Hazmat and CBR Flashcards
(95 cards)
1
Q
What five properties could warrant classification as a hazardous material?
A
Any substance or mixture of substances because of its
- Chemical properties
- Microbiological properties
- Radiological properties
- Temperature
- State of compression
In sufficient quantity/concentration could cause harm to people/property/environment is classified as a hazardous material.
2
Q
What are the three classifications of hazardous materials?
A
- Non-dangerous goods
- Dangerous goods
- Goods too dangerous to be transported
3
Q
What are dangerous goods?
A
Hazardous materials that exhibit physical/chemical properties that meet certain criteria.
4
Q
How many hazard classes of dangerous goods exist?
A
Nine
5
Q
Can a hazardous material meet the criteria for more than one class of dangerous goods?
A
6
Q
Dangerous goods are classified by the most significant ____ presented.
A
Hazard
7
Q
What is the term for materials with significant hazardous properties in more than one classification?
A
Subsidary risk
8
Q
What are the characteristics of materials classified as non-dangerous goods?
A
- Do not meet the dangerous goods criteria
- Includes scheduled poisons
- Physical/chemical properties may cause harm to people/property/environment
9
Q
What are the characteristics of goods classified as too dangerous to be transported?
A
- Under normal transport conditions
- Liable to explode
- Dangerously react
- Produce flame
- Evolution of heat, toxic, corrosive, or flammable emmisions
- May be transported if stabilised through mixing/diluting
- May be found at manufacturing site
10
Q
OA to a hazmat scene you will be confronted with multiple operations - name six.
A
- Containment/zones of operation
- Identification of agent/control release
- Rescue - triage/rx/tx
- Prevention of secondary contamination
- Mx of systemic effects
- Stabilisation of incident (rendering it safe)
11
Q
List five elements of hazmat site isolation.
A
- Limit number of public/responders exposed to prevent spread
- Establish perimeter
- Establish control zones - hot/warm/cold
- Determine entry and exit points
- Locate emergency entrance and exit
12
Q
What makes up the inner cordon?
A
The hot and warm operational zones.
13
Q
What makes up the outer cordon?
A
The cold zone.
14
Q
Which agencies work within the hot zone?
A
QFRS (combat control)
15
Q
Which agencies work within the warm zone?
A
QFRS (combat control)
16
Q
Which agencies work within the cold zone?
A
- QPS
- QFRS
- QAS
- Others
17
Q
Describe three elements of hot zone establishment.
A
- Establish perimeter based on hazards
- Risk to life/critical systems/property
- Size of incident/status
- Weather and topography
- Establish control entry/exit/emergency exit
- Refuge
- PPE necessary
18
Q
What needs to be established in the warm zone?
A
Decontamination corridors for incident personnel and the public.
19
Q
What needs to be established in the cold zone?
A
- Location of operational areas
- Ambulance triage/rx/tx
- Police
- Fire service
- Command post/staging/medical/operational support
20
Q
What needs to be considered for hazmat rescue?
A
- Probability of casualty survival
- Type of injury/exposure
- How many
- Where should triage occur
- Is it body retrieval?
21
Q
What are the three types of rescue?
A
- Mobile but requires assistance
- Not mobile - unconscious/trapped
- Emergency service personnel
22
Q
What is decontamination and what is its purpose?
A
A physical/chemical process designed to prevent/reduce/control contamination.
TL;DR: purpose is to prevent contamination of others and those who are off-site.
23
Q
Contamination may include…
A
- Person
- Objects/property/environment
- Direct or indirect
24
Q
What are some functions of decontamination?
A
- Protect emergency service personnel/uncontaminated persons
- Remove contamination from casualities
- Reduce agent exposure and health effects
- Prevent contamination from spreading
- Provide psychological comfort
25
What is the difference between exposure and contamination?
Exposure is proximity to the hazardous substance without contact with it; contamination is having contact with the substance and carrying some of the substance on the person.
26
What groups of casualties exist in a hazmat situation?
* Emergency services
* Protected responders
* Unprotected responders
* Civilians
27
List the six priorities of decontamination.
* Closest to release
* Evidence of agents/symptoms
* Furthest away from release
* No evidence of agents/symptoms
* Civilians who believe they were exposed
* Objects and surfaces
28
Civilians removed by rescuers may have what mobile capabilities?
* May be trapped/non-ambulatory
* Non-ambulatory
* Ambulatory but require assistance
29
List four common features of civilians who believe they were exposed to a dangerous substance.
* Usually not near the source
* Were in the general area or observed the incident
* Not contaminated
* No symptoms will develop
30
List the possible statuses of civilians who removed themselves from the scene (self-rescued).
* Exhibit symptoms
* Increasing severity
* Alleviating
* Generally close to the source
* Not exhibiting symptoms
* Not contaminated
* Contaminated - symptoms delayed
31
# Note: understand concept, don't memorise
List some issues with decontamination.
