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Phase 2a > Haematology COPY > Flashcards

Haematology COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is a myeloma?

A

A malignant proliferation of the Plasma cells (Type of B lymphocytes)

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2
Q

Define multiple myeloma (MM)?

A

Malignant proliferation of plasma cells (B lymphocytes) accumulating in the bone marrow that affects multiple areas of the body

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3
Q

What is the second most common haematological cancer?

A

Multiple Myeloma

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4
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Malignant proliferation of plasma cells (B lymphocytes) accumulating in the bone marrow

This leads to overproduction of IgG/IgA or Ig fragment (monoclonal paraprotein) and underproduction of others

Causes dysfunction of many organs (especially the kidney), bone marrow failure, destructive bone disease and hypercalcaemia

Characterised by excess secretion of a monoclonal antibody

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5
Q

What is a paraprotein?

A

Paraprotein → abnormal immunoglobulins produced by monoclonal plasma cells

They can be intact immunoglobulins (usually IgG, IgA or IgM) or parts of immunoglobulins (usually light chains, very rarely heavy chains)

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6
Q

What are the main paraproteins produced in multiple myeloma?

A

Typically excess production of 1 specific type of Ig.
55% are IgG
20% are IgA.

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7
Q

What are the preceding steps before established multiple myeloma?

A

Development of Mammyloid gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

Smouldering myeloma

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8
Q

What is Mammyloid Gammopathy of Undetermined significance (MGUS)?

A

where there is an excess of a single type of antibody or antibody components without other features of myeloma or cancer.

This is often an incidental finding in an otherwise healthy person and as the name suggests the significance is unclear.

May progress to MM and patients are often routinely monitored.

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9
Q

What is Smouldering Myeloma?

A

where there is progression of MGUS with higher levels of antibodies or antibody components. It is premalignant and more likely to progress to myeloma than MGUS

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10
Q

What is Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia is a type of smouldering myeloma where there is excessive IgM specifically.

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11
Q

What is the rate of progression of MGUS to MM?

A

1% per year

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12
Q

What is the clinical presentation of multiple myeloma related to?

A

Infiltration of plasma cells

Secretion of monoclonal antibodies

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13
Q

What are the Risk Factors of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Older age
Male
Black African ethnicity
Family history
Obesity

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14
Q

Give some symptoms of Myeloma?

A

Tiredness
Bone/back pain
Infections

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15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma?

A

OLD CRAB:
Old - 70+
C - Hypercalcaemia (& associated symptoms)

R - Renal Failure (hypercalcaemia causes calcium oxalate renal stones and immunoglobulin light chain kappa deposition is nephrotoxic)

A - Anaemia (Bone Marrow Infiltration causing; Neutropenia (infections), Thrombocytopenia (bleeding)

B - Bone Lesions - increased osteoclastic activity - Pepperpot Skull

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16
Q

How does bone disease arise in multiple myeloma?

A

Proliferation in bone marrow

Lytic lesions

Fractures

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17
Q

How does impaired renal function arise in multiple myeloma?

A

Kappa Immunoglobulin light chains (Bence Jones Protein) are nephrotoxic.

& Hypercalcaemia

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18
Q

Why may Renal disease worsen the effects of Anaemia in MM?

A

Renal disease can lead to EPO deficiency contributing to the anaemia

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19
Q

How does hypercalcaemia arise in multiple myeolma?

A

Multiple myeloma-induced bone demineralisation and bone resorption

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20
Q

How does recurrent/persistent bacterial infection arise in multiple myeloma?

A

Immune dysfunction and hypogammaglobulinemia

Suppression of normal plasma cell function

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21
Q

Why does anaemia occur in multiple myeloma?

A

The cancerous plasma cells invade the bone marrow.
This is described as bone marrow infiltration.
This causes suppression of the development of other blood cell lines leading to:

Anaemia (low red cells),
Neutropenia (low neutrophils)
Thrombocytopenia (low platelets).

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22
Q

What initial diagnostic investigations are ordered in someone with suspected multiple myeloma?

