Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > Haematopoiesis, haematology, haemostasis (year 2) > Flashcards

Haematopoiesis, haematology, haemostasis (year 2) Flashcards

1
Q

define haematopoiesis

A

production of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what tissue type are leucocytes, erythrocytes and platelets produced in?

A

haemopoietic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where is the major site of haematopoiesis?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what blood cell has the longest lifespan?

A

erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the average lifespan of an RBC?

A

1-5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how long is platelets lifespan?

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how long do leucocytes live for?

A

hours to years depending on the type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what blood cells have the shortest lifespan?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the first thing that is noticed when there is a sudden arrest of haematopoiesis?

A

reduction in neutrophils (neutropenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is the best site to collect bone marrow in dogs?

A

head of femur and humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what cells do all blood elements arise from?

A

stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the types of stem cells?

A

totipotent
pluripotent
multipotent
unipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define totipotents

A

stem cells that are present in the embryo and can divide into any cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

define pluripotent

A

stem cells found in the blastocyst that can differentiate into almost all cells but not into an embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define multipotent

A

stem cell found in most tissues that can differentiate into a limited range of cells such as haematopoitic stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define unipotent

A

stem cells that can only generate one type of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can a multipoint haematopoietic stem cell differentiate into?

A

common myeloid progenerator

common lymphoid progenitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name some cells that the common myeloid progenerator may differentiate into

A

erythrocytes
mast cells
megakaryocytes
myeloblast - basophil, eosinophil, monocyte, neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what can common lymphoid progenitor cells differentiate into?

A

NK cells

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is lymphogenesis?

A

lymphocyte production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where does lymphogenesis being?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where do the later stages of lymphocyte maturation, proliferation and migration occur?

A

lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in a steady state in bone marrow which pool is expected to dominate?

A

maturation and storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

does granulopoiesis or monocytopoiesis occupy the majority of the haematopoetic tissue?

A

granulopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define granulopoiesis

A

production of granulocytes such as neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is granulopoiesis and monocytopoiesis controlled by?

A

cytokines - mainly IL3 and growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the three colony stimulating factors that control granulopoiesis and monocytopoiesis?

A

granulocyte-macrophage CSF
macrophage CSF
granulocyte CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what control growth factors and cytokines?

A

presence of inflammation/infection
activated T lymphocytes
neutrophils providing negative feedback on their production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the proliferative pool?

A

early mitotically active with a quarter of all granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the maturation pool in granulocytopoiesis?

A

later stages of granulopoiesis containing banded neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what cell dominated the storage pool of granulocytopoiesis?

A

segmented neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the only stage of neutrophils released from bone marrow?

A

segmented - presence of banded may be due to problems such as inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what might inflammation cause an increase in in the blood?

A

neutrophils (neutrophilia) because of increased release from storage pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what may very acute/severe inflammation cause to the happen to the neutrophils?

A

consumption of circulating and stored neutrophils causing neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what drives eosinopoiesis?

A

mainly IL5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what cell type is rare to see in circulation?

A

basophil and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where do basophils mature?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where do mast cells mature?

A

in the peripheral tissue but are derived from bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are aged/damaged RBCs removed by?

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is erythropoiesis mainly controlled by?

A

erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is require for erythropoiesis?

A

iron, copper, B2, B6, B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

do RBCs have the capability to repair themselves?

A

no they have no organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what stimulates erythropoietin?

A

hypoxia due to a decrease in RBCs or increased tissue demand or decreased oxygen availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what organ releases erythropoietin?

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how long does erythropoiesis take?

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe the process of erythropoiesis

A

large blasts divide to become smaller
haemoglobin concentration increases then cell division stops when optimal intracellular haemoglobin concentration is reached
nucleus is extruded
organelles and RNA is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how long does it take a juvenile erythrocyte to mature in blood?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

why are juvenile erythrocytes blue?

A

because they still have retained organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is thrombopoeisis?

A

formation of platelets from a progenitor that gives rise to a megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how are platelets formed from a megakaryocyte?

A

fragmentation of megakaryocyte cytoplasm and shedding into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what mediates thrombopoeisis?

A

thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what organ produces thrombopoietin?

A

liver - constantly produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what else other than thrombopoietin is able to stimulate thrombopoeisis?

A

IL6 during inflammation

iron deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how is thrombopoeisis self-regulated?

A

platelets lost/destroyed
more thrombopoetin available
increased thrombopoeisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

when might thrombocytosis be seen?

