Haz Mat/ERP Flashcards

0
Q

Perform Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) on decontaminated patients

A

Black tag Deceased
Red tag Immediate
Yellow tag Delayed
Green tag Minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Chemical Attack in Subway

Provides estimate of number of victims to Incident Commander.

A

First Arriving Engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Provides the IC with an estimate of the number of removals necessary and their location.

A

Rescue Company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nerve Agents - FRUITY ODOR

“FRUIT hits a NERVE for SARA and TABATHA preventing SOMANY VICTORIES”

A

Sarin
Tabun
Soman
VX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chemical Agents

Blister Agents - Garlic Odor

“Jerry Lewis got Blisters from Eating too much Garlic Mustard”

A

Mustard

Lewisite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chemical Agents

Blood Agents - Burnt Almond Odor

A

Hydrogen Cyanide

Cyanogen Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chemical Agents

Choking Agents - Chlorine or Grass Odor

“Mr. Green GENES CHOKED as he cleaned his POOL with AMMONIA”

A

Phosgene

Chlorine

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FDNY’s Protective Action Guidelines (PAG’s)

50 Rem.

25 Rem

10 Rem

5 Rem

A

50 Rem. Lifesaving for Catastrophic Event

25 Rem. Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations

10 Rem. Protection of Major Property

5 Rem. General Operations at a Radiological Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Radiation

Label Max Reading on Max Reading One
Surface of Package. Meter from Package

White I .5mR/hr. N/A

Yellow II 50mR/hr. 1mR/hr.

Yellow III 200mR/hr. 10mR/hr.

A

The Transport Index (TI) of a package should not exceed 10mR/hr.

The Total TI of a Vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50mR/hr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Haz-Mat Technician Units (HMTU)

A

Assist in air monitoring to identify safe zones including adjusting the perimeter of the Exclusion Zone and the location of the SRA based on meter readings.

Assist in rescue of ambulatory and non-ambulatory victims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Noxious Stimulus Triage (NST)*.

A

A. If the victim responds to voice or touch, the victim is likely to survive and should be removed from the area immediately.

B. If the victim only responds to painful stimulus, survival may be possible, but requires immediate advanced medical treatment. The availability of such advanced treatment will influence victim survival. In a mass casualty setting, the large number of victims may require that rescue efforts focus on saving those victims with a better chance of survival.

C. If the victim does not respond to painful stimulus, the CPC equipped members should leave the victim in place and proceed to the next victim. This victim will most likely not survive even if he/she receives the most advanced treatment available.

D. Deceased victims should be left in place until the criminal investigation is completed, unless movement of such victims is necessary to rescue additional victims or to mitigate further hazards.

*Note: Any CPC Level trained member or above may perform Noxious Stimulus Triage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Low Explosives -

A

Controlled release of gas that creates a propellant, causing a pushing effect, designed to burn, easier to ignite; initiated by flame or impact, detonate at speeds less than 3000 ft/sec. (e.g., black powder, smokeless powder, rocket fuel).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

High Explosives -

A

Initiated by shock from a detonator or blasting cap (not spark or flame), creates shattering effect in an instantaneous release of energy for maximum dispersion and damage, detonates at speeds greater than 3000 ft/sec (average bullet from a rifle travels at approximately 2700 ft/sec), the weapon of choice for suicide terrorists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chemical Reaction Bombs

A

A chemical reaction bomb is a mixture of at least two chemicals that naturally react with each other. The chemicals are mixed in some type of container, usually a plastic soda bottle.

Chemical reaction bombs become more dangerous when hardware is added or when mixed in a glass container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Improvised Explosive Devices (IED) - Improvised Explosive Devices consist of components that include

“PIES”

A

a power supply

an initiator

explosives

and a switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IEDs may be delivered and detonated using any of the following methods:

A

Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device (VBIED)

Letter. may be explosive or incendiary.

Satchel or Backpack

Suicide Bombers The profile of the contemporary suicide bomber is that there is no profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LETTER IED

Some suspicious characteristics of a letter/package are:

A
Oversized, padded packages. 
Stained. 
No return address. 
Marked “Personal/Confidential”.
Excessive postage. 
Unusual odor. 
Oddly shaped or lopsided. 
Mailed from foreign country.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Illegal/Clandestine Labs

When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area.

Upon the discovery of any type of lab the following notifications shall be made:

A

Battalion and Deputy Chief

Request Haz Mat to respond

NYPD

BFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DISCOVERY OF FIREARMS, AMMUNITION AND/OR INCENDIARY DEVICES

Notifications shall be made to

A

NYPD

BFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

OPERATIONS AT INCIDENTS INVOLVING A SUSPECTED/CONFIRMED EXPLOSIVE DEVICE

Fire Department personnel are to be under the complete control and jurisdiction of the FDNY IC at all times.