A

Serum and urine electrophoresis – B2 microglobulin
Blood film – Rouleaux formation (aggregations of RBCs)
Bence Jones protein in urine
BM aspiration shows excess plasma cells
X-ray – shows pepperpot skull and lyses in long bones, pelvis and spine

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23
Q

What Investigations are needed to confirm a diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bone marrow biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of myeloma and get more information on the disease.
>10% plasma cells

Imaging is required to assess for bone lesions.
X-ray – shows pepperpot skull and lyses in long bones, pelvis and spine

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24
Q

What is indicative of MM on bone marrow biopsy?

A

> 10% plasma cells

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25
Q

What bloods results would be indicative of multiple myeloma?

A

FBC - marrow failure

ESR - raise

Blood film - Rouleaux formation (RBC Aggregations)

U&Es - raised urea and creatinine

Hypercalcaemia

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26
Q

What are some important differential diagnoses of Multiple Myeloma?

A

MGUS

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27
Q

What is the treatment for MGUS and asymptomatic myeloma?

A

Watch and wait.

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28
Q

What is the principle behind treatment of MM?

A

Multiple myeloma is an incurable condition → treatment aims to increase periods of disease remission

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29
Q

What is the first line treatment for multiple myeloma?

A

A combination of chemotherapy with:

Bortezomid - proteasome inhibitor
Thalidomide
Dexamethasone - steroid

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30
Q

What else may you consider to treat multiple myeloma?

A

Stem cell transplant
Bisphosphonates - bone protection

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31
Q

Name the 3 broad categories of red cell disorders.

A
  1. Haemoglobinopathies.
  2. Membranopathies.
  3. Enzymopathies.
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32
Q

What is a haemoglobinopathy?

A

Deficiency related to quality or quantity of haemoglobin production

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33
Q

What is a membranopathy?

A

Deficiency related to red blood cell membrane protein

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34
Q

What is an enzymopathy?

A

Deficiency related to RBC enzyme synthesis, leads to shortened lifespan due to oxidative stress

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35
Q

What is the normal range for haemoglobin?

A

120-180g/L

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36
Q

What is normal adult haemoglobin made of?

A

HbA1:
2 alpha and 2 beta chains.

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37
Q

What is foetal haemoglobin made of?

A

HbF:
2 alpha and 2 gamma chains.

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38
Q

What are the common Symptoms of Anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Lethargy
Dyspnoea – difficulty or laboured breathing
Palpitations
Headache

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39
Q

What are the common signs of anaemia?

A

Pale skin
Pale mucous membranes – nose and eyelids
Systolic flow murmur
Tachycardia (compensatory to meet demand)

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40
Q

What are the common consequences of anaemia?

A

Reduced O2 transport
Tissue hypoxia

Compensatory changes:
Increased tissue perfusion
Increased O2 transfer to tissues
Increased RBC production

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41
Q

What is haemoglobin S?

A

Haemoglobin S is a variant of Hb arising from a point mutation in the beta globin gene.

The mutation leads to a single amino acid change, valine -> glutamine.

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42
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

Auto recessive disorder
A Hb disorder of quality; polymerisation of HbS results in characteristic sickle shaped RBCs

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43
Q

What is the genetics of Sickle Cell disease and what ethnicity is at increased risk?

A

Afro-Caribbean
1 in 4 chance of disease,
50% chance of being a carrier
1 in 4 chance of being disease free

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44
Q

What are the types of Sickle Cell disease based on Inheritance?

A
  • Sickle cell anaemia (HbSS) = inheritance of 2 abnormal sickle genes
  • Sickle cell disease (HbSC) = Inheritance of one abnormal sickle gene and second haemoglobin variant of the beta chain that causes sickling. E.g. haemoglobin C
  • Sickle cell trait (HbS) = Inheritance of one abnormal sickle gene. Sickle carrier.
  • Sickle-thalassaemia (H
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45
Q

What is the lifespan of a Sickle Cell?

A

5-10 days - described as haemolytic

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46
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of Sickle Cell Anaemia?