A

during inflammation or iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what should a full haemogram include?

A

PCV (microhaematocrit tube) and total protein
blood counts
blood smear evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what tube would you ideally collect a sample in for haematology?

A

EDTA tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what colour top do EDTA tubes have?

A

purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what must be avoided during sampling processing?

A 
inadequate mixing
haemolysed specimens
lipaemic specimens (take fasted)
clotted specimens
platelet clumps
diluted specimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what blood counts should a full haemogram include?

A 
total haemoglobin content
haematocrit - equivalent to PCV 
RBC count
RBC index
reticulocyte count
platelet coint
total leukocyte count
(differential leukocyte counts)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are the differential leukocyte counts?

A 
neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is it called in either haemoglobin, haematocrit of RBC count is below the reference intervals?

A

anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is it called in either haemoglobin, haematocrit of RBC count is above the reference intervals?

A

erythroctosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what should be taken into account when deciding if an animal is anaemic or has erythrocytosis?

A

age, hydration, species, , breed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the three main causes of anaemia?

A

inadequate production from bone marrow
increased destruction
increased loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the two types of blood loss anaemia?

A

acute or chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what could cause blood loss anaemia?

A

haemorrhage - trauma, clotting disorder, bleeding lesion

blood-sucking parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

blood loss anaemia is a proportional loss of all blood components, what are the two stages?

A

1 - initial decrease in blood volume

2 - activation of mechanism to maintain volaemia, influx of water so dilution of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what compensates during acute blood loss anaemia?

A

bone marrow is able to compensate loss by increasing erythropoiesis and red cell mass - normalises in 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is expected during acute blood loss?

A

decreased total protein

evidence of regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what may chronic blood loss lead to the depletion of?

A

iron stores leading to an iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how long does it take iron deficiency anaemia during chronic bleeding in adults?

A

at least 1 month of continuous bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

is chronic blood loss anaemia regenerative our non-regenerative?

A

either - non-regenerative after depletion of ion stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the two classes of haemolysis?

A

immune mediated

non immune mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what may cause non immune mediated haemolytic anaemia?

A

oxidative damage, intra-erythrocytic parasites, bacteria, viruses, mechanical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where can haemolysis occur?

A

extravascular or intravascular

77
Q

what mediates extravascular haemolysis?

A

macrophages on tissue

78
Q

what occurs if the liver capacity of bilirubin is overwhelmed?

A

hyperbilirubinaemia

jaundice

79
Q

what occurs if there is intravascular haemolysis?

A

haemoglobinuria

red urine

80
Q

how is anaemia classified based of the haemogram?

A

degree of severity
regenerative response
erythrocyte index

81
Q

what are the classes of the degree of severity of anaemia based on haemograms?

A

mild (30-36%)
moderate
severe (less than 18%)

82
Q

what its classified by the erythrocyte index of a haemogram?

A

microcytic, normocytic, macrocytic

hypochromic, normochromic

83
Q

what is described by microcytic, normocytic and macrocytic?

A

size of the RBC

84
Q

what is described by hypochromic and normochromic?

A

colour of RBC - whether it has the correct haemoglobin concentration

85
Q

why does anaemia need to be classified?

A

understand the underlying pathophysiological mechanisms

86
Q

if regenerative anaemia is present what is functioning normallY?

A

bone marrow

87
Q

define regenerative anaemia

A

decrease oxygen carrying capacity leads to erythropoiesis by bone marrow to release higher number of juvenile RBCs into circulation

88
Q

define non-regenerative anaemia

A

bone marrow fails to respond to decreased oxygen carrying capacity

89
Q

what types of anaemia is generally regenerative?

A

blood loss

haemolysis

90
Q

what types of anaemia is generally non-regenerative?

A 
iron deficiency
chronic disease/inflammation
drugs
bone marrow disease
endocrine disorders
pre-regenerative
91
Q

how is regeneration assessed?

A

quantification of young erythrocytes in circulation

bone marrow examination

92
Q

how do young erythrocytes compared to older ones?

A

darker as they have more organelles

93
Q

what is MCV in the erythrocyte index?

A

mean corpuscular volume

average RBC size

94
Q

what is MCHC in the erythrocyte index?

A

mean corpuscular Hb concentration

average haemoglobin concentration of RBCs

95
Q

what is MCH in the erythrocyte index?

A

mean corpuscular Hb

average amount if haemoglobin per cell

96
Q

if the MCV is raised what does this mean you have?