Cooperation with police personnel shall be considered as, but not necessarily limited, to the following:

A

x Evacuation of persons from danger areas.

x Stretching of necessary precautionary lines, and assuming standby positions.

x Use of ladders and forcible entry to non-involved occupancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Suspected Explosive Device: PD not on scene

Apparatus should be located to avoid heavy window glass fallout.

HT and cell phones shall not be used within _________ of a suspected device, and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within ___________ of a suspected device.

These distances are only guidelines and should not normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding a device would generally exceed 300 feet.

A

150 feet

300 feet

Members shall refrain from entering a structure or building to search for explosive devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Active Shooting/Snipers

FDNY members shall not operate at an active shooter incident unless an extreme threat to life safety exists and our assistance is specifically requested by law enforcement.

Prior to operating, the following conditions must be addressed:

A

Staff Chief approval must be given prior to commencing such an operation.

The location and number of shooters is known.

The path to and from and the area where the FDNY members will operate has been secured and is protected by law enforcement personnel.

Personnel and duration of operation shall be kept to a minimum.

Operating personnel shall participate in a briefing where the plan will be vetted and expected actions specifically stated.

FDNY and NYPD operating personnel shall all be on the same designated HT frequency (ex. TAC “U”).

The FDNY Operations Section Chief shall remain within arms distance of the NYPD Operations Section Chief for the duration of the incident while maintaining radio contact with operating FDNY members.

The IC shall request and ensure law enforcement provide armed force protection for FDNY personnel operating at, or assigned to such an incident. This request shall include the Incident Command Post, and if established, the Operations Post and Staging Area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Unit must carry the Rad50 when:

A

Out of quarters
Performing AFID
Responding to Complaints
During the assessment of emergencies and fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A Radiological Incident encompasses a situation where radiological meter readings are above background from a legitimate source and the source has NOT been released from its container.

A

Radiological Incidents may involve above-background readings from:

x Occupancies and locations such as

o Medical facilities – radiation therapy (cancer treatment),
radiopharmaceuticals, medical waste, blood irradiators
o Research facilities
o Industry/Construction sites – radiography, oil well logging, food
irradiators, moisture density gauges, smoke detectors

x Containers/packages

o Containers used to ship or store radioactive materials may emit anallowable amount of radiation referred to as a Transport Index
(See Appendix 2)

x People who received medical radiological treatment

o The Rad50 may alarm if the metering device is near someone who has undergone a medical treatment involving radiation, such as a thallium stress test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Managing a Radiological Incident

A

A. Confirm initial readings with a second meter
B. Determine the location of the radioactive source
C. Verify that the situation involves a legitimate source, which has not been released from its container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Radiological Emergency

A Radiological Emergency involves a source that is out of its container, either accidentally or intentionally.

A

Accidental Radiological Emergency
Intentional Radiological Emergency
RID – Radiological Incendiary Device
IND – Improvised Nuclear Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Because radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately ____________ after the detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least _________ post-detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored.

A

15 minutes

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if:

The projected dose inside the buildings will reach __ Rem for the general population or __ Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, nursing home residents

A

The projected dose inside the buildings will reach 5 Rem for the general population or 10 Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, nursing home residents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If manpower and equipment are sufficient, members receiving absorbed doses should be rotated at dose levels of 5 Rem or when 1 SCBA tank is expended.

A

In the event this is not possible, the Operations Chief should use the protective action guidelines (10 Rem for Protection of Major Property; 25/50 Rem for Lifesaving).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Operations for Radiological Incident

A

Confirm initial readings with a second meter
Determine the location of the radioactive source
Verify that the situation involves a legitimate source, which has not been released from its container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Operations for Radiological Emergency

A

Bring APR with adapter
Zero out and Don Dosimeter
Monitor the incident with radiological metering equipment such as RadAlert50, Canberra mini radiac, or Ludlum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

RAD 50

Note: The Rad50 takes a full minute for a change to be indicated on the LCD display/readout. As a safety factor in the meter, if the rate at any time exceeds 1mR/hr, the Rad50 will immediately sound the alert tone.

A

A circular pattern should then be used around the object or area to determine the size of the Hot Zone. A circular pattern is used in case the radiological source is partially shielded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decontamination

Acceptable external decontamination of a person would include levels less than or equal to ________________________________

A

Acceptable external decontamination of a person would include levels less than or equal to 0.10 mR/hr (50 – 200 cpm).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Radioactive warning placards are also required on rail freight cars, motor vehicles or trailers containing:

A

One or more Yellow III packages

More than 1000 pounds of radioactive material

Full load shipments of Low Specific Activity (LSA) containers that are marked”radioactive LSA” (LSA materials include the physical and chemical concentrates of uranium and thorium, various types of liquid and solid waste and heavy water solutions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

LABELS

Radioactive White - I

A

Maximum level of radiation on the surface of the package: 0.5 mR/hr.

Examples include low-level radiological calibration instruments, radio pharmaceutical material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LABELS

Radioactive Yellow - II

Radioactive Yellow – II label indicates the package contains low levels of radiation.

