoma
A
Endoscopic surgical excision, laser excision, thyrotomy and cordectomy, or radiation.
2
Q
What is immunologic gene therapy
A
Enhancement of an immune response specifically against tumor-associated antigens using viral vectors.
3
Q
High expression of which growth factor receptor in head and neck SCCA can potentially predict lymph node metastasis
A
Epidermoid growth factor receptor (EGFR).
4
Q
What are the boundaries of the pre-epiglottic space
A
Epiglottic cartilage posteriorly, thyrohyoid membrane and hyoid bone anteriorly, hyoepiglottic ligament superiorly.
5
Q
What are the boundaries of the pre-epiglottic space
A
Epiglottic cartilage posteriorly, thyrohyoid membrane and hyoid bone anteriorly, hyoepiglottic ligament superiorly.
6
Q
What structures are considered part of the supraglottis
A
Epiglottis, false vocal cords, aryepiglottic folds, and arytenoids.
7
Q
What technique is most effective in preventing postoperative stenosis after VPL
A
Epiglottopexy.
8
Q
What cells do mucoepidermoid tumors arise from
A
Epithelial cells of interlobar and intralobar salivary ducts.
9
Q
According to Levine et al, SNUC is most likely a grade 4 variant of what tumor
A
Esthesioneuroblastoma or olfactory neuroblastoma.
10
Q
What is the differential diagnosis of a small cell sinonasal tumor
A
Esthesioneuroblastoma, plasmacytoma, melanoma, lymphoma, sarcoma, poorly differentiated SCCA, Ewings sarcoma, PNET, and SNUC.
11
Q
What is adoptive T -cell immunotherapy
A
Ex vivo enhancement of tumor immunogenicity; lymphocytes are removed from the patient then reinfused after in vitro activation against the patient’s own tumor cells.
12
Q
What is the most serious complication of lateral pharyngotomy
A
Excessive retraction on the great vessels leading to thrombosis or embolism.
13
Q
What is the purpose of vestibulectomy during excision of early glottic cancer
A
Excision of the false vocal cord enhances intraoperative and postoperative visualization of the entire vocal cord.
14
Q
What is the cell of origin of parotid gland SCCA
A
Excretory duct cell.
15
Q
Which type of cancer is most sensitive to RT: exophytic, infiltrative, or ulcerated
A
Exophytic.
16
Q
How does this gene work
A
Expresses a viral thymidine kinase that is foreign to mammalian cells but phosphorylates the drug ganciclovir into a compound that terminates DNA synthesis in tumor cells.
17
Q
During resection, which vessel can be sacrificed in most cases
A
External carotid artery.
18
Q
What factors are predictors of occult regional disease in parotid cancer
A
Extracapsular extension, preoperative facial paralysis, age >54 years, and perilymphatic invasion.
19
Q
What 3 signs are classically present in patients with sinonasal neoplasms
A
Facial asymmetry, tumor bulge in the oral cavity, and nasal mass; the presence of all 3 is seen in about 50% of patients and is significant for advanced disease.
20
Q
T/F: TEP is not effective in patients reconstructed with gastric pull-up
A
False, although the voice quality is poor.
21
Q
T/F: Cells undergoing DNA synthesis in the S phase are much more radiosensitive than cells in other phases of the cell cycle
A
False, they are much more radioresistant in the S phase.
22
Q
T/F: Tumor size is related to the likelihood of distant metastasis
A
False.
23
Q
T/F: The degree of differentiation of the primary correlates with distant metastasis
A
False.
24
Q
T/F: Proton beams have poorer skin-sparing properties than electron beams
A
False.
25
T/F: The size of the primary lesion is related to the incidence of lymph node metastases in tumors of the hypopharynx
False.
26
What are the risk factors for developing melanoma
Family history, multiple atypical or dysplastic nevi, Hutchinson's freckle, presence of large congenital nevi, blond or red hair, marked freckling on upper back, history of 3 or more blistering sunburns prior to age 20, presence of actinic keratoses.
27
What anatomic feature of the epiglottis facilitates extension of carcinoma into the pre-epiglottic space
Fenestrations/ dehiscences.
28
What anatomic feature of the epiglottis facilitates extension of carcinoma into the pre-epiglottic space
Fenestrations/ dehiscences.
29
What is the principle dose-limiting factor of RT
Fibrosis of the subcutaneous tissue and muscle.
30
What are the contraindications to VPL and laryngoplasty
Fixed vocal cord, involvement of the posterior commissure, invasion of both arytenoids, bulky transglottic lesions, invasion of the thyroid cartilage, subglottic extension \>I em anteriorly (5 mm posteriorly), trans glottic lesions extending to the supraglottis.
31
What is unique about the path of growth of BCC
Follow the path of least resistance, which is typically along embryonic fusion planes.
32
When is stereotactic radiosurgery contraindicated in the treatment of recurrent glomus jugulare tumors
For larger tumors (\>3.0 - 4.0 em).
33
When is a total rhinotomy approach most useful
For midline tumors where exposure of the cribriform plate and the bilateral ethmoids is necessary.
34
Which foramina of the skull lie in close proximity to the nasopharynx
Foramen lacerum, carotid canal, foramen spinosum, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, hypoglossal canal, and jugular foramen.
35
What does the adenovirus vector do once it enters the host cell
Forms a nonreplicating, extrachromosomal entity called an episome that persists for 7 - 42 days.
36
What is the most common site of origin of nasopharyngeal cancer
Fossa of Rosenmi.iller.
37
What are the reconstructive options after total laryngectomy and total pharyngectomy
Free jejunal interposition graft, U-shaped pectoralis major + split thickness skin graft, tubed thin flap (radial forearm or de-epithelialized deltopectoral).
38
What is the classic physical finding of carotid body tumors
Freely moveable in the lateral direction but fixed in the cephalad-caudal direction.
39
What environmental factor is most strongly linked to NPC
Frequent consumption of dried salted fish.
40
What are the 3 subtypes of Schneiderian papillomas
Fungiform, inverting, and cylindrical.
41
What are the reconstructive options after total laryngopharyngectomy and cervical esophagectomy
Gastric pull-up, free jejunal graft.
42
What are the 5 histopathologic types of SCCA
Generic, adenoid, bowenoid, verrucous, and spindle-pleomorphic.
43
Which of these arises in areas of actinic change
Generic.
44
What are the two types of temporal bone paragangliomas
Glomus jugulare involving the adventitia of the jugular bulb and glomus tympanicum involving Jacobson's nerve Uugulotympanic glomus if unable to discern site of origin).
45
What is the most common site of laryngeal cancer
Glottis.