A
  • Point mutation of the B globin gene (glutamic acid to Valine) resulting in a HbS variant
  • Under stress (cold/infection/dehydration/hypoxia/acidosis), the RBCs become deoxygenated and the HbS polymerises causing the cells to become rigid and sickle
  • This leads to vaso-occlusion and significantly shortens the life span of an RBC to 10-20 days
  • Causing chronic haemolysis and tissue infarction
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47
Q

What can precipitate sickling in Sickle Cell Anaemia?

A

Trauma
Cold
Stress
Exercise
infection
dehydration
hypoxia
acidosis

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48
Q

Why does Sickle Cell Anaemia not present until after 6 months of age?

A

HbF is not affected by sickle cell anaemia as it is made up of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains.

Prior to 6 months of age the body still produces HbF

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49
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

Immature RBCs that still have RNA material.
Their percentage increases in haemolytic anaemia

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50
Q

What effect does Sickle Cell Anaemia have on reticulocyte count?

A

Raised - 2-3% (normally 0.45-1.8%)

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51
Q

Why is reticulocyte count raised in Sickle Cell Anaemia?

A

Sickle cell disease is haemolytic - increased degradation of RBC’s

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52
Q

What is the pathogenesis of sickle cell disease?

A

Point mutation in the Beta globin gene (GAG to GTG) swapping valine for glutamic acid.

This causes irreversible RBC sickling which makes the RBC fragile.

A decreased surface area also means the RBCs are less efficient.

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53
Q

What are the symptoms of Sickle Cell disease?

A

Jaundice - haemolytic anaemia releasing bilirubin

Acute pain in hands and feet (vaso-occlusion)

+ complications of anaemia

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54
Q

Give 4 acute complications of sickle cell disease.

A
  1. Vaso-occlusive painful Crisis
  2. Mesenteric Ischaemia
  3. Splenic Sequestration crisis - blocked blood flow to spleen
  4. Infections - due to hyposlenysm
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55
Q

Give 3 chronic complications of sickle cell disease.

A
  1. Renal impairment.
  2. Pulmonary hypertension.
  3. Joint damage.
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56
Q

What are some complications of Sickle cell disease?

A

Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
Stroke
Avascular necrosis in large joints such as the hip
Pulmonary hypertension
Painful and persistent penile erection (priapism)
Chronic kidney disease
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome

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57
Q

What is Vaso-occlusive Crisis (AKA painful crisis) in sickle cell disease?

A

Sickle shaped blood cells clogging capillaries causing distal ischaemia.

It is associated with dehydration and raised haematocrit.

Symptoms are typically pain, fever and those of the triggering infection.

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58
Q

What is Splenic Sequestration Crisis?

A

Sickled Red blood cells blocking blood flow within the spleen.

This causes an acutely enlarged and painful spleen.

The pooling of blood in the spleen can lead to a severe anaemia and circulatory collapse (hypovolaemic shock).

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59
Q

What is the significance of parvovirus for someone with sickle cell disease?

A

Common infection in children (URTI), leading to decreased RBC production

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60
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for Sickle cell disease?

A

Screen neonates – blood/heel prick test

FBC:
Low Hb
High reticulocyte count

Blood film – sickled erythrocytes, Howell Jolly bodies

Hb electrophoresis for differential diagnosis – Hb SS present and absent Hb A confirms diagnosis of sickle cell disease

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61
Q

What is the management of Sickle Cell Disesae?

A

Supportive:
Folic acid
Aggressive analgesia i.e. opiates
Treat underlying cause e.g. antibiotics
Fluids

Disease modifying:
Hydroxycarbamide – increases HbF concentrations
Transfusion
Stem cell transplant

If hyposplenic:
Prophylactic antibiotics
Pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccination

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62
Q

What are the treatments of acute complicated attacks in sickle cell disease?

A

IV fluids
Analgesia (NSAIDs)
O2

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63
Q

What are the long term treatments for sickle cell disease?

A

Avoid Dehydration
Hydroxycarbamide - stimulates HbF production
Blood transfusion
Bone marrow transplant

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64
Q

What is the relationship between Sickle cell disease and Malaria?

A

Having one copy of the sickle cell gene reduces the severity of malaria and is protective.

There is a high proportion of the population in Africa & other malaria associated areas with at least one sickle cell gene.