A

Maximum level of radiation on the surface of the package: 50 mR/hr.

Maximum level of radiation one meter from the package: 1 mR/hr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LABELS

Radioactive Yellow - III

Radioactive Yellow – III label indicates higher levels of radiation.

A

Maximum level of radiation on the surface of the package: 200 mR/hr.

Maximum level of radiation one meter from the package: 10 mR/hr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Radioactive Yellow – III labels are required for the following packages

A

A. Package containing a large quantity of radioactive materials.

B. Package authorized by special permit issued by the Department of Transportation.

C. Package of radioactive materials having hazardous characteristics in addition to those associated with radioactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where fire or accident has destroyed identifying labeling or packaging, or in the absence of proper labeling, the following conditions might be indicative of the presence of radioactive materials:

A

Unusual type containers, cage like, etc. (See Figure 4)
Large quantities of molten lead
Very heavy objects in small packages
Concrete lined metal drums
Absorbent materials in drums or containers
Melted paraffin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RAD-3 Report

To establish background radiation levels, all units will monitor the area in front of quarters for ____________ each day at the designated times.

x The background rate readings shall also be recorded in the office record journal. A separate page shall be selected for this purpose and indexed in the front of the journal. A background rate reading shall be recorded annually at the same time as the hydrant readings during the first full week of May using the Rad – 3 report.

x A copy of the Rad – 3 report shall be posted at the housewatch, adjacent to the water pressure chart for the information of covering officers, relocators, etc.

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Rad – 4 Radiation Plume Detection and Tracking

Readings shall be taken every ___ minutes from the designated start time unless unit is instructed differently. Units shall forward this report via fax to their administrative Battalion every ___ minutes. In addition, units shall forward this report to Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) if any recorded reading(s) exceed normal background levels.

A

5 minutes

30 minutes

41
Q

Radiologic Instrumentation

Inspected weekly, on Wednesdays, at 2030 hours.

Report defects to Radiological Unit at the Bureau of Training.

A

Shall not be immersed in water

42
Q

ULTRARADIAC

Worn by officer at all times, FF’s are kept in Yellow Pelican Box

Low Rate Alarm 2 mR/hr

Visual RATE / ALARM indicators will flash slowly.
Audio alarm will beep slowly.
Green light on left side flashes slowly.
The UltraRadiac will vibrate slowly.

Press CLR/TEST key to acknowledge the alarm and turn off vibrator and audioalarm.

A

High Rate Alarm 50 R/hr

x The entire display will flash quickly.
x Audio alarm will beep quickly.
x Red light on left side flashes quickly.
x The UltraRadiac will vibrate quickly.

43
Q

ULTRARADIAC

Dose Alarm

Low Dose Alarm 5 R

x Visual ALARM indicator will flash slowly.
x Audio alarm will beep slowly.
x Green light on right side flashes slowly.
x The UltraRadiac will vibrate slowly.

A

High Dose Alarm 12 R

x Visual DOSE / ALARM indicators will flash quickly.
x Audio alarm will beep quickly.
x RED light on right side flashes quickly.
x The UltraRadiac will vibrate quickly.

Note: The red light and the DOSE / ALARM indicators can be turned off by clearing the accumulated dose. This will NOT be done at a radiological incident or emergency until the accumulated dose is recorded or when ordered by the Incident Commander.

44
Q

Classes of Hazardous Materials

Every
Good
Lieutenants
Standard
Operating
Procedure
Requires
Coordination 
Mostly
A
Explosives
Compressed Gases
Flammable Liquids
Flammable Solids
Oxidizers
Poisons
Radiation
Corrosives
Misc Dangerous Goods
45
Q

Shipping Papers kept in following locations:

  1. Truck -
  2. Railroad -
  3. Aircraft -
  4. Ships -
A
  1. Truck - Bill of lading kept in cab in reach of driver.
  2. Railroad - The Waybill is carried by the Conductor in the caboose or engine.
  3. Aircraft - The Air Bill is kept by the Pilot
  4. Ships - The Cargo Manifest is kept by the Master or the First Mate
46
Q

When relaying info to Haz Mat - include “FRACTION”

A

Four Digit Number
Reacting - how is it reacting with surrounding material
Amount - quantity
Color - of vapor or material
Type of Release (explosion, leaking valve, broken bag, etc.)
If fuming - whether fuming or not
Other information - any other info that may be pertinent
Name of Material involved

47
Q

NFPA Diamond

        Top-Red

Left-Blue. Right-Yellow

        Bottom-White
      Special Hazards
A

Health Hazard (Blue Section) (DEHSN)

  1. Deadly
  2. Extreme Danger
  3. Hazardous
  4. Slightly Hazardous
  5. Normal Material
48
Q

NFPA Diamond

Flammability Hazard (Red)

  1. Flashpoint below 73°F
  2. Flashpoint below 100°F
  3. Flashpoint above 100°F, not exceeding 200°F
  4. Above 200°F
  5. Will not burn
A

Reactivity Hazard (Yellow) (MSVUS)

“May Shock Violently Until Stable”

  1. May Detonate
  2. Shocks and heat may Detonate
  3. Violent chemical change
  4. Unstable if heated
  5. Stable
Special Info (White)
OX- Oxidizer
w with slash thru = use no water
ACID- Acid
ALK- Alkali
COR- Corrosive
49
Q

LP gases are ___________ then air

A

heavier (1.5 to 2 times heavier).