* Agent
* Communication
* Clear concise instructions
* Number and type of casualties
* Environmental conditions
* Slope/geography
* Weather
* Available resources
* Decontamination method
* Deceased
* Decontaminate before post-mortem exam
* Casualty safety/privacy
* Consider separate decontamination corridors
* Men
* Women and children
* Clothing - strip to underwear only
* Dignitaries
* Management impacts
* Family separation
* Ethnic groups
* Religious groups
* Other languages
* Be alert for:
* Shock/psychological issues
* Those who refuse
* Terrorists
32
Name the two decontamination processes of the QFRS.
Technical decontamination and emergency decontamination.
33
True or false: separate corridors need to be established for the QFRS technical and emergency decontamination processes.
34
Which decontamination process is the normal QFRS decontamination procedure?
Technical decontamination
35
Describe emergency decontamination
* Responders and community (mass decontamination)
* Decontamination = water-water-water
* Time constrained
* Save lives by removing agent
* Strip-flush-cover
* Flush-strip-flush-cover if biological or radiological to stop re-aerosolisation of the agent
36
List four features of technical decontamination.
* Usually only applied to emergency responders
* Not time constrained
* Methodical/deliberate
* Resource intensive
37
List the five types of chemical agents and an example of each.
* Vesicants (blister agents) - mustard gas
* Blood agents - HCN (hydrogen cyanide)
* Lung agents - Cl2 (chlorine)
* Nerve agents - organophosphates; sarin
* Incapacitating agents (vomiting, tear agents) - tear gas
38
What are the two common types of vesicants?
Mustard gas and arsenicals (arsenic and chlorine)
39
List five properties of vesicant chemicals.
* Colourless to dark brown
* Odour varies (garlic to geranium)
* Corrosive liquids at room temperature
* Very low vapour pressure/high vapour density
* Not very soluble in water
40
What is the attack mechanism of vesicants?
They attack via severe chemical burns to the skin/eyes/mucous membranes and respiratory system, with delayed action up to 12 hours.
41
What are the symptoms of vesicant agents?
* Eye inflammation
* Redness of skin (erythema)
* Fever
* Blisters
* Ulceration
* Inflammation of the respiratory system
* Vomiting
* Cell damage - cancer
42
What is the rx for vesicant agents?
* Remove from environment
* Decontamination with soap and water
* Dimercaprol
43
True or false: many blood and lung agents are common industrial chemicals.
44
True or false: blood and lung agents tend to dissipate slowly.
45
The primary route of blood agent effects is the ____ system, followed by the \_\_\_\_.
Respiratory; skin.
46
What is the attack mechanism of blood agents?
Attacks circulatory and respiratory systems, preventing cells using oxygen.
47
What are the symptoms caused by blood agents?
* Hyperventilation (AC)
* Decreased breathing (CK)
* Blueness of skin (CK)
* Redness of skin (AC)
* Increased pulse rate
* Unconsciousness
* Suffocation
* Death
48
What is the rx for blood agent effects?
* Remove from environment
* Decontamination with soap and water
* Maintain airway and give high flow O2
* Hydroxocoblamin A.K.A. Cyanokit (for cyanide)
49
What are the dangers of lung agents?
* Respiratory system is the primary route/skin irritant
* Attacks lung tissue, causing pulmonary oedema
* Delayed action up to 4 hours
* Death up to 48 hours
50
List the symptoms caused by lung agents.
* Eye irritation
* Coughing
* Choking
* N+V
* Delayed - rapid shallow breathing (cyanosis)
* Painful cough
* Frothy sputum
* Death
51
Describe the rx for lung agent effects.
* Basic cares
* High flow O2
* Salbutamol
* IPPB
* PEEP
* CPAP
52
What are the dangers of nerve agents, specifically VX (an organophosphate)?
Most toxic of all chemical warfare agents; physical properties can be modified to suit dispersal method and intended targets.
53
List the properties of nerve agents.
* Colourless to dark brown
* Odour varies with purity
* Corrosive liquids at room temperature
* Vapour pressure very low
* Vapour density greater than air
* Not thermally stable
54
What are the symptoms caused by nerve agents?
* SLUDGE
* Salivation
* Lacrimation (tearing)
* Urination
* Defecation
* Gastrointestinal
* Emesis (vomiting)
* Severe bronchorrea
* Can be caused by section production - mimics APO (different aetiology and rx)
* Twitching
* Staggering
* Convulsions
* Death
55
Describe the rx for nerve agent effects.
* Basic cares
* High flow O2
* Suction secretions
* IPPB
* PEEP
CPAP
* Midazolam
* Atropine (until atropinisation occurs)
* Oxime's
56
What are the symptoms of lacrimating agents, and how long to they last?
* Burning eyes
* Skin irritation
* Tearing
* Mucous production
* Lasts approximately 10 to 30 minutes
57
What is the rx for OC (Oleoresin capsicum) spray?