A

macrocytic anaemia

97
Q

what is macrocytic anaemia usually due to?

A

presence of larger cells which are usually juvenile erythrocytes

98
Q

if macrocytic anaemia usually regenerative or non-regenerative?

A

regenerative

99
Q

what is reduced MCV known as?

A

microcytic anaemia

100
Q

what is microcytic anaemia usually due to?

A

smaller cells due to less haemoglobin due to an iron deficiency

101
Q

is normocytic anaemia usually regenerative or non-regenerative?

A

usually non-regenerative but can be regenerative

102
Q

is normochromic anaemia usually regenerative or non-regenerative?

A

non-regenerative but may be regenerative

103
Q

is hypochromic anaemia usually regenerative or non-regenerative?

A

regenerative as juvenile RBCs have less haemoglobin but can be due to iron deficiency

104
Q

what is raised MCHC (hyperchromic) anaemia due to?

A

almost always artifactual

105
Q

what are the 5 major leucocytes in circulation?

A

neutrophil, monocyte, lymphocyte, eosinophil, basophil

106
Q

what leucocytes are involved in the innate immune system?

A

neutrophil, monocyte

107
Q

what leucocytes are involved in the adaptive immune system?

A

lymphocytes

108
Q

what leucocytes are involved in defence against parasites and allergy?

A

eosinophils, basophils

109
Q

what leucocytes are granulocytes?

A

neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil

110
Q

what is a low leucocyte count called?

A

leucopenia

111
Q

what is a high leucocyte count called?

A

leukocytosis

112
Q

what may make the WBC count by an automated machine less accurate?

A

if the WBCs are clumped in a blood clot

if there are lot of nucleated RBCs

113
Q

where is not a good area of a blood smear to do a leucocyte count and why?

A

feathered edge - most will be destroyed

114
Q

how is absolute number calculated from the differential leucocyte count?

A

% x WBC count

115
Q

what is the term given to a neutrophil count that is above the upper reference limit?

A

neutrophilia

116
Q

what are two common situations when neutrophilia is seen?

A 
inflammation
stress leucogram (stress or steroid administration)
117
Q

what is neutrophilia from a stress leucogram usually combined with?

A

lymphopenia, monocytosis, eosinopenia

118
Q

what is neutropenia?

A

neutrophil count below the lower reference limit

119
Q

what are two common causes of neutropenia?

A

severe overwhelming inflammation

bone marrow disease

120
Q

what may cause bone marrow disease?

A

toxic insult
neoplasia
parvo and other viruses
immune mediated destruction of precursors

121
Q

what is left shift when describing neutrophil numbers?

A

increase in the number of juvenile neutrophils

122
Q

what are common causes of left shift neutrophilia?

A

severe inflammation - bacterial infection, immune mediated disease

123
Q

what is monocytosis?

A

monocyte count about the upper reference limit

124
Q

what are the common causes of monocytosis?

A

acute/chronic inflammation, tissue damage, necrosis
stress leucogram
leukaemia (extreme)

125
Q

what is a lymphocyte count above the upper reference limit known as?

A

lymphocytosis

126
Q

what are the common causes of lymphocytosis?

A

chronic inflammtion
adrenalin release in cats
leukaemia

127
Q

what is a lymphopenia?

A

lymphocyte count below the lower reference limit

128
Q

when is a lymphopenia commonly seen?

A

chronic inflammation
stress leucogram
viral disease

129
Q

what is an eosinophil count above the upper reference limit called?

A

eosinophilia

130
Q

when may an eosinophilia be seen?

A

parasitic infection
allergy
hypersensitivity

131
Q

what are platelets?

A

cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes

132
Q

what are some common causes of thrombocytopenia?

A

increased destruction
increased consumption
decreased production
redistribution

133
Q

what are two main features haemostasis helps to maintain?

A

vascular integrity

blood fluidity

134
Q

define primary haemostasis

A

this is the formation of a primary platelet plug

135
Q

what is required for primary haemostasis to occur?

A

vascular endothelial damage

136
Q

what does damage to vascular endothelial lead to the exposure of?

A

subendothelial collagen

137
Q

what is released that inducing rolling in platelets and leucocytes?

A

P-selectin

138
Q

what does con Willebrand factor bind to?

A

collagen and platelets

139
Q

what are the functions of platelets?

A 
adhesion
aggregation
secretion
procoagulant surface
clot retraction
140
Q

what receptors allow platelets to adhere to endothelium?