50
Q

FIRE TACTICS AND PROCEDURES HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1 ALTERNATE FUELS

Keep everyone, not actually engaged in operations, at least _____ feet from the front and rear of the tank and _____ feet from the sides.

Do not extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped, _____________?

A

1000 feet from the front and rear of the tank

500 feet from the sides.

except under extremely unusual conditions.

51
Q

FIRE TACTICS AND PROCEDURES HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1 ALTERNATE FUELS

Portable dry chemical extinguishers are effective on small LP gas fires.

Carbon Dioxide extinguishers can also be used.

They should be applied at the base of the fire.

A

Before tank failure occurs, the rise in pressure within the tank will cause an increase in the volume of fire, or a rise in the noise level or both.

If water spray is not effective in dispersing the LP gas vapor, then heavy streams of water should be used from a safe distance.

52
Q

FIRE TACTICS AND PROCEDURES HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1 ALTERNATE FUELS

One cubic foot of liquid will expand 270 times as a gas.

A BLEVE can occur in a matter of minutes. A satisfactory performance of a relief valve can not prevent a BLEVE.

A

Operational Guidelines

Leaks/Spills

A BASIC PRINCIPLE IS THAT A PROPANE FIRE SHOULD NOT BE EXTINGUISHED EXCEPT BY SHUTTING OFF THE FLOW OF ESCAPING PROPANE.

It is important that we extinguish the gasoline fire by using foam, dry chemical or water spray and at the same time cooling the propane cylinder with hose streams to prevent a BLEVE.

If the tank area is involved in a fire, immediately locate where the tank relief valve discharges and keep clear of this area.

53
Q

COMPRESSED NATURAL GAS (CNG) FUELED VEHICLES

Command Bus Company of Brooklyn
Each Bus= 9900 cu. ft.
Each cylinder contains 1100 cubic feet of gas and each bus carries nine (9) aluminum cylinders.

A

All vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which require a Fire Department permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard on their front and rear bumper.

Identification number 1971 in the diamond indicates that compressed natural gas is being used for propulsion.

All other CNG powered vehicles registered in the state of New York are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper.

Vehicles originating outside of New York State are likely to be placarded in accordance with their applicable state regulations.

Note: There may be some states that do not require CNG powered vehicles to have any warning placard.

54
Q

FIRE TACTICS AND PROCEDURES HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 1 ALTERNATE FUELS

NATURAL GAS PROPERTIES

Natural gas is flammable.
Natural gas is non-toxic. Asphyxiation can occur due to oxygen displacement in an enclosed area.
Natural gas is lighter than air.
Natural gas is composed of 95% Methane and 5% other gases.
The two terms Natural Gas and Methane are used interchangeably.

A

Inherent Hazards

CNG - is pressurized in cylinders up to a pressure 3,000 PSI.

CNG cylinders are protected with a fusible plug pressure relief device which will open when a cylinder is exposed to heat or fire.

CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but not to BLEVE’s (Boiling Liquid
Expanding Vapor Explosion) because they do not contain liquid.

Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy) it will dissipate quickly.
1. A fog line can be used to direct the flow and protect exposures.

55
Q

Compressed Natural Gas Filling Stations

Refueling systems are available in two types:

A. Fast Fill - In the fast fill system natural gas is stored in storage tanks under high pressure (3600 PSI) by the use of a compressor. The vehicle is refueled directly from these storage tanks in approximately 2 to 5 minutes.

A

B. Time Fill Method - Under this system a vehicle is refueled directly off a gas compressor which is hooked up to a gas main. This method takes several hours to refuel a vehicle.

56
Q

METHANOL FUELED VEHICLES

Properties

Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid.

It has a flash point of 54 F.

It is soluble in water.

Methanol vapors are slightly heavier then air and will flow along the ground collecting in low areas.

Methanol burns cleanly (little smoke) and its pale blue flame may be difficult to see in bright sunlight.

A

Health Hazard

Methanol is both an eye and skin irritant.

Inhalation of vapor at high concentration can produce drunkenness, drowsiness,blurred vision and unconsciousness or death.

The effects of methanol exposure may be delayed 24 hours or longer.

57
Q

Methanol is destructive to ordinary foam. Alcohol type foam must be used. For small fires Type B dry chemical extinguishers are adequate.

Purple K is the most effective of the dry chemical extinguishing agents.