46
What is the most significant prognostic factor in patients with mesenchymal tumors
Grade of the tumor.
47
What is the significance of the number of pathologically positive nodes on prognosis
Greater than 3 pathologically positive nodes is a negative prognostic indicator.
48
What is Shamblin's classification system for carotid body tumors
Group I: small and easily excised. Group I I: adherent to the vessels; resectable with careful subadventitial dissection. Group Ill: encase the carotid; require partial or complete vessel resection
49
What is most common hormonal deficiency after RT for NPC
Growth hormone deficiency.
50
Which of these are classically associated with adenocarcinoma
Hardwood dusts and leather tanning substances.
51
What is the most common complication of parotidectomy
Hematoma.
52
What is the most commonly used gene for cytotoxic gene therapy
Herpes simplex virus-thymidine kinase gene (HSV -tk).
53
What are the indications for postoperative radiation after parotidectomy
High probability of residual microscopic disease; positive margins; advanced stage; high grade ~ deep lobe tumors; recurrent tumors; presence of regional metastases; angiolymphatic invasion.
54
Radiation is not as effective for tumors with which characteristics
High volume, cartilage-destroying, with bulky lymph node disease.
55
Which salivary gland tumors have the worst prognosis (5)
High-grade mucoepidermoid, adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, and carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma.
56
What is the gold standard for identification of subclinical disease
Histologic examination of the surgical specimen.
57
What are the risk factors for developing osteosarcoma in the mandible or maxilla
History of ionizing radiation, fibrous dysplasia, retinoblastoma, prior exposure to thorium oxide (radioactive scanning agent).
58
What histological pattern is characteristic of this tumor
Homer-Wright rosettes.
59
Which virus is thought to play a role in the etiology of sinonasal tumors
HPV, particularly types 6 and 12.
60
What electrolyte problem is disproportionately associated with gastric pull-up
Hypocalcemia secondary to impaired calcium absorption and inadvertent parathyroid resection during thyroidectomy.
61
Where are most synovial sarcomas of the head and neck located
Hypopharynx and parapharyngeal space.
62
What are the 3 most important factors leading to osteoradionecrosis (ORN)
Hypovascularity, hypocellularity, and hypoxia (the "3H's").
63
What % of patients undergoing supraglottic laryngectomy and unilateral neck dissection will fail in the contralateral neck
I 6°/o, despite receiving XRT to the area.
64
What % of patients with carcinoma in situ of the vocal cord will develop invasive SCCA after a single excisional biopsy
I in 6 (16.7%).
65
What % of patients with carcinoma in situ of the vocal cord will develop invasive SCCA after a single excisional biopsy
I in 6 (16.7%).
66
During endoscopic evaluation of a tumor of the hypopharynx, what 4 questions must be answered
I. Can the larynx be saved 2. Is a partial or total pharyngectomy necessary 3. Is a partial or total esophagectomy necessary 4. Does the tumor extend into the prevertebral fascia
67
When is total esophagectomy indicated
If the inferior margin during resection of a postcricoid tumor extends below the mediastinal inlet or if a second primary is present in the distal esophagus.
68
When should the submandibular gland be removed with the tumor
If the lesion involves the cheek, zygomatic area, nasolabial fold, or upper lip.
69
What are the indications for parotidectomy in addition to resection of the tumor
If the lesion involves the lateral forehead, temporal scalp, preauricular skin, or anterior ear.
70
What is the purpose of using a STSG to cover a small defect after excision of a tonsil cancer
If the pterygoid muscles are exposed during resection, placing a STSG will help prevent muscle fibrosis and trismus.
71
In which circumstance can a hemilaryngectomy be performed in the presence of vocal cord fixation
If the tumor does not extend through the cricothyroid membrane or the perichondrium of the thyroid cartilage.
72
What is Ohngren 's line and how is it significant
Imaginary line from the medial canthus to the angle of the mandible; tumors below the line have a better prognosis than tumors above the line (with the palate as an exception).
73
What are the next 3 most common sites of metastasis
In order of frequency, mediastinal lymph nodes, skeletal system, and liver.
74
What are the 2 most common reasons for tumor recurrence after hemilaryngectomy
Inability to recognize the inferior tumor margin and spread of tumor through the cricothyroid membrane.
75
What is the best organ-sparing treatment for a patient with stage III SCCA of the supraglottis
Induction chemotherapy followed by radiation therapy.
76
How should this flap be modified if reconstruction with a deltopectoral flap is planned
Inferior incision should be as low as possible.
77
What is the venous drainage of the cervical esophagus
Inferior thyroid vein.
78
In the staging system described by Ho, poorer prognosis is associated with cervical metastases to which area of the neck
Inferior to a plane spanning from the contralateral sternal head of the clavicle to the ipsilateral superior margin of the trapezius muscle.
79
What are the boundaries of the parapharyngeal space
Inferior: hyoid bone. Superior: petrous bone. Medial: soft palate, tonsils, superior pharyngeal constrictor. Lateral: medial pterygoid muscle, ramus of the mandible, posterior belly of the digastric. Dorsal: vertebral column and paravertebral muscles. Ventral: pterygomandibular raphe.
80
What type of resection would be best for a tumor confined to the floor of the maxillary antrum
Infrastructure maxillectomy.
81
That being said, which areas of the face are most susceptible to BCC
Inner canthus, philtrum, mid-lower chin, nasolabial groove, preauricular area, and retroauricular sulcus.
82
What is Whitnall's tubercle
Insertion site of the lateral canthal tendon.
83
How does it appear on MRI
Intermediate intensity on T- I and T -2 weighted images, permeates sinus walls without gross displacement.
84
What is the most common cause of death in osteosarcoma of the head and neck
Intracranial extension.
85
How does one assess for involvement of the prevertebral fascia
Intraoperative evaluation is most accurate. During endoscopy, one can attempt to mobilize the posterior pharyngeal wall to assess for involvement. Video esophagography and CT scan are also helpful.
86
What is "microinvasive" SCCA of the vocal cord
Invades through the basement membrane but not into the vocalis muscle.
87
What is "microinvasive" SCCA of the vocal cord
Invades through the basement membrane but not into the vocalis muscle.
88
What factors make a tumor of the nose or paranasal sinuses unresectable
Invasion into the frontal lobe, prevertebral fascia, bilateral optic nerves, or • cavernous smus.
89
What is the significance of vocal cord fixation in laryngeal carcinoma
Invasion of the vocalis muscle has occurred, and lymph node metastasis is more likely.
90
What is the most common benign sinonasal neoplasm
Inverting papilloma.