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65
Q

What is the most common cause of death in adults with Sickle Cell Disease?

A

Pulmonary HTN and chronic lung disease most common cause of death in adults with SCD

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66
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

An autosomal recessive disorder of haemoglobin quantity.
There is reduced synthesis of one or more globin chains leading to a reduction in Hb -> anaemia.
Degree of anaemia depends on the type of mutation

Px with defects in Alpha chain synthesis have alpha Thalassaemia
Px with defects in Beta chain synthesis have beta Thalassaemia

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67
Q

If someone has beta thalassaemia do they have more alpha or beta globin chains?

A

They have very few beta chains, alpha chains are in excess.

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68
Q

Which is more common, alpha or beta thalassaemia?

A

Beta thalassaemia is more common

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69
Q

What are some potential signs and symptoms of Thalassaemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia (low mean corpuscular volume)
Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly
Poor growth and development
Pronounced forehead and malar eminences

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70
Q

Why do you get splenomegaly in thalassaemia?

A

RBCs in thalassaemia are more fragile and break down easily.

In thalassaemia the spleen collects all the destroyed red blood cells and swells, resulting in splenomegaly.

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71
Q

What are mutations that result in alpha Thalassaemia?

A

4 genes on chromosome 16
Deletion mutations

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72
Q

What is produced in alpha thalassaemia as a result of the decreased alpha chains?

A

Excess beta chains form an unstable beta tetramer (HbH)
This is a poor carrier of O2

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73
Q

Where is alpha thalassaemia most prevalent?

A
  • Sub-Saharan Africa
  • Middle East
  • Mediterranian
  • Areas of Asia
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74
Q

What mutations cause Alpha Thalassaemia?

A

4 genes control production of alpha globin chains. α thalassaemia is caused by gene deletions (unlike B which is due to gene defects)

1 deletion: blood picture normal.
2 deletions: Asymptomatic with possible mild microcytic anaemia.

3 deletions: Common in parts of Asia. Patients have low levels of HbA and Hb Barts. Severe haemolytic anaemia, and splenomegaly. Sometimes transfusion dependent.

4 deletions = no a-chain synthesis, only Hb Barts present. Hb Barts CANNOT CARRY OXYGEN and is incompatible with life. (Infants stillborn; they are pale, oedematous with huge livers and spleens.

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75
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of Beta Thalassaemia?

A

In homozygous ß-thalassemia 🡪 little/no normal ß chain production 🡪 therefore, EXCESS α chain production 🡪 α chains combining with whatever ß, 𝛿 or γ chains available 🡪 increased production of HbA2 and HbF 🡪 resulting in ineffective erythropoiesis and haemolysis

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76
Q

What are mutations that result in Beta Thalassaemia?

A

2 genes on chromosome 11
Can have abnormal functional genes or deletion genes that are non functional resulting in different types of Beta Thalassaemia

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77
Q

What are the 3 clinical syndromes of Beta Thalassaemia?

A

Thalassaemia Minor
Thalassaemia Intermedia
Thalassaemia Major

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78
Q

What is Thalassaemia Minor?

A

One abnormal and One functional beta globin gene
Asymptomatic heterozygous carrier state
Mild/absent anaemia – low MCV and hypochromic
Iron stores and ferritin normal

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79
Q

What is Thalassaemia Intermedia?

A

Either:
2 defective beta globin genes - retain some function
OR
1 defective and 1 deletion gene

Moderate anaemia – patients don’t require transfusions
Splenomegaly, bone abnormalities, recurrent leg ulcers and gallstones

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80
Q

What is Thalassaemia Major?

A

Px with Homozygous Beta globin deletion genes.
No functioning beta globin genes
Presents in 1st year of life with severe anaemia (Cooley’s anaemia) – failure to thrive and recurrent infections
Bony abnormalities due to hypertrophy of ineffective BM e.g. skull bossing, thalassaemic faces with an enlarged maxilla and prominent frontal and parietal bones (hair on end sign on skull XR)
Hepatosplenomegaly – due to haemolysis

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81
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for Thalassaemia?