A

Application of large amounts of water will dilute the Methanol rendering it non-flammable. The concentration of methanol must be reduced below 20% to be effective.

58
Q

In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting OVER 1000 pounds of the particular material.

A

It is possible to have vehicles transporting up to 1000 pounds of a hazardous substance without placards visible on the outside of the vehicle.

59
Q

CARBON MONOXIDE (CO)

It is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 Degrees F.
Lower Explosive Level (LEL) of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of 74%.

CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly lighter than air (.968).

Since warm air rises, CO rises with it. E.g. air from a furnace, hot water heater, or a fire. Once this emitted air cools to room temperature, CO will disperse evenly through the room.

A

Health Hazards
CO can kill before its presence is known.
Provides no early warning signs.
Displaces O2 in bloodstream and asphyxiates victim.
Highly toxic.
CO is absorbed into the body through the lungs where it is transferred to your blood.
Once in the body it combines with hemoglobin and becomes a deadly compound called carboxy hemoglobin (COHb). Poisoning is measured by percentage of COHb in the blood.
COHb reduces blood’s ability to transport O2 to the body.
Reduced O2 harms life support functions ( brain, cardiac and respiratory activity).
CO has a greater affinity for hemoglobin than O2 . CO is about 210 more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.

60
Q

The Incident Commander (IC) shall request the utility company to respond if:

A

A CO level over 9 PPM is recorded by a meter.
Units on the scene shut off a gas appliance.
An individual(s) is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning.
The IC feels a response by the utility company is required.

61
Q

CO Incidents:

A

No occupants are symptomatic and meter readings of 9PPM or less.

Meter readings of 9 PPM or less:

Inform occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level.

Attempt to reset detector, if detector does not reset or it does not have a reset ,recommend that the occupant refer to the manufacturer’s instructions.

SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations, and used at all CO Emergencies.

62
Q

CO Emergencies:

A

Occupants are symptomatic or meter readings greater than 9PPM

SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations, and used at all CO Emergencies.

63
Q

CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM:

Readings of greater than 9 PPM shall not be considered normal.

Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO.
Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.

If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO,it should be shut down.

Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to 9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied.

A

Attempt to reset the detector as in section 4.3.2

Inform the occupant of all actions taken and that the utility company has been requested to respond.

Inform the occupant that if the detector activates again they should again notify the Fire Department by calling 911.

64
Q

CO Emergency: Meter Readings of 100 PPM and Greater:

Inform occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO.

Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.

If a malfunction appliance is found producing CO it should be shut down.

Once the source of CO has been mitigated and the level of CO reduced to 9 PPM or less the area may be reoccupied.

Attempt to reset the detector as in section 4.3.2.

A

Inform occupants of the actions taken, and that the utility company has been requested to respond.

Inform occupants that if the detector activates again they should again notify the Fire Department by calling 911.

65
Q

GAS ALERT EXTREME CARBON MONOXIDE (CO) MONITOR

A visual and low audible warning with a slow vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM.

A visual and high audible warning with a fast vibration is given if the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM.

To turn off the monitor, press and hold same circular button on the left for 5 seconds. The left button is the only button to be used by field units.

Having CO monitor near handie-talkie antenna will cause false activation.

A

If the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM, the monitor will signal the following alarm:

ƒ> a slow modulating tone (every 1 second)
> with slow flashing red lights (every 1 second)
> and a slow vibration (every 1 second)

If the concentration of CO in the atmosphere exceeds 100 PPM the monitor will signal the following alarm:
ƒ
> a fast modulating tone (every ½ second)
> with fast flashing red lights (every ½ second)
> a fast vibration (every ½ second)

66
Q

GAS ALERT EXTREME CO MONITOR

The low battery alarm consists of: 
ƒ 
> 1 beep (every 5 seconds) 
> 1 flash (every 5 seconds) 
> 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute) 
> a low battery icon will appear on the display
A

SERIAL NUMBER OF THE CO MONITOR IS LOCATED ON THE BACK OF THE UNIT TO THE LEFT OF THE CLIP.

67
Q

CHEMICAL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING (CPC) UNITS

They are trained and certified to operate in Level “A” and Level”B” CPC and can perform required decontamination.

A

However, they are neither trained nor equipped to perform mitigation.

68
Q

The CPC Unit Officer shall not don a chemical protective suit unless the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation. Examples of this would be where the Entry team

A

> would not be in line of sight
a complex Entry team operation
or where the operation requires a number of Entry teams.

69
Q

CPC Standby position – Both legs in suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on SCBA donned, cylinder opened, facepiece on, but regulator disengaged from facepiece, right arm in suit and identity tag in place.

A

Note: The Incident Commander shall special call a CPC Unit or Haz-Mat Technician Unit as a FAST unit to the scene if more than two entry teams are expected to be put to work.