Flush with copious water or baby shampoo and water. Monitor for signs of bronchospasm and rx with salbutamol if required.
58
What is the rx for CS (tear) and CN (mace) gas?
Recommended to face into wind or a fan as the minute crystals off-gas then water. Monitor for signs of bronchospasm and rx with salbutamol if required.
59
What three impacts must be considered in the event of a radiological incident?
* Blast wave, thermal pulse, electromagnetic pulse, fires
* Damage, injury, deaths
* Radiation sickness
* Vomiting
* CNS injury
* Long term
* Cancer
* Mutations
60
What are the three elements of radiological protection?
* Time
* Shielding
* Distance
61
What are the four major routes through which toxins can gain access to the body?
* Inhalation
* Absorption
* Ingestion
* Direct contact/injection
62
What are the most common two routes of toxin entry in hazmat situations?
Inhalation (breathing contaminated air) and direct/prolonged contact on skin.
63
List the four types and examples of biological agents.
* **Bacteria** (single celled organisms)
* Anthrax
* **Virus** (simplest organism, lives inside host)
* Ebola
* **Toxins** (natural origin produced by plant/animal/microbe)
* Ricin
* **Rickettsia** (smaller than bacteria, lives inside host cell)
* Q fever
64
List five properties of biological agent chemicals.
* Delayed imapct (2-3 days)
* Not volatile (no odour/colour)
* More toxic than chemicals by weight
* Difficult to disperse (aerosols)
* Range of effects
65
# Note: recognition
List some potential biological agents.
* Anthrax
* Plague
* Q fever
* Smallpox
* Ebola
* Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE)
* Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B
* Botulinum
* Ricin
66
Name the three types of anthrax.
Inhalation, intestinal, and cutaneous.
67
What is the incubation period for anthrax infection?
1 - 7 days
68
Is anthrax contagious?
69
What is the mortality rate for respiratory anthrax?
80 - 90%
70
Name four symptoms of anthrax infection.
* Nausea
* Fever/chills
* Swelling of lymph nodes
* Death
71
What is the definition of terrorism?
An action or threat of action where the action causes certain defined forms of harm or interference and the action is done or the threat is made with the intention of advancing a political, religious, or ideological cause.
72
What was the quote taken from the Counter-Terrorism White Paper 2010?
The threat of terrorism to Australia is real and enduring. It has become a persistent and permanent feature of Australia's security environment.
73
What is the meaning of 'probable' in Australia's National Terrorism Public Alert system?
Enough intent among people in Australia that a terrorist event will probably happen.
74
What are the 123's of safety in the terrorist event safe approach?
* Self
* Scene
* Survivor
75
What is a BLEVE (blevy)?
Boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion.
76
What is the most common fatal injury among blast initial survivors?
Blast lung.
77
The predominant post explosion injuries among survivors involve which two subtypes of physical trauma?
Penetrating and blunt trauma.
78
Explosions in what two environments are associated with greater morbidity and mortality?
Confined spaces and/or structural collapse.
79
What is an upside-down triage?
A situation common in blast events where the most severely injured arrive after the less injured, who bypass EMS and go directly to the closest hospitals.
80
The injury patterns following explosion events are product of what five factors?
* The composition and amount of the materials involved
* The surrounding environment
* Delivery method (if a bomb)
* The distance between the victim and the blast
* Intervening protective barriers or environmental hazards
81
What kind of shock wave is produced by high order explosives?
Supersonic overpressurization shock wave
82
Low-order explosives create what kind of explosion?
Subsonic explosion
83
True or false: low order explosives lack HE's overpressurisation wave.
True.
84
What is the implication of "manufactured" classification weapons?
Standard military issue, mass produced, and quality tested
85
What are "improvised" weapons?
Weapons produced in small quantities, or use of a device outside its intended purpose such as converting a commercial aircraft into a guided missile.
86
What are the four basic mechanisms of blast injury?
Primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.
87
Blast injuries are characterised by...
Anatomical and physiological changes from the direct or reflective overpressurization force impacting the body's surface.
88
What is the "blast wind"?
Forced superheated air flow.
89
Blast lung is a direct consequence of what?
The high order explosive overpressurization wave.
90
What is the characteristic clinical triad of blast lung?
Apnoea, bradycardia, and hypotension.
91
Blast lung should be suspected for anyone following blast exposure with any of what four symptoms?
* Dyspnoea
* Cough
* Haemoptysis
* Chest pain
92
Blast ear injuries are dependent on...
The orientation of the ear to the blast.
93
What sections of the GI tract are the most vulnerable to primary blast effect?
Gas-containing sections.
94
True or false: primary blast waves can cause concussion or mild traumatic brain injury without a direct blow to the head.
True.
95
Air embolism in blast injuries is common and can present as:
* Stroke
* MI
* Acute abdomen
* Blindness
* Deafness
* SCI