A

FBC and blood film – hypochromic and microcytic anaemia, target cells visible on film

Irregular and pale RBCs

Increased reticulocytes and nucleated RBCs in peripheral circulation

Diagnosis by Hb electrophoresis – shows increased HbF and absent/low HbA

Skull XR – hair on end sign, enlarged maxilla

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82
Q

Why is Iron overload an issue in Thalassaemia?

A

Iron overload occurs in thalassaemia as a result of faulty creation of red blood cells, recurrent transfusions and increased absorption of iron in response to the anaemia.

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83
Q

How is Iron overload in Thalassaemia managed?

A

Monitored Serum Ferritin levels
Limiting transfusions
Iron Chelation - SC desderrioxamine

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84
Q

What is the key clinical symptom of Beta Thalassaemia?

A

Chipmunk Face - due to enlarged forehead and cheekbones due to decreased RBCs and extramedullary haematopoiesis

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85
Q

What is the treatment for Thalassaemia?

A

Regular Blood transfusions
Iron Chelation - prevent Iron overload (as thats a risk of recurrent transfusions)
Splenectomy
Folate supplements

Bone marrow stem cell transplant

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86
Q

What is a potential Curative option for thalassaemia?

A

Bone marrow stem cell transplant

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87
Q

Describe the inheritance pattern for Membranopathies

A

Autosomal dominant

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88
Q

Name two most common Membranopathies

A

Spherocytosis (horizontal deformity) - more severe, present neonatal jaundice and haemolysis

Elliptocytosis (vertical deformity)

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89
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Membranopathies

A

Deficiency of red cell membrane proteins caused by genetic lesions leading to haemolytic anaemia.

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90
Q

What are the common clinical features of Membranopathies?

A

Jaundice
Anaemia
Splenomegaly

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91
Q

What is Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Deficiency in structural membrane protein Spectrin
Makes RBCs more spherical and rigid
Mistaken to be damaged and therefore prematurely destroyed by the spleen
Causes Splenomegaly

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92
Q

What are the symptoms of Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

General Anaemia
Neonatal Jaundice
Splenomegaly
50% have Gallstones

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93
Q

What is the investigations of Hereditary Spherocytosis and Elliptocytosis?

A

Direct Coombs Negative (positive = Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia)

FBC and blood film:
Normocytic Normochromic
Increased Reticulocytes + Spherocytes

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94
Q

What is the treatment for Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

Splenectomy
Folic Acid
Neonatal Jaundice - Phototheraphy

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95
Q

Name a common Enzymopathy.

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency

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96
Q

What is G6PD Deficiency?

A

X linked recessive enzymopathy causing 1/2 RBC lifespan and RBC degradation

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97
Q

What is the pathology of G6PD Deficiency?

A

G6PD vital in hexose monophosphate shunt which maintains glutathione in reduce state. Glutathione protects the RBC from oxidative crisis

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98
Q

Why does a deficiency in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase lead to shortened red cell lifespan?

A

G6PD is required for glutathione synthesis
Glutathione protects Red blood cells against oxidative damage

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99
Q

How does G6PD deficiency present?

A

Mostly asymptomatic unless precipitated by oxidative stressor causing an attack:

Back pain

Chronic haemolytic anaemia
Acute haemolysis
Rapid anaemia
Jaundice + Dark urine

Caused by
Ingestion of fava beans
Common drugs – quinine, sulphonamides, quinolones and nitrofurantoin

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100
Q

What is the diagnostic investigations for G6PD Deficiency?

A

Reduced G6PD levels

FBC - anaemia and raised reticulocytes

Blood film:
Normal in between attacks

Attack - increased reticulocytes and HEINZ bodies and BITE cells

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101
Q

What is the treatment for GP6D Deficiency?

A

Avoid Precipitants - Oxidative drugs

Blood transfusions when attacks come on.

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102
Q

What precipitants can lead to attacks of GP6D Deficiency?

A

Naphthalene
Anti-malarials
Aspirin
FAVA beans
Nitrofurantoin

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103
Q

What are lymphomas?