70
Q

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 7 DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES

The purpose of the corridor is to remove the contamination from the victim. This process is accomplished in two steps:

Removing Clothes removes up to ___% of contamination

A
  1. Have the victims remove their outer clothing
  2. Wash the victims down with water – soap can be added to the process if available.

90%. (For a firefighter wearing bunker gear, SCBA, gloves, and a hood, the percentage of contamination eliminated by removing outer clothing is even higher than ninety percent.

71
Q

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 7 DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES

Emergency Mass Decon Using Water Spray

Several factors that will affect the choice of decontamination procedures include:

A

> number of victims involved
type of material that has been released
impact of weather conditions on the use of water sprays for decontamination
personal protective equipment (PPE) available to members performing the decontamination process.

72
Q

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS 7 DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES

Emergency Mass Decon Using Water Spray

One option for setting up a mass Decon is to stretch a 2½” handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle.

The recommended operating pressure range is between 50 to 80 psi.

Additional handlines can be deployed as necessary.

Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25’ – 30’ apart, to form a large shower area that multiple victims can move through at the same time.

A

A second option involves the use of two pumpers and greatly increases our decontamination capabilities:

a. Position two pumpers parallel to each other approximately 25 feet apart with the control panels facing the outside.
b. Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate. Additional discharges and nozzles can be used if available.
c. Operate the nozzles in the fog position.
d. Monitor the operating pressure to ensure the stream is not too forceful. The recommended operating pressure is 50 to 80 psi.

73
Q

Haz Mat Tech Units

The officer and a minimum of four firefighters must be trained to the technician level.

Level “A” Suits Carried on 1st Piece

If the HMTU is out of quarters without the tender and is assigned a haz-mat response, they are to notify the dispatcher, who will special call the nearest available unit to transport the tender to the scene.

A

At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents, the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.

Incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on decontamination. They will operate according to Fire Tactics and Procedures, Hazardous Materials 7, Decontamination Procedures.

Incidents where HMTUs are assigned the task of victim removal, they will operate according to Fire Tactics and Procedures, Hazardous Materials 5, Chemical ProtectiveClothing (CPC) Units.

A HMTU is capable, within the limitation of their training and equipment, to operate as an independent Haz-Mat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident. With the availability of HMTUs, Incident Commanders have an invaluable resource at their disposal.

74
Q

SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND (SOC) SUPPORT LADDER COMPANIES

The SOC Support Ladder Companies purpose is to assist in detecting the presence of hazardous materials, including chemical warfare agents and radioactive materials.

They can assist in determining the perimeter of a contaminated area as well as establishing decontamination of civilians and emergency responders.

They assist in performing search, rescue and removal of victims from hazardous material areas, collapsed structures, confined spaces, and entrapments either above or belowground.

A

SOC Support Ladder Company Support Vehicles can be activated for dealing with multiple limited scope incidents (e.g., stuck elevators, investigation of large numbers of Class 3 alarms, minor auto accidents, water leaks and other non life threatening water leaks
emergencies) during large-scale disasters (e.g., citywide blackout, hurricanes or storms that cause widespread damage).

During responses of this type, the Support Vehicle will be designated as a Rapid Response Unit (See Section 8.).

75
Q

SOC SUPPORT LADDER COMPANY TRAINING AND DESIGNATION

SOC Support Ladder Companies are trained and certified to operate in Level “A” and Level”B” Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) and can perform required decontamination of members or civilians.

A

These members are not trained or equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product unless requested to assist an HMTU or HMC1, or as part of a “Hammer Team”.

76
Q

SOC SUPPORT LADDER COMPANY

STAFFING

To operate as a SOC Support Ladder Company, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or acting trained officer and at least three trained firefighters. If possible, four trained firefighters will be provided.

To perform a hazardous materials entry, the Incident Commander will ensure two entry members, two backup members and sufficient decontamination personnel are assembled prior to entry.

A

Confined Space Rescues

The limitations are:

SSL shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the entrance to the space.

SOC Support Ladders shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer are taken

SOC Support Ladders shall not attempt any entry where the hazards are other than atmospheric and controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.

77
Q

STAFFING OF DECON ENGINE COMPANIES:

one trained officer or trained acting officer

at least three trained firefighters

A

Decon Engine Personnel are not Haz-Mat Technicians and will not perform mitigation.

Decon Engine Personnel are not intended to be used for rescue purposes.

78
Q

ANTIDOTE ADMINISTRATION BY CPC PERSONNEL

Class Order -

A

A general order given by an OMA Response Physician to perform a specific intervention or interventions at a specific location during a specified time period.This order is generally reserved for disaster situations. Class Orders are interventions specific; nerve agent, blood agent or benzodiazepines.

79
Q

ANTIDOTE ADMINISTRATION BY CPC PERSONNEL

Mark-1 Kit -

A

a pre-packaged set of one 2 mg auto-injector of atropine, and one 600 mg auto-injector of Pralidoxime Chloride (2-Pam).