91
What are the contraindications to VPL for treatment of postradiation tumor recurrence
Involvement of both vocal cords, involvement of body of arytenoid, subglottic extension \>5 mm, fixed vocal cord, cartilage invasion, different tumor type from original primary.
92
What are the contraindications to laser excision of early glottic carcinoma
Involvement of the anterior or posterior commissure, subglottic extension.
93
According to Larson, what are the indications for orbital exenteration
Involvement of the periorbita, posterior ethmoid sinuses or orbital apex.
94
What are the contraindications to radical maxillectomy
Involvement of the sphenoid, nasopharynx, middle cranial fossa, or extensive infratemporal fossa; presence of bilateral cervical metastases or distant metastases.
95
What are the clinical features of Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Iron deficiency anemia, upper esophageal web, hypothyroidism, glossitis/cheilitis, gastritis, and dysphagia.
96
What histologic characteristic of recurrent basal cell cancers has prognostic significance
Irregularity in the peripheral palisade.
97
What happens to the carotid sheath with deep lobe parotid tumors extending into the parapharyngeal space
It is displaced posteriorly.
98
How does metastasizing pleomorphic adenoma differ from carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma
It is histologically benign, lacking malignant epithelial components.
99
What is the relationship of the fossa of Rosenmuller to the parapharyngeal space
It lies at the convergence of the fascial planes that separate the parapharyngeal space into its three compartments (prestyloid, retrostyloid, and retropharyngeal).
100
Is melanoma radiosensitive
It may be sensitive to large dose fractions (600cGy) but not to standard fractionation radiotherapy ( 180 - 200cGy).
101
When SCCA grossly invades the adventitia of the carotid artery, how will resection of the artery affect survival
It will not improve long-term survival.
102
How does using cisplatinum avoid this problem
Its toxicity (hematologic) does not overlap with that of radiation therapy (mucositis).
103
Where does supraglottic carcinoma most often begin
Junction of the epiglottis and false cords.
104
Where is the fossa of Rosenmiiller
Just posterior-superior to the torus tubarius of the eustachian tube orifice.
105
What are the histologic features of SCCA of the skin
Keratin pearls in well-differentiated lesions; poorly-differentiated lesions may require identification with a cytokeratin or vimentin.
106
What is the name for a skin lesion, most commonly located on the nose, characterized by rapid growth with a central area of ulceration followed by spontaneous involution
Keratoacanthoma.
107
Which of these is the most aggressive
Keratotic.
108
What are the problems with physical methods of gene transfer
Lack of specificity and extremely low efficiency.
109
What EBV product is likely to play a role in malignant transformation of nasopharyngeal epithelium
Latent membrane protein (LMP-1 ).
110
Where do these tumors most often originate
Lateral nasal wall, adjacent to the middle turbinate.
111
Where do inverting papillomas most commonly arise
Lateral nasal wall.
112
What are other surgical approaches to the nasopharynx
Lateral rhinotomy with facial disassembly, trans palatal split, lateral cervical approach with mandibular swing, transparotid temporal bone approach, infratemporal fossa approach.
113
What are the three basic transfacial approaches to these procedures
Lateral rhinotomy, total rhinotomy, mid face degloving.
114
What are the three basic transfacial approaches to these procedures
Lateral rhinotomy, total rhinotomy, mid face degloving.
115
What is the most common site of recurrent/persistent NPC
Lateral wall of the nasopharynx.
116
What factors, described by Ho and Neel, are regarded as important adverse prognostic indicators in patients with NPC
Length and symptomatology of disease, extension of tumor outside of the nasopharynx, presence of inferior cervical adenopathy, keratinizing histologic architecture, cranial nerve and skull base extension, presence of distant metastases, and low A DCC titers.
117
How do most glomus jugulare tumors respond to external beam radiation
Less than 50% show tumor regression radiographically; lack of tumor growth is more common.
118
What is the somnolence syndrome
Lethargy, nausea, headache, cranial nerve palsies, ataxia presenting 2 - 3 months after R T and lasting 2 - 4 weeks.
119
What are the levels defined in Clark's system
Level I: epidermis. Level II: invasion of basal lamina into the papillary dermis. Level III: fill the papillary dermis. Level IV: invasion into the reticular dermis. Level V: invasion into subcutaneous fat.
120
What happens if the orbital septum is violated during resection of a sinonasal tumor
Lid shortening and ectropion.
121
What is the primary limitation of the midface degloving approach
Limited exposure of the skull base and anterior ethmoid sinuses.
122
What is the Weber-Fergusson incision
Lip-splitting extension of the lateral rhinotomy incision that permits exposure for a radical maxillectomy.
123
What is the Weber-Fergusson incision
Lip-splitting extension of the lateral rhinotomy incision that permits exposure for a radical maxillectomy.
124
What is the most common cause of treatment failure
Local recurrence.
125
Patients with supraglottic cancer who undergo both surgery and radiation therapy (versus surgery alone) are at a significantly higher risk for what
Long-term gastrostomy feeding.
126
Other than UV light and genetics, what are some other factors that increase the risk of cutaneous malignancy
Long-term immunosuppression after organ transplantation, long-term treatment of psoriasis with photosensitizing chemicals, chronic ulcers, low-dose irradiation.
127
How does this assay predict survival
Low levels are associated with worse prognosis.
128
How is an altered fractionated schedule different
Lower dose per fraction, 2 or more fractions QD, decreased overall treatment time, with total dose same or higher.
129
What is the primary advantage of stereotactic radiosurgery for treatment of recurrent glomus jugulare tumors compared to surgery and conventional radiation
Lower incidence of cranial nerve injury.
130
How are the low-grade and high-grade varieties of adenoid cystic carcinoma defined
Low-grade tumors have less than 30°/o solid anaplastic histology; high-grade tumors have more than 30°/o solid anaplastic histology.
131
What is the most common cause of death from synovial sarcoma of the head and neck
Lung metastases.
132
What is the most common site of distant metastasis for adenoid cystic carcinoma
Lung.
133
What is the most common site of distant metastasis from laryngeal carcinoma
Lungs.
134
What is the greatest single cause of failure of supraglottic laryngectomy
Lymph node metastasis.
135
After SCCA, what is the 2"d most common malignant tumor of the nasopharynx
Lymphoma.
136
Which neck dissection incision results in the best cosmetic outcome
MacFee incision.
137
What are some known head and neck tumor antigens
MAGE is seen in 71 °/o; others include mutated CASP-8, SCCAg, cytokeratin fragment I 9.
138
What clinical factors increase the risk of radiation injury
Male gender, extremes of age, higher doses and fractions, comorbidities.
139
What is the most common type of skin sarcoma
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
140
Which salivary gland tumor contains both benign and malignant cells
Malignant lymphoepithelioma.