A

GPI

141
Q

what do GPI receptors bind to?

A

collagen or von Willebrand factor

142
Q

what allows platelet to platelet aggregation?

A

fibrinogen or von Willebrand factor

143
Q

what substances can platelets release after activation?

A 
thromboxan
serotonin
factorV
ADP
ATP
plasminogen
144
Q

what produces von Willebrand factor?

A

endothelial cells

145
Q

what is von Willebrand factor?

A

large multimeric plasma protein

146
Q

what does von Willebrand factor serve as a carrier of?

A

factor VIII

147
Q

what needs to happen once the primary platelet plug has formed in small defects?

A

nothing only primary haemostasis is required

148
Q

what needs to happen to the primary platelet plug has formed in large defects?

A

the plug requires fibrin stabilisation - secondary haemostasis

149
Q

what is secondary haemostasis?

A

formation of a definitive clot - coagulation

150
Q

what is soluble fibrinogen converted to?

A

insoluble fibrin

151
Q

what is the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin mediated by?

A

thrombin

152
Q

what substances makes the platelet plug more stable?

A

fibrin crosslinkage

153
Q

what is thrombin generation initiated and sustained by?

A

initiated - exposure to subendothelium

sustained - coagulation cascade

154
Q

what is the coagulation cascade?

A

series of enzyme activating steps resulting in thrombin and insoluble fibrin formation

155
Q

what is the aim of the coagulation cascade?

A

form insoluble fibrin

156
Q

what is factor I in the coagulation cascade?

A

fibrinogen

157
Q

what is factor II in the coagulation cascade?

A

prothrombin

158
Q

what is factor III in the coagulation cascade?

A

tissue factor

159
Q

what is factor IV in the coagulation cascade?

A

free calcium

160
Q

what are the three things that most steps of the coagulation cascade involve?

A

enzyme
substrate
cofactor

161
Q

what letter can the coagulation cascade be simplified into?

A

Y

162
Q

what is the long arm of the Y in the coagulation cascade?

A

intrinsic pathway

163
Q

what is the short arm of the Y in the coagulation cascade?

A

extrinsic pathway

164
Q

what is the base of the Y in the coagulation cascade?

A

common pathway

165
Q

what is the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade activated by?

A

extravascular causes (tissue factor) - things that shouldn’t be in circulation but are due to damage of endothelium

166
Q

what factor does tissue factor stimulate?

A

factor VII

167
Q

what is the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade activated by?

A

intravascular causes - exposure of damaged endothelium

168
Q

what factor does the intrinsic pathway start with?

A

XII

169
Q

what are the factors in the intrinsic pathway? (in order of activation)

A

XII
XI
IX
VIII

170
Q

what is the most important pathway to start coagulation?

A

extrinsic

171
Q

what is the most important pathway to amplify coagulation?

A

intrinsic

172
Q

what factor does the common pathway begin with?

A

factor X

173
Q

what are the factors of the common pathway of the coagulation cascade? (in order)

A

X
V
II
I

174
Q

what laboratory tests are used to test the intrinsic and common pathway?

A

PTT

175
Q

what tests are used to test the extrinsic and common pathway?

A

PT (prothrombin time)

176
Q

what test tests the the fibronogen to fibrin step in the coagulation cascade is functional?

A

TT (thrombin time)

177
Q

where are most coagulation factors produced?

A

liver - not von Hillebrand factor

178
Q

what are the non-enzymatic coagulation factors?

A

III
I
V
VIII

179
Q

what are the vitamin K dependant coagulation factors?

A

II
VII
IX
X

180
Q

what do vitamin K dependent coagulation factors require for activity?

A

carboxylation - this enzyme if vitamin K dependent

181
Q

what are the two functions that stop indefinite clotting?

A

dissolution of clot (fibrinolysis)

natural anticoagulants

182
Q

what is tertiary haemostasis?

A

fibrinolysis

183
Q

when does the fibrinolytic pathway begin?

A

when coagulation starts

184
Q

what is the fibrinolytic pathway mediated by?

A

plasmin

185
Q

what is activated to form plasmin?

A

plasminogen

186
Q

what are some examples of natural anticoagulants?

A

intact enodthelium
antithrombin III
protein C
tissue factor pathway inhibitor

187
Q

what does antithrombin III bind to and inactivate?

A

thrombin (some other factors as well)

188
Q

where is antithrombin III produced?

A

liver

189
Q

what is the action of antithrombin III enhanced by?

A

heparin (from mast cells)

Pathology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions