HAIR FINAL DISEASE, CHEM, ANAT SCIENCE Flashcards

SCIENCE ASPECT OF FINAL

1
Q

Which of the following is a mechanical process?

A

Cleaning

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2
Q

In 2012, along with representatives from most nations who participate in the United Nations, OSHA
agreed to comply with which of the following?

A

The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals System

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3
Q

According to your text, the GHS gives workers the right to

A

understand safety concerns associated with chemicals

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4
Q

As of June 2015, both federal and state laws require that manufacturers supply a(n) _____ for all
chemical products manufactured and sold.

A

SDS

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5
Q

Which item is included in the “Identification” section of the MSDS?

A

Restrictions on product use

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6
Q

OSHA and state regulatory agencies require that SDSs be

A

kept available in the salon for all products used in the salon

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7
Q

Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known

A

AS disinfectants

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8
Q

Which agency is responsible for designating disinfecting agents as being effective enough to be used
in a hospital setting and effective for cleaning blood and body fluids?

A

EPA

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9
Q

What is safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats?

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

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10
Q

State regulatory agencies _____.

A

create the rules that determine how laws are applied

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11
Q

Laws are also called

A

statutes

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12
Q

Invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n) _____.

A

infection

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13
Q

Which action is best defined as removing all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and
equipment by washing with soap and water?

A

Cleaning

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14
Q

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are known as _____.

A

bacteria

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15
Q

Nonpathogenic bacteria are _____.

A

harmless

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16
Q

Round-shaped bacteria are called _____.

A

cocci

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17
Q

Which organisms are pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like bunches of grapes?

A

Staphylococci

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18
Q

Short, rod-shaped bacteria are called

A

bacilli

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19
Q

Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria are called _____.

A

spirilla

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20
Q

The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is known as _____.

A

cocci

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21
Q

Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called _____.

A

protoplasm

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22
Q

Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the _____.

A

life cycle of bacteria

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23
Q

Inflammation is characterized by which of the following?

A

Swelling

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24
Q

A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of _____.

A

pus

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25
Q

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a _____.

A

local infection

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26
Q

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) initially appears as a _____.

A

skin infection

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27
Q

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called _____.

A

communicable

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28
Q

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a

A

virus

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29
Q

Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called _____.

A

bloodborne pathogens

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30
Q

Which disease is bloodborne and can cause liver damage?

A

Hepatitis

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31
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes

A

AIDS

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32
Q

Single-cell organisms such as molds, mildews, and yeasts are _____.

A

fungi

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33
Q

Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the
salon?

A

Tinea Pedis

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34
Q

Poisonous substances produced by some microorganisms are called _____.

A

toxins

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35
Q

The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is _____.

A

tinea pedis

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36
Q

The body’s first line of defense against infection is _____.

A

healthy, uncompromised skin

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37
Q

Organisms that grow, feed, and find shelter on or in a host organism are called _____.

A

parasites

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38
Q

What is a contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite?

A

scabies

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39
Q

What type of immunity does the body develop after overcoming a disease or through inoculations?

A

Acquired immunity

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40
Q

What is the process that completely destroys all microbial life, including spores?

A

Sterilization

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41
Q

Which action is an acceptable way to clean tools or instruments?

A

Using a cleaning solvent

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42
Q

A reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain foods, chemicals, or other normally harmless
substances is a(n) _____.

A

a. allergy

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43
Q

The term describing the effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs when used
according to the label instructions is

A

efficacy

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44
Q

Phenolic disinfectants are _____.

A

known carcinogens

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45
Q

Sodium hypochlorite is the chemical name for _____.

A

bleach

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46
Q

Which item would be described as multi-use?

A

Nippers

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47
Q

Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be _____.

A

discarded

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48
Q

Which statement best describes UV sanitizers?

A

They do not disinfect nor do they sterilize.

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49
Q

Which foot spa has come under scrutiny because disease-causing microorganisms tend to grow inside

A

Whirlpool foot spa

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50
Q

Chemical germicides formulated for use on skin, and registered and regulated by the FDA are called

A

antiseptics

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51
Q

Which statement describes the proper use of waterless hand sanitizers in the salon?

A

They can be used AFTER soap and water, but cannot be substituted for soap and water.

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52
Q

Standard Precautions that require the employer and employee to assume that all human blood and body
fluids are potentially infectious are published by the _____.

A

CDC

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53
Q

_____ gloves are considered the best choice for use in nail services because they are made of more
durable material and help eliminate the possibility of latex allergy.

A

Nitrile

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54
Q

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called

A

personal protective equipment

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55
Q

When hand washing, it is important to rub hands together for a minimum of how long?

A

20 seconds

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56
Q

Which scenario is an example of an exposure incident?

A

A cosmetologist cuts herself while providing a service to a client.

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57
Q

If an exposure incident should occur, all disposable contaminated objects should be _____.

A

placed in a plastic bag which is then placed in a closed trash container with a liner bag

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58
Q

The study of body structures that can be seen with the eye is called

A

anatomy

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59
Q

The scientific study of the functions and activities performed by the body’s structures is called _____.