141
Which salivary gland tumor is more common in Eskimos
Malignant oncocytoma.
142
Where in the head and neck are osteogenic sarcomas most commonly found
Mandible.
143
Which bone in the head and neck is most commonly affected by ORN
Mandible; it has a relatively tenuous blood supply, and it is stress-bearing.
144
Which branch of the facial nerve is most commonly paretic after parotidectomy
Marginal mandibular.
145
Which nasal masses should not be biopsied in the clinic
Masses in children or adolescents and masses suspicious for angiofibroma... some also recommend delaying biopsy of any nasal mass until after imaging has been obtained.
146
Where is it most commonly found in the head and neck
Maxilla.
147
What are the most common locations of sino nasal SCCA
Maxillary sinus, followed by the nasal cavity, then ethmoid sinuses.
148
What is the role of ascertaining EBV titers in patients with NPC
May be a valuable screening tool in high-risk populations and can help establish the diagnosis of NPC in the patient with an unknown primary. In patients with type I disease, EBV titers are not elevated and have no prognostic significance.
149
How do you test for multiple myeloma in these patients
Measure serum M-protein and urine Bence Jones protein; bone survey; bone marrow biopsy.
150
How do you test for multiple myeloma in these patients
Measure serum M-protein and urine Bence Jones protein; bone survey; bone marrow biopsy.
151
What is the most common presentation of a parapharyngeal space tumor
Medial displacement of the lateral oropharyngeal wall or as a palpable mass beneath the angle of the mandible.
152
What is the gold standard of treatment for inverting papillomas
Medial maxillectomy via lateral rhinotomy.
153
What are the four basic surgical procedures used to resect tumors of the mid face
Medial maxillectomy, suprastructure maxillectomy, infrastructure maxillectomy, and radical maxillectomy.
154
What are the four basic surgical procedures used to resect tumors of the mid face
Medial maxillectomy, suprastructure maxillectomy, infrastructure maxillectomy, and radical maxillectomy.
155
What structures are found in the prestyloid compartment of the parapharyngeal space
Medial pterygoid muscle, fat, lymphatics, minor nerves and vessels.
156
What cells are melanomas comprised of
Melanocytes, which are derived from neural crest cells.
157
Which adnexal skin carcinoma arises from a pluripotential basal cell within or around the hair cells
Merkel cell carcinoma.
158
What factor is most related to the chance of recurrence for inverting papilloma
Method of removal.
159
In which areas of the world is the incidence of esophageal cancer highest
Middle East, southern and eastern Africa, and northern China.
160
What is the most common site of a malignant salivary gland neoplasm
Minor salivary glands (60%; of these, 40% occur on the palate).
161
In patients who undergo resection of inverting papilloma via lateral rhinotomy/medial maxillectomy, what is the most important factor related to risk for recurrence
Mitotic index.
162
How does melanoma of the nose differ from cutaneous melanoma
More aggressive with a worse prognosis and an unpredictable course... local recurrence is the most common cause of failure.
163
How do these tumors differ clinically from carotid body tumors
More common in females, less likely to secrete catecholamines or metastasize, and are more radiosensitive.
164
What are the indications for MOHS surgery
Morpheaform BCC, recurrent BCC, and BCC in cosmetically-sensitive locations.
165
Which of these commonly resembles a scar
Morpheaform.
166
What is the histologic appearance of pleomorphic adenoma
Morphologically diverse with mucoid, chondroid, osseous, and myxoid elements.
167
Which of these is most common in North America? Least common
Most common is type lll (70%); least common is type II (10%).
168
What are the clinical features of salivary duct carcinomas
Most commonly involve the parotid gland and present as an asymptomatic mass; higher incidence in males; distant metastases are the most common cause of death.
169
What is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland in adults
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
170
Which salivary gland tumor is more common in women with a history of breast cancer
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
171
What are the 2 most common malignant tumors of the parotid gland in children younger than 12
Mucoepidermoid is the most common, followed by acinic cell.
172
What is the most common salivary gland malignancy following radiation
Mucoepidermoid.
173
What are the layers of the posterior pharyngeal wall, from superficial to deep
Mucosa, constrictor muscles, longus colli, retropharyngeal space, prevertebral fascia.
174
What are the 3 most common malignant bone tumors of the paranasal sinuses
Multiple myeloma, osteogenic sarcoma, chondrosarcoma.
175
What are the indications for postoperative radiation after neck dissection
Multiple nodes or extracapsular spread.
176
What are the indications for postoperative radiation therapy
Multiple nodes, extracapsular spread, positive/inadequate margins, or node \> 3 em.
177
How does metastatic disease to the lungs normally present
Multiple small lesions less than 3 mm that are difficult to detect on x-ray.
178
What can be done to prevent functional dysphagia due to neuromuscular incoordination
Myotomy of the jejunal musculature.
179
What is the most common presenting symptom of sinonasal neoplasms
Nasal obstruction (50%).
180
Where is melanoma most commonly found in the nose and paranasal sinuses
Nasal septum.
181
What is the mortality rate for stomal recurrence
Nearly 100%.
182
T/F: Almost all cases of ORN are secondary to overlying soft tissue
necrosis. True.
183
What are the histologic features of glomus tumors
Nests of chief cells with neurosecretory granules, surrounded by fibrovascular stroma and sustentacular cells that are S-1 00 positive. Chief cells are positive on immunohistochemistry for chromogranin, synaptophysin and neuron-specific enolase neurofilaments.
184
Which type of radiation therapy does adenoid cystic carcinoma respond best to
Neutron beam.
185
Which substances are thought to predispose to sinonasal neoplasms
Nickel, chromium, isopropyl oils, volatile hydrocarbons, organic fibers from wood, shoe, and textile refineries.
186
Which of these is classically associated with SCCA
Nickel.
187
What was the outcome of this study
No significant difference in survival among the three arms.
188
What is the role of induction chemotherapy
No survival advantage has been proven.
189
If a marginal mandibulectomy is performed and the bony margin is positive, does one irradiate the remaining bone
No, as bone is relatively hypoxic and cannot generate many free radicals with XRT; the patient should be taken back to the OR for mandibulectomy.
190
Are elective neck dissections warranted in patients with sino nasal SCCA
No, as the incidence of occult cervical metastases is 10%.
191
What are the 5 main types of BCC
Nodular, cystic, superficial multicentric, morpheaform, keratotic.
192
Which of these is most common
Nodular.
193
What is the most common type of lymphoma of the nose and paranasal sinuses
Non-Hodgkin's.
194
What is the pathophysiology of fibrous dysplasia
Normal medullary bone is replaced by collagen, fibroblasts, and osteoid.