80
Q

The low battery alarm of the Gasalert Extreme CO Monitor will display and/or sound all of the following except?

A: 1 beep (every 5 seconds)

B: 1 flash (every 5 seconds)

C: 1 quick vibration (every 5 seconds)

D: A low battery icon will appear on the display

A

C: 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)

Explanation:

C) 1 quick vibration (every 1 minute)

HM 4 Add 1 3.5

81
Q

Which chemical agent below may have an odor of camphor?

A: Tabun

B: Sarin

C: Soman

D: VX

A

C: Soman

Explanation:

Tabun (GA) fruity

Sarin (GB) none

Soman (GD) camphor/fruit

VX none

ERP Add 2 pg18

82
Q

Members discussed CNG Filling Stations at a recent drill. All of the members made correct statements except one. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: CNG filling stations consist of a compressor, storage tanks and fueling components

B: A filling station can only service 1 vehicle at a time

C: In the fast fill system natural gas is stored in storage tanks under high pressure (3600 PSI) by the use of a compressor

D: In the fast fill system a vehicle is refueled directly from storage tanks in approximately 2 to 5 minutes

A

B: A filling station can only service 1 vehicle at a time

Explanation:
B) Depending on its design, a filling station can service anywhere from 1 to 28 vehicles at a time
*There is also a Time Fill Method. Under this system a vehicle is refueled directly off a gas compressor which is hooked up to a gas main. This method takes several hours to refuel a vehicle.
HM 1 3.7.1-3.7.2

83
Q

Active Shooter

The Incident Objective is civilian and first responder life safety. Other considerations include:

A

x Threat suppression.
x Hemorrhage/airway control of victims.
x Rapid Extrication of critical victims.
x Assessment and triage by medical providers.
x Transport of victims to designated hospitals.
x Site management/investigation.

84
Q

Each designated riding position on the fire apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC. This can only be done after all of the following conditions are met except in which choice? ƒ ƒ ƒ ƒ

A: The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant

B: The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%

C: The concentration of the material has been measured

D: Air monitoring has been completed before use

A

D: Air monitoring has been completed before use

Explanation:
D) Air monitoring is on-going
Also, the air contaminant has been identified

Acronym: 
"SOC AI"
Specific for contaminant
O2 19.5-23.5%
Concentration measured

Air-monitoring is ongoing
Identified contaminant

ERP 7.3

85
Q

A knowledgeable officer knows that the chemical Sarin is also known as?

A: GA

B: GB

C: GD

D: VX

A

B: GB

Explanation:
Sarin has no odor
ERP Add 2 last page

86
Q

Chemical suicide techniques involve various chemicals to create a toxic or oxygen-deprived atmosphere in a confined area, usually a vehicle or a small room. Which of the following actions would be incorrect?

A: Transmit Signal 10-80 Code 1 and ensure the response of NYPD.

B: Ventilate vehicle or occupancy PRIOR to entering.

C: When available, use meters to monitor oxygen levels, flammable vapor concentrations, and presence of hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen cyanide or other chemicals.

D: Stretch a charged hoseline with attached fog nozzle which will primarily be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.

A

D. Stretch a charged hoseline with attached fog nozzle, primarily for decontamination; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.

Explanation:
Haz Mat 11 Sect 4
A. Incident Specific: Transmit Signal 10-80 Code 1. Ensure response of NYPD.
B. Ventilate vehicle or occupancy prior to entering.
C. When available, use meters to monitor oxygen levels, flammable vapor concentrations, and presence of hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen cyanide or other chemicals.

87
Q

If a biological agent release is indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the site for a minimum of?

A: At least 5 minutes

B: At least15 minutes

C: 30 minutes to 1 hour

D: 1 to 2 hours

A

C: 30 minutes to 1 hour

Explanation:
Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 30 minutes to 1 hour to allow the biological to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard.
ERP Add 1 ch 1 5.2.3

88
Q

Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), with the exception of ______ and ______, which will have delayed effects (hours).

A: Chlorine; Ammonia

B: Tabun; Hydrogen Cyanide

C: Mustards; Phosgene

D: Sarin; Lewisite

A

C: Mustards; Phosgene

Explanation:
***Test-writers LOVE odor questions. They are important for first arriving officers to recognize and are easy questions to write.
ERP Add 2 last page caption beneath chart

89
Q

Which of the following agents is a “vesicant?”
A: Soman

B: Lewisite

C: Cyanogen chloride

D: Chlorine

A

B) Blister Agents (Vesicants): Examples: Mustard, Lewisite

Explanation:
A) Nerve Agents (Organophosphates): Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), Soman (GD), VX
B) Blister Agents (Vesicants): Examples: Mustard, Lewisite
C) Blood (Pulmonary) Agents: Examples: hydrogen cyanide, cyanogen chloride
D) Choking Agents: Examples: chlorine, ammonia, phosgene
ERP Add 2 2