A

physiology

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60
Q

The basic units of all living things are

A

cells

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61
Q

The cells of all living organisms are made of a substance called _____.

A

a. protoplasm

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62
Q

The dense, active structure at the center of the cell is the _____.

A

nucleus

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63
Q

What is the fluid of a cell that surrounds the nucleus and is necessary for growth and reproduction?

A

Cytoplasm

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64
Q

In living organisms, cell reproduction is called _____.

A

mitosis

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65
Q

Most cells reproduce by dividing into two cells called _____ cells.

A

daughter

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66
Q

A collection of similar cells that perform a function is called a(n) _____.

A

tissue

67
Q

What is the tissue that binds together, protects, and supports various parts of the body?

A

Connective tissue

68
Q

Another term for fat is _____ tissue.

A

adipose

69
Q

You hungrily take a bite of steaming hot pizza and the bubbling cheese burns the inside of your mouth.
What type of tissue have you damaged?

A

Epithelial

70
Q

The type of tissue that controls and coordinates body functions is _____ tissue.

A

nerve

71
Q

Structures composed of specialized tissues that perform specific functions in plants and animals are
called _____.

A

organs

72
Q

The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the _____.

A

skeletal system

73
Q

How many bones are in the adult human body?

A

206

74
Q

The joint pain people complain about is often caused by _____.

A

inflammation of tissue surrounding the joint

75
Q

The skull consists of the _____.

A

cranium and facial bones

76
Q

The facial skeleton has how many bones?

A

Fourteen

77
Q

The bone that forms the back of the skull above the nape is the _____.

A

occipital

78
Q

The bone that joins all of the bones of the cranium together is the _____.

A

d. sphenoid bone

79
Q

The cheekbones are also called the _____.

A

zygomatic bones

80
Q

The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the _____.

A

thorax

81
Q

The inner and larger bone of the forearm, attached at the wrist and located on the side of the little
finger, is the _____.

A

radius

82
Q

The bones in the fingers or digits are called _____.

A

a. phalanges

83
Q

The heavy, long bone that forms the leg above the knee is called the _____.

A

femur

84
Q

The ankle joint is composed of how many bones?

A

Three

85
Q

The part of the muscle that does not move is the _____.

A

origin

86
Q

The middle part of the muscle is called the _____.

A

belly

87
Q

The part of the muscle that moves and is farthest from the skeleton is the _____.

A

insertion

88
Q

Pressure in massage is usually directed from the _____.

A

insertion to the origin

89
Q

To find the comb she dropped on the floor while working on her client Tyna lowered her head and
turned her head away. What muscle was Tyna most likely using?

A

Sternocleidomastoideus

90
Q

Suppose you instruct a client to close his or her eyes before you apply makeup. Which muscle are you
instructing the client to use?

A

Orbicularis oculi

91
Q

You notice your instructor watching you perform a service. Your instructor’s eyebrows are down and
her forehead has vertical wrinkles in it. What muscle is she most likely using?

A

Corrugator muscle

92
Q

Which muscle can easily be damaged during makeup application?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris

93
Q

The muscle that covers the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back is the _____.

A

trapezius

94
Q

The muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are the _____.

A

pronators

95
Q

Muscles that draw the fingers together the fingers are called _____.

A

adductors

96
Q

The scientific study of the structure, function, and pathology of the nervous system is called

A

neurology

97
Q

The nervous system as a whole is divided into how many main subdivisions?

A

Three

98
Q

What nervous system controls the voluntary functions of the five senses?

A

Central

99
Q

The largest and most complex organization of nerve tissue in the body is the

A

brain

100
Q

The simplest form of nervous activity that includes a sensory and motor nerve is called a(n) _____.

A

reflex

101
Q

The whitish cords made up of bundles of nerve fibers, held together by connective tissue that make up
the nervous system are called _____.

A

nerves

102
Q

The largest of the cranial nerves also called the fifth cranial nerve, is the _____.

A

trigeminal nerve

103
Q

Which nerve supplies impulses to the skin on the outer side and back of the foot and leg?

A

Sural nerve

104
Q

To what part of the heart is oxygenated blood returned?

A

left atrium

105
Q

Thin-walled blood vessels that are less elastic than arteries and located closer to the skin surface are

A

veins

106
Q

How much blood is in the adult human body?

A

8 to 10 pints

107
Q

Blood is generally bright red in the arteries and dark red in the veins. What accounts for the difference
in color?

A

The exchange of carbon dioxide for oxygen

108
Q

The main arteries that supply blood to the head, neck, and face are the _____.

A

common carotid arteries

109
Q

Which of the following is part of the lymphatic system?

A

Thymus gland

110
Q

The word integument means _____.

A

natural covering

111
Q

One square centimeter of skin contains_____ yards of nerves.

A

4

112
Q

Ductless glands that release secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream are _____.

A

endocrine glands

113
Q

Insulin, adrenaline, and estrogen are examples of _____.