195
What is the primary limitation of the gastric pull-up
Obtaining enough length to achieve a tension-free closure.
196
When embolized preoperatively, communication between the external and internal carotid circulation may occur through which vessel
Occipital artery.
197
Which mandibular tumor or cyst produces white, keratin-containing fluid
Odontogenic keratocyst.
198
How does it appear on MRI
On T-1 weighted MRI, mildly hyperintense to hypointense with mild to moderate enhancement; on T-2 weighted MRl, markedly homogenous and hypointense (ground glass appearance).
199
What are the advantages of transoral laser resection of early supraglottic cancer
Oncologically sound, no tracheostomy or feeding tube is usually necessary, early discharge, rapid resumption of deglutition, more cost effective.
200
What percentage of incompletely excised basal cell cancers will recur
One-third.
201
What are five adjunctive procedures to the above dissections
Orbital exenteration, infratemporal fossa dissection, craniotomy, contralateral maxillectomy, rhinectomy.
202
What are five adjunctive procedures to the above dissections
Orbital exenteration, infratemporal fossa dissection, craniotomy, contralateral maxillectomy, rhinectomy.
203
What structures are preserved with an infrastructure maxillectomy that would be resected with a total maxillectomy
Orbital floor and sometimes the infraorbital nerve.
204
What are the poor prognostic factors for SNUC tumors
Orbital involvement and neck metastases; tumors in the paranasal sinuses have a worse prognosis than those arising in the nasal cavity.
205
What are the characteristics of skeletal metastases
Osteolytic lesions most frequently found in the lumbosacral spine and ribs.
206
What are the complications from radiation overdosage in the treatment of NPC
Osteoradionecrosis, brain necrosis, transverse myelitis, hearing loss, hypopituitarism, hypothyroidism, optic neuritis.
207
What can cause postoperative pneumocephalus
Overly aggressive drainage of CSF via a lumbar drain or ball-valve action of the flaps used to reconstruct the skull base.
208
What are the two most common tumor suppressor genes under investigation for treatment of head and neck cancers
p53 and p 16.
209
Where is adenoid cystic carcinoma of the head and neck most commonly found
Palate, followed by major salivary glands, then paranasal sinuses.
210
What is the most common manifestation of acute injury to the peripheral nervous system
Paraesthesias.
211
What is the primary site of lymphatic drainage from subglottic tumors
Paratracheal nodes.
212
What is the least common site of a malignant salivary gland neoplasm
Parotid gland (32°/o).
213
What is the most common site of a salivary gland neoplasm
Parotid gland (73°/o).
214
Which salivary gland has the best prognosis for malignant tumors
Parotid gland.
215
What procedure is performed for resection of these lesions
Partial laryngopharyngectomy.
216
What is the supraglottic swallow
Patient inhales, takes food into mouth, performs Valsalva to close the glottis, coughs to clear debris from the glottis, swallows, and then exhales.
217
What is the most common tumor of the parotid gland
Pleomorphic adenoma in adults, hemangioma in children.
218
What is the most common tumor of the parapharyngeal space
Pleomorphic adenoma.
219
What can happen if the free jejunal graft is too long
Pooling of secretions and dysphagia.
220
What is the primary problem of using concomitant chemotherapy
Poor patient tolerance requiring treatment breaks; split-course radiation therapy has been shown to result in decreased survival compared with continuous course radiotherapy.
221
What are the contraindications to craniofacial resection
Poor surgical candidate, presence of multiple distant metastases, invasion of the prevertebral fascia, cavernous sinus (by a high-grade tumor), carotid artery (in a high-risk patient), or bilateral optic nerves/optic chiasm.
222
What are the histopathologic features of synovial sarcoma of the head and neck
Poorly differentiated, high grade malignant neoplasms arising from pluripotential mesenchymal cells; biphasic cellular pattern containing spindle cells and epithelioid cells; microcalcifications in 30 - 60%; the existence of monophasic forms, containing either spindle or epithelioid cells, is controversial.
223
What are other significant prognostic factors for supraglottic tumors
Positive surgical wound washings, nearness of neoplastic involvement to the margins of surgical resection, stomal recurrence after laryngectomy, regional and distant metastases.
224
In which of these sites is cancer more common in females
Postcricoid area.
225
Which site of the hypopharynx drains bilaterally into levels IV and VI
Postcricoid area.
226
In patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome, where is SCCA of the esophagus most likely to occur
Post-cricoid area.
227
What area of the sinonasal tract is better visualized with endoscopy as opposed to medial maxillectomy
Posterior ethmoid cells, particularly those lateral to the sphenoid sinus and around the optic nerve.
228
What can be done to improve the results of salvage neck dissection
Postoperative brachytherapy via hollow tubes placed at the time of surgery.
229
Which compartment are neurogenic tumors most likely to arise in
Poststyloid compartment.
230
What is the treatment for SNUC
Preoperative chemoradiation, followed by surgical resection for those tumors without distant metastases or extensive intracranial involvement.
231
When must the facial nerve be sacrificed during parotidectomy
Preoperative facial nerve weakness or paralysis; adenoid cystic carcinoma abutting the nerve; malignant tumor infiltrating the nerve.
232
According to Levine et al, what treatment protocol has improved both functional and survival outcome for sinonasal malignancies
Preoperative radiation (50Gy) +/chemotherapy (Cytoxan, vincristine) followed by craniofacial resection.
233
What are the contraindications to surgical resection
Presence of distant metastases; involvement of prevertebral fascia, trachea, or carotid arteries.
234
What is the primary advantage of the midline mandibular osteotomy for resection of oropharyngeal tumors compared to the lateral mandibulotomy
Preservation of the inferior alveolar and lingual nerves.
235
Parapharyngeal tumors arising from the deep lobe of the parotid will involve which compartment
Prestyloid compartment.
236
What are the reconstructive options after partial pharyngectomy
Primary closure (if 3 or more em of tissue is available), skin graft, SCM flap, radial forearm free flap or deltopectoral flap with a de-epithelialized pedicle.
237
What are the reconstructive options after total laryngectomy and partial pharyngectomy
Primary closure if more than 40% of the pharyngeal circumference is left in situ, regional flap (pectoralis major, deltopectoral), radial forearm free flap, gastric patch, free jejunal patch, tongue base rotation flap.
238
What are the differences between primary and secondary subglottic tumors
Primary tumors are less common, usually present with stridor or dyspnea and at a more advanced stage, and have a worse survival time than secondary tumors.
239
What features of hypopharyngeal tumors distinguish them from other head and neck tumors
Propensity for early submucosal spread and skip lesions.