90
Q

What is the High Rate Alarm level of the Ultraradiac?
A: 50 R

B: 50 R/hr

C: 12 R

D: 12 R/hr

A

B: 50 R/hr

Explanation:
Low Rate: 2 mR/hr
Low Dose: 5 R
High Rate: 50 R/hr
High Dose: 12 R
Don't confuse R (Rems) which is associated with Dose with R/hr (Rems per hour) which is associated with Rate.
ERP Add 4D 7
91
Q

The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that incorporates the use of four diamonds combined in one central diamond. If the blue section has a ‘2’ this indicates?
A: Hazardous

B: Slightly Hazardous

C: Violent Chemical Change

D: Extreme Danger

A

A: Hazardous

Explanation:
Health Hazard or Blue Section
4 Deadly
3 Extreme Danger
2 Hazardous
1 Slightly Hazardous
0 Normal Material
ERP pg 42
92
Q

Maintenance of the Radalert 50 requires that the 9-volt alkaline battery be changed how often?
A: Monthly

B: Every 3 months

C: Every 6 months

D: Annually

A

B: Every 3 months

Explanation:
Maintenance of the Radalert 50 requires that the 9-volt alkaline battery be changed every 3 months. The 9-volt alkaline battery shall be changed on Jan. 1, April 1, July 1, and Oct. 1 of each year.
An entry shall be made in the Office Record Journal to include:
The date of maintenance.
Serial number of Radalert 50.
Name of firefighter making the change.
Name of Company Officer supervising the change.
ERP Add 4A 4.1-4.2

93
Q

Decon Shower Apparatus are equipped with enough towels and disposable garments to provide for the decontamination of how many patients?
A: 20

B: 500

C: 50

D: 100

A

D: 100

Explanation:
HM 15 1.7

94
Q

CFRD Engines should know how EMS will track victims at an Underground Chemical Attack in the NYC Subway. According to ERP Addendum 2, Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) on a decontaminated patient would result in what color tag on a patient considered “Delayed?”

A: Black

B: Red

C: Yellow

D: Green

A

C: Yellow

Explanation:

Black tag Deceased
Red tag Immediate
Yellow tag Delayed
Green tag Minor

ERP Add 2 8.1.6

95
Q

A unit was reviewing 4 recent haz-mat incidents. Evacuation was considered in 3 of these incidents. In which choice below should shelter-in-place have been considered?

A: There was immediate danger of fire or explosion

B: The potential for discharge was great but had not taken place and people would have been sufficiently protected if they evacuated

C: Discharge had not taken place and the material displayed moderate toxicity

D: People not yet in the path of release were threatened by changing conditions

A

C) Sheltering-in-place is the PREFERRED alternative when the hazardous material displays low to moderate activity

Explanation:

Acronym for Evacuation: “TECS”

> Time to relocate (if potential for discharge is great and had not taken place)
Explosion/fire immediate danger
Changing conditions will threaten people not yet in the path of a release
Sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation, even if discharge has taken place
ERP 10.5.2, 10.5.5

96
Q

Your unit responds to an alarm at a large postal facility and you confirm a Bio-Detection System (BDS) activation. You would be most correct to transmit a?

A: 10-80 code 3

B: 10-80 code 1

C: 10-80 code 2

D: 10-80

A

D: 10-80

Explanation:
***UPDATE***
Sept 2014
No longer a 10-80 code 3. This code no longer existsts. 
HM 14 6.2
97
Q

At a chemical attack in an underground transit facility, who is responsible for “Evacuation to Gross Decon?”

A: First Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1

B: First Arriving Ladder Company—Team 2

C: Second Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1

D: Second Arriving Ladder Company—Team 2

A

C: Second Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1

Explanation:

First Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1: Evacuation and Hazard Assessment
First Arriving Ladder Company—Team 2: Back-Up

Second Arriving Ladder Company—Team 1: Evacuation to Gross Decon
Second Arriving Ladder Company – Team 2: Site Access Control

ERP Add 2 6.5

98
Q

At a Haz-Mat incident, sheltering-in-place is preferred in all of the following situations except?

A: The hazardous material displays low to moderate toxicity

B: The hazardous material is totally released and dissipating

C: The hazardous material is a small quantity solid or liquid leak

D: The hazardous material is a migrating vapor of medium toxicity and quantity

A

D: The hazardous material is a migrating vapor of medium toxicity and quantity

Explanation:

D) The hazardous material is a migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.

Also, the release can be rapidly controlled at the source
ERP 10.5.5

99
Q

Sheltering-in-place is the preferred alternative when:

A

A. Pre-planning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies
B. Evacuation cannot be properly managed with the manpower, resources and facilities presently available
C. The hazardous material displays the following characteristics:
1. Low to moderate toxicity
2. Totally released and dissipating
3. Small quantity solid or liquid leak
4. A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer
indoors than outside
5. Release can be rapidly controlled at the source