A

hormones

114
Q

Which gland plays a major role in sexual development, sleep, and metabolism?

A

Pineal

115
Q

How might a cosmetologist notice changes in a client’s thyroid function?

A

Changes in the growth rate, quality, or texture of hair or nails

116
Q

Which organ is part of the female reproductive system?

A

Ovaries

117
Q

The primary male reproductive hormone is _____.

A

Progestin

118
Q

Acne, loss of scalp hair, facial hair growth and color, and darker skin pigmentations are some of the
results of changing or fluctuating

A

hormones

119
Q

A freckle is an example of a mark on the skin known as a _____.

A

lesion

120
Q

A large blister containing a watery fluid is a _____.

A

bulla

121
Q

For which of the following skin lesions should the cosmetologist refer the client to his or her
physician?

A

Bulla

122
Q

A flat spot or discoloration on the skin is a _____.

A

macule

123
Q

A small elevation on the skin that contains no fluid, but may develop pus is a _____.

A

papule

124
Q

A _____ forms from a papule when dead white blood cells accumulate in it.

A

pustule

125
Q

An abnormal cell mass that varies in size, color, and shape is a _____.

A

tumor

126
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a primary skin lesion?

A

Wheal

127
Q

A(n) _____ is an itchy, swollen lesion that can be caused by a number of factors and usually resolves
by itself.

A

wheal

128
Q

Lesions of the skin characterized by piles of material or a depression on the skin surface are _____.

A

secondary skin lesions

129
Q

Dead cells that form over a wound or blemish while it is healing comprise a _____.

A

Excorciation

130
Q

Cracks in the skin that penetrate the dermis layer, such as chapped hands or lips, are _____.

A

fissures

131
Q

Which of the following is a secondary lesion?

A

Keloid

132
Q

An excessively thick scar resulting from overgrowth of fibrous tissue is known as a _____.

A

keloid

133
Q

Any thin dry or oily plate of epidermal flakes is known as a _____.

A

scale

134
Q

An open lesion of the skin or mucous membrane, accompanied by pus and characterized by loss of
skin depth, is a(n) _____.

A

ulcer

135
Q

A hair follicle filled with keratin and sebum forms a _____.

A

comedo

136
Q

A whitehead is also called a _____.

A

closed comedo

137
Q

Benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible opening are
_____.

A

milia

138
Q

_____ are keratin-filled cysts that are usually associated with newborns and are commonly found
around the eyes, cheeks, and forehead.

A

Milia

139
Q

What is a skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands caused from
retained secretions?

A

Acne

140
Q

A _____ is a large protruding pocket-like lesion filled with sebum.

A

sebaceous cyst

141
Q

Inflammation of the sebaceous glands characterized by redness, dry or oily scaling, crusting, and/or
itchiness is called _____.

A

seborrheic dermatitis

142
Q

Distended or dilated surface blood vessels are called _____.

A

telangiectasias

143
Q

Ingestion of _____ foods can aggravate rosacea.

A

spicy

144
Q

Excessive sweating, caused by heat or general body weakness is _____.

A

hyperhidrosis

145
Q

_____ is a common bacterial infection of the eye.

A

Conjunctivitis

146
Q

What is a contagious, recurring viral infection characterized by fever blisters or cold sores?

A

Herpes simplex I

147
Q

A noncontagious skin disease characterized by red patches covered with silver-white scales found on
the scalp elbows, knees, chest and lower back is _____.

A

psoriasis

148
Q

Congenital hypopigmentation, or absence of melanin pigment of the body, including the skin, hair, and
eyes is called _____.

A

albinism

149
Q

_____ is a skin disorder characterized by abnormal light patches.

A

Leukoderma

150
Q

_____ refers to an abnormal brown or wine-colored skin discoloration with a circular or irregular
shape.

A

Stain

151
Q

A _____ is a small brown or flesh-colored outgrowth of the skin.

A

skin tag

152
Q

Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is a _____.

A

verruca

153
Q

The most common and least severe type of skin cancer is _____.

A

basal cell carcinoma

154
Q

What type of skin cancer is often characterized by scaly red papules or nodules?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

155
Q

Dark, brown patches on the skin that may appear uneven in texture, jagged, or raised may be a warning
sign of _____.

A

malignant melanoma

156
Q

The American Cancer Society recommends using a checklist to recognize potential skin cancer or
changes in moles, using the letter B to check mole _____.

A

borders

157
Q

The main food source for acne bacteria is _____.

A

fatty acids

158
Q

Which of the following is an extrinsic skin-aging factor?

A

Sun exposure

159
Q

Between 80 percent and 85 percent of skin aging is caused by _____.

A

sun exposure

160
Q

The UV rays of the sun reach the skin in two different forms. What are these?

A

UVA and UVB rays

161
Q

What rays of the sun cause sunburns and tanning and are also known as burning rays?

A

UVB rays

162
Q

The two types of contact dermatitis are _____.

A

allergic and irritant

163
Q

_____ is an allergic reaction created by repeated exposure to a chemical or a substance.

A

Sensitization