240
What structure in the hypopharynx marks the location of the cricoarytenoid joint
Pyriform apex.
241
What are the most common and least common sites of tumor involvement in the hypopharynx
Pyriform sinus is the most common site (75%); postcricoid area is the least common site (3-4%).
242
What are the 3 subsites of the hypopharynx
Pyriform sinus, postcricoid area, and posterior pharyngeal wall.
243
What is the primary treatment modality for nasopharyngeal cancer
Radiation therapy to the nasopharynx (66-70 Gy) and neck (60 Gy).
244
What is the primary modality of treatment for extramedullary plasmacytomas
Radiation.
245
What is the primary modality of treatment for extramedullary plasmacytomas
Radiation.
246
What is the recommended treatment for neck disease after radiation therapy
Radical neck dissection.
247
What are the three most common odontogenic cysts
Radicular cyst (65%), odontogenic keratocyst, dentigerous cyst.
248
How is isotretinoin effective in the treatment of SCCA of the head and neck
Reduces the incidence of second primary tumors.
249
What are the most common presenting symptoms in patients with tumor of the retromolar trigone (RMT)
Referred otalgia and trismus.
250
What are the most common complications of gastric pull-up
Regurgitation, cervical dysphagia, stricture, anastomotic leak.
251
What are the treatment options for recurrent/persistent NPC at the primary site
Reirradiation with larger therapeutic dose than initial treatment; stereotactic radiotherapy; brachytherapy with split palate implantation of radioactive gold surgical resection.
252
What are 5 major approaches of gene transfer, and which is most common
Replacement of mutated tumor suppressor genes, introduction of toxic/suicide genes, immunomodulation (most common), delivery of antisense nucleotides, and cytolytic viral therapy.
253
Which nodal groups does nasopharyngeal cancer spread to
Retropharyngeal nodes of Rouviere, jugulodigastric nodes, spinal accessory chain.
254
What space does the parapharyngeal space communicate with dorsally
Retropharyngeal space.
255
What is the blood supply to the gastric pull-up
Right gastroepiploic and right gastric arteries.
256
How do RT failures differ from surgical failures in site of recurrence
RT failures often occur in the center of areas that were grossly involved with cancer initially; surgical failures often occur at the periphery of the original tumor.
257
Which sinonasal neoplasms remodel rather than erode bone
Sarcomas, minor salivary gland carcinomas, hemangiopericytomas, extramedullary plasmacytomas, large cell lymphomas, and olfactory neuroblastomas.
258
Which sinonasal neoplasms remodel rather than erode bone
Sarcomas, minor salivary gland carcinomas, hemangiopericytomas, extramedullary plasmacytomas, large cell lymphomas, and olfactory neuroblastomas.
259
What are the indications for a prophylactic neck dissection
SCC A \> 4 em with deep invasion arising on the cheek, upper neck, or scalp.
260
What is the most common malignant sinonasal neoplasm
SCCA, comprising 80% of malignant sinonasal neoplasms.
261
Cancer of the cervical esophagus is usually what type
SCCA.
262
Why are patients prone to aspiration after supraglottic laryngectomy
Secondary to loss of epiglottis and closure of false cords, to decrease in laryngeal elevation and loss of afferent stimulation to the vocal cords with tracheostomy, and to decrease in sensation from loss of superior laryngeal nerves during tumor resection.
263
What are the characteristics of an ideal oncolytic virus
Selective for infection and lysis of cancer cells; stimulates a potent antitumor response with limited local/systemic toxicity.
264
What effects does RT have on the ears
Serous OM; possibly SNHL, although this controversial.
265
What is its significance
Serves as a pathway for tumor extension into the thyroid cartilage.
266
What does continuous facial nerve monitoring during parotidectomy prevent
Short-term paresis.
267
What impact does hyperfractionated therapy have on locoregional control and survival rates compared to conventional therapy
Significantly higher locoregional control and survival rates.
268
What is a SNUC
Sinonasal undifferentiated carcinoma... a very aggressive small cell sinonasal tumor.
269
Which has a steeper dose-response curve: small well-vascularized tumors or bulky tumors
Small well-vascularized tumors.
270
How does chondrosarcoma of the mandible appear radiographically
Soft tissue mass with amorphous "popcorn" calcifications.
271
Which of these is the least common
Spindle-pleomorphic.
272
What is the classic finding on arteriogram of carotid body tumors
Splaying of the carotid bifurcation by a well-defined tumor blush ("lyre sign").
273
What is Bowen's disease
Squamous cell carcinoma-in-situ of the skin.
274
What is the most important prognostic factor for malignant salivary gland neoplasms
Stage.
275
What is the function of IL-2
Stimulates T and NK cells.
276
Compared to supraglottic and glottic tumors, subglottic tumors are at a much higher risk for developing what
Stomal recurrence.
277
What are the 5 layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial
Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
278
Why is the clinically negative neck treated
Studies have shown improved local control and disease-free survival for prophylactic irradiation of the cJinicalJy negative neck in patients with NPC.
279
What are the incisions used for the midface degloving approach
Sublabial; intercartilaginous; complete transfixion.
280
What is the least common site of a salivary gland neoplasm
Submandibular gland (I 1 %).
281
Which salivary gland has the worst prognosis for malignant tumors
Submandibular gland.
282
How does osteosarcoma of the mandible appear radiographically
Sunburst appearance, radiating periosteal new bone.
283
Which of these is more commonly found on the extremities or trunk
Superficial multicentric.
284
What are the 4 types of melanoma
Superficial spreading, lentigo maligna, acral lentiginous, and nodular sclerosing.
285
Which is the most common
Superficial spreading.
286
Which has the best prognosis
Superficial spreading.
287
What is the blood supply to the jejunum
Superior mesenteric arterial arcade.
288
What are the boundaries of the pyriform fossa
Superiorly, the inferior margin of the hyoid; anteriorly, the junction of the anterior and posterior halves of the thyroid cartilage; posteriorly, the posterior edge of the thyroid cartilage; apex, the cricoarytenoid joint.
289
Which type of laryngeal cancer is mostly likely to metastasize distally
Supraglottic.
290
What is the most direct approach for resection of all other posterior pharyngeal wall tumors
Suprahyoid.
291
What is the optimal treatment for osteosarcoma of the head and neck
Surgery and radiation therapy.
292
What is the role of concomitant chemotherapy
Survival advantage has been found using cisplatinum and 5-tlourouracil.
293
What is the stage of a transglottic tumor without vocal cord fixation, cartilage invasion, or extension beyond the larynx
T2.
294
What are 2 important techniques to prevent postoperative fistula formation
Tension-free closure and perioperative antibiotics.
295
What are "carpet carcinomas"
Term used by Kleinsasser to describe laryngeal carcinomas with diffuse mucosal spread and limited submucosal infiltration.
296
What were the results from the EORTC 22851 study comparing accelerated split-course XRT to conventional XRT
The accelerated course resulted in significantly higher late side effects without significant locoregional control or survival advantage.
297
What feature distinguishes low-grade from high-grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma
The amount of mucin in the tumor.
298
What are the advantages of postoperative RT
The anatomic extent of the tumor can be determined surgically, making it easier to define the treatment portals required; a greater dose can be given postoperatively than preoperatively; the total dose to be given can be determined on the basis of residual tumor burden after surgery; surgical resection is easier and healing is better in non-irradiated tissue.
299
What structure courses through the foramen ovale
The mandibular nerve (V3 ).
300
What is the anterolateral surgical approach to the nasopharynx
The maxillary antrum attached to an anterior cheek flap is developed as an osteocutaneous flap and swung laterally.
301
Which factors determine the probability of local control with RT
The number of malignant cells and the proportion of hypoxic cells.
302
What can be done for a large discrepancy between the circumference of the pharyngeal stoma and the jejunal segment
The proximal jejunum can be opened longitudinally along its antimesenteric border or a redundant piece of jejunum can be inserted into the proximal segment to widen the lumen.
303
What conclusions can be made based on meta-analysis of these studies
The surgical patients had slightly higher (but not significant) survival advantage (6%). Among patients receiving chemotherapy, 58% were able to keep their larynx. Better outcomes were seen in patients with hypopharyngeal cancer who underwent chemotherapy than in those with laryngeal cancer.
304
What was the first published randomized trial for organ preservation
The VA trial for SCC A of the larynx.
305
How does one differentiate between a benign and a malignant paraganglioma
There are no clear histologic characteristics of malignancy; malignant lesions are defined by the presence of metastases.
306
What problems may result from insertion at this location
This location is associated with chronic B-cell leukemias and integration into both copies of chromosome 19 may lead to cell death.
307
What were the results from the RTOG 9003 study evaluating accelerated treatments with concomitant boost
This protocol resulted in significantly higher locoregional control and survival rates with somewhat higher rate of late side effects compared to conventional XRT.
308
What is the arterial supply to the cervical esophagus
Thyroid branch of the thyrocervical trunk.
309
What is the difference between hemilaryngectomy and vertical partial laryngectomy (VPL)
Thyroid perichondrium is preserved in VPL and excised in hemilaryngectomy.
310
Why is the superior limb placed 1 em inferior to the mandible
To hide the scar in the shadow of the mandible.
311
Why should the inferior turbinate be removed during resection of a sinonasal tumor
To prevent interference with a palatal prosthesis.
312
What are the risk factors for developing esophageal cancer
Tobacco, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, prior head and neck cancer, tylosis, Barrett's disease.
313
What is the treatment of choice for primary subglottic cancer
Total laryngectomy, bilateral neck dissection, near total thyroidectomy, paratracheal node dissection and postoperative radiation to the superior mediastinum and stoma; if the anterior cervical esophageal wall is involved, then laryngopharyngectomy with cervical esophagectomy instead of total laryngectomy.
314
What is the treatment of choice for metastatic cutaneous SCCA to the parotid
Total parotidectomy with preservation of VII (unless invaded by tumor) and postoperative radiation therapy to the parotid area and ipsilateral neck.
315
What is the best surgical approach for removal of parapharyngeal tumors
Transcerv i cal.
316
What effects does RT have on the brain or spinal cord
Transient radiation myelopathy, transverse myelitis.
317
What is the primary blood supply to the skin flaps raised in a neck dissection
Transverse cervical artery and facial artery.
318
T /F: The dose of radiation necessary to kill hypoxic cells is 2.5 - 3.0 times greater than that required to kill well-oxygenated cells.
True, as free radical formation requires oxygen.
319
T/F: Embryologically, the supraglottis (SG) and glottis are separate entities
True.
320
T/F: CT scan of the larynx underestimates the stage of laryngeal cancer
True.
321
T/F: Once invasion of the laryngeal framework occurs, the ossified portions of cartilage have the least resistance to tumor spread
True.
322
T/F: Any laryngeal tumor with vocal cord fixation is at least stage T3
True.
323
T/F: No correlation with distant spread has been found with the age, sex, or general clinical condition of the host
True.
324
T/F: Stage I lesions of the supraglottis can be controlled equally well with radiotherapy or surgery
True.
325
T/F: Extension of a tumor in the pyriform sinus below the plane of the laryngeal ventricle is an absolute contraindication to supraglottic laryngectomy
True.
326
T/F: Chemosensitive tumors are usually radiosensitive
True.
327
T/F: It takes the same amount of radiation to reduce a cell population from 100 to 10 cells as it does to reduce it from 10 billion to 1 billion cells
True.
328
T/F: The cells responsible for acute radiation injuries are rapidly cycling
True.
329
T/F: Surgery is more effective in salvaging RT failures than RT is in salvaging surgical failures
True.
330
T/F: Disease-free, but not overall, survival is improved in patients with early oral tongue cancer who undergo elective neck dissection
True.
331
T/F: Neck dissections removed in continuity with the tumor specimen are associated with a significantly higher incidence of survival than those removed separate from the tumor
True.
332
T/F: The involvement of the medial (as opposed to lateral) wall of the pyriform sinus significantly increases the likelihood of bilateral cervical metastasis
True.
333
T/F: Due to the high incidence of cervical metastases, treatment of the neck is necessary in all patients with hypopharyngeal cancer
True.
334
T/F: Superficial lesions of the posterior pharyngeal wall can be resected endoscopically with a laser and left to mucosalize by secondary intention
True.
335
T/F: Due to shrinkage, at least 8 - 10 mm of in-situ margin must be taken to achieve a 5 mm pathologically clear margin for tumors of the oral cavity
True.
336
T/F: There is a much lower risk of distant metastases with osteosarcoma of the head and neck than that of the long bones
True.
337
T/F: A patient with T3N2aMO SCCA of the BOT has a complete response to external-beam RT both at the primary site and the neck. A planned neck dissection should be done to increase the rate of regional control
True.
338
T /F: Adnexal carcinomas of the skin are very aggressive and have a poor prognosis.
True.
339
Reconstruction should be delayed after excision of Merkel cell carcinoma until permanent section results are back.
True.
340
T/F: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCCA) arising in sun-exposed areas tend to behave less aggressively than those arising de novo
True.
341
T/F: Women with melanoma have a better prognosis than men regardless of tumor depth
True.
342
T/F: The presence of unilateral compared with bilateral nodal disease in patients with NPC has no prognostic significance
True.
343
T/F: Smoking by itself is not a significant etiologic factor for sinonasal tumors
True.
344
T/F: Hypopharyngeal cancer has the worst prognosis of all head and neck cancers
True; 70°/o of patients present with advanced disease (stage III and IV) and the 5-year disease-specific survival is only 33%.
345
T /F: RT should not be delayed in the presence of a fistula, open wound, or bony exposure.
True; as long as the carotid artery is not exposed, radiation treatments should never be delayed.
346
What is the role of the MHC (major histocompatability complex) in the development of head and neck cancer
Tumor cells can escape early detection by the patient's immune system via decreased expression of class I MHC antigens.
347
What is the primary contraindication to nasopharyngectomy
Tumor involvement of the cavernous sinus or cranial nerves.
348
What are the two most important factors predicting lymph node metastasis in laryngeal cancer
Tumor size and location.
349
What are the most important prognostic factors in patients with osteosarcoma
Tumor size, grade, and surgical margin status.
350
What factors increase the likelihood of regional metastasis of SCCA
Tumors arising on the ear, diameter \>2 em or \>4 mm thickness, poorly differentiated histology, and recurrent tumors.
351
What is the significance of tumor size on the incidence of complications with resection
Tumors larger than 5 em are associated with a significantly higher rate of complications with removal (67°/o for tumors \>5 em vs 15% for tumors
352
How does the behavior of pyriform sinus tumors differ from postcricoid and posterior pharyngeal wall tumors
Tumors of the pyriform sinus tend to infiltrate deeply at early stages~ those of the postcricoid area and posterior pharyngeal wall tend to remain superficial until achieving an advanced stage.
353
What factors increase the likelihood of recurrence for SCCA
Tumors on the midface, diameter \>2 em or thickness \>4 mm, perineural invasion, or regional metastases.
354
What are the classifications of nasopharyngeal cancer designated by the WHO
Type 1: well-differentiated, keratinizing SCCA. Type II: poorly differentiated, nonkeratinizing SCCA. Type Ill: lymphoepithelioma or undifferentiated.
355
What are the 2 primary cells of paragangliomas
Type I granule-storing chief cells and type II Schwann-like sustentacular cells arranged in a cluster called a Zellballen.
356
What are the three types of ORN
Type I occurs soon after radiation therapy; Type II occurs long after radiation therapy and is induced by trauma; Type III occurs long after radiation therapy and occurs spontaneously.
357
Which of these is not associated with positive EBV titers
Type I.
358
Which of these is characterized by syncytia (fused multinuclear giant cells)
Type Ill.
359
What factor, other than tumor thickness, influences regional metastasis in melanoma
Ulceration.
360
Which kind of supraglottic cancers are more likely to extend inferiorly to the anterior commissure or ventricle... ulcerative or exophytic
Ulcerative lesions.
361
What is the significance of positive margins after laryngeal surgery
Unclear; no correlation exists between recurrence rate and the type of involved margin (gross, close, intraepithelial). Some advocate careful followup instead of further treatment.
362
What can be said of the presence of level V cervical metastases from SCCA of the upper aerodigestive tract
Uncommon (7%), and if present, most likely to occur in the presence of level IV metastases.
363
In what region of the world is Plummer-Vinson syndrome most common
United Kingdom and Scandinavia... rare in the US.
364
What are the advantages of planned preoperative RT
Unresectable tumors may be made resectable; the extent of surgical resection may be diminished; the treatment portals preoperatively are usually smaller than those used postoperatively; microscopic disease is more radiosensitive preoperatively due to better blood supply; the viability of tumor cells that may be disseminated by surgical manipulation is diminished.
365
What percentage of sinonasal tumors can be attributed to occupational exposures
Up to 44%.
366
What % of patients treated with 50 - 60 Gy of RT to the head and neck complain of ageusia
Up to 50°/o.
367
What are the 3 major randomized studies on organ preservation as treatment for laryngeal cancer
VA, GETTEC, EORTC.
368
How can one differentiate a vagal paraganglioma from a carotid body tumor
Vagal paragangliomas displace the internal carotid anteriorly and medially.
369
What anatomic structure serves as a natural barrier to the inferior extension of supraglottic cancers
Ventricle (embryologic development is completely separate from the false cord).
370
Which of these is more common in the oral mucosa
Verrucous
371
What is Ackerman's tumor
Verrucous carcinoma, thought to be less radiosensitive and less likely to metastasize than SCCA.
372
What is Ackerman's tumor
Verrucous carcinoma, thought to be less radiosensitive and less likely to metastasize than SCCA.
373
When is XRT considered in lieu of surgery for treatment of carotid body tumors
Very large tumors, recurrent tumors, or poor surgical candidates.
374
What are the 2 main categories of gene delivery agents
Viral and nonviral/physical.
375
What are the contraindications to supraglottic laryngectomy
Vocal cord fixation, extension to apex of pyriform sinus, bilateral arytenoid involvement, extensive involvement of BOT, involvement of the anterior commissure, invasion of the thyroid cartilage, invasion into the interarytenoid space.
376
What is Broyles' tendon
Vocalis muscle tendon that inserts into the thyroid cartilage.
377
Which benign parotid gland tumors are recognized by a high concentration of mitochondria on electron microscopy
Warthin's tumor and oncocytoma.
378
How does cemento-ossifying fibroma appear radiographically
Well-circumscribed lesion with a dense core and lucent rim; the core enlarges and rim diminishes with maturation.
379
What are the recommended indications for elective neck dissection by the National Cancer Comprehensive Network
When expected incidence of microscopic or subclinical disease surpass 20% (though many use 25% or 30% as the criteria).
380
What is the primary mode of treatment
Wide surgical excision and postoperative radiation therapy.
381
What significance do these features have on treatment
Wide surgical margins (4-6 em inferior to gross, 2-3 em superior to gross) and wide radiation therapy ports are necessary.
382
What are the disadvantages of planned preoperative RT
Wound healing is more difficult, and the dose that can be safely delivered preoperatively is less than that which can be given postoperatively.
383
What are some other genetic disorders that are associated with a high risk of cutaneous malignancies
Xeroderma pigmentosum, albinism, epidermodysplastic verruciformis, epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica, and dyskeratosis congenital
384
Which cranial nerve is most commonly damaged by RT to the head and neck
XII.
385
\'our patient has a mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the parotid gland. Histologic evaluation of the biopsy specimen reveals a scant amount of mucin. There is no clinical evidence of regional metastasis. Do you treat the neck
Yes.
386
Should the NO neck be treated in patients with Merkel cell carcinoma
Yes.