A

Malignant proliferation of lymphocytes which accumulate in lymph nodes 🡪 lymphadenopathy

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104
Q

What are the two main categories of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - a specific disease
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - encompasses all other lymphomas

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105
Q

What are the main Lymph node sites?

A

Cervical Lymph Nodes
Axillary Lymph Nodes
Inguinal Lymph Nodes

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106
Q

What are some Potential causes of Lymphoma?

A

Primary Immunodeficiency - Ataxia Telangiectasia

Secondary Immunodeficiency - HIV, Transplant recipients

Infection - EBV, HIV, HTL virus, H-pylori

Autoimmune disorders - SLE

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107
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Lymphoma?

A

Not well understood
Thought to be multifactorial - Genetic factors + Environment
Impaired Immunosurveillance
Infected B cells escape regulation and proliferate

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108
Q

What are the general symptoms of Lymphoma?

A

Lymphadenopathy
SVC obstruction
B symptoms
Weight loss
Appetite loss
Night sweats
Fever

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109
Q

What is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Cancerous Proliferation of Lymphocytes

Bimodal age distribution - affects teens (13-19) and elderly (75+)

Associated with EBV infection

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110
Q

What are the 2 types of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Classical - Reed Sternberg cells with mirror-Image nuclei

Nodular Lymphocyte Predominates Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NLPL) - Reed Sternberg cell variant - Popcorn cell

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111
Q

What are the risk factors for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

HIV
Epstein-Barr Virus
Autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and sarcoidosis
Family history - affected sibling

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112
Q

How does Hodgkin’s Lymphoma normally Present?

A

Lymphadenopathy - non-tender, feel rubbery
Pain in lymph nodes when drinking alcohol.
B symptoms - Fever, Weight loss, Night sweats

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113
Q

What are the B Symptoms associated with Lymphoma/other haematological disorders?

A

Fever
Weight Loss >10% in 6 months
Night Sweats

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114
Q

What other symptoms may be associated with Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Fatigue
Pruritus’ (itching)
cough
SOB
Abdominal Pain
Recurrent infections

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115
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Lymph Node Biopsy - Reed Sternberg cell positive with mirror image nuclei

Lactate Dehydrogenase - Often raised by not specific to Hodgkin’s

Decreased Hb (normo-chromatic, Normocytic anaemia), Increased ESR - indicates worse prognosis

CT/MRI - Fir staging and diagnostics

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116
Q

What type of Biopsy is done to Diagnose Lymphoma?

A

Core Needle Biopsy
Lymph Node Excision

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117
Q

What are Reed Sternberg cells?

A

Abnormally large B cells with multiple nuclei that are the key finding on lymph node biopsy in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.

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118
Q

What is the Ann Arbor Staging system?

A

Used for Staging Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

Stage 1 - Single Lymph node region
Stage 2 - In more than 1 lymph node region but same side of the diaphragm
Stage 3 - Lymph nodes both above and below Diaphragm affected
Stage 4 - Widespread involvement including other non-lymphatic organs (lungs/liver)

A = NO B symptoms
B = HAS B symptoms

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119
Q

What other organs may be affected in Stage 4 Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Blood
Bone Marrow
Liver
Spleen

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120
Q

What is used to stage lymphomas using the Ann Arbor staging system?

A

CT/MRI/PET scans

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121
Q

What is the Treatment for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

ABVD Chemotherapy:
Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vinblastine
Dacarbazine

(Potentially Radiotherapy)

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122
Q

What are the different courses of treatment for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Stage IA - IIA (< 3 areas involved):
Short course ABVD

Stage IIA - IVB (> 3 areas involved):
Longer courses of ABVD

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123
Q

What is the Aim of Treatment for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

To cure the condition
Usually successful however there is a risk of relapse and SE of treatment.

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124
Q

What are the side effects of Chemotherapy?

A

Infertility
Nausea
Alopecia
Vomiting
Constipation/diarrhoea
Rash

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125
Q

What are the Side effects of Radiotherapy?

A

IHD
Second malignancies
Hypothyroidism

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126
Q

What are the side effects of:
Anthracyclines
Bleomycin
Vinka alkaloids

A

Anthracyclines – cardiomyopathy
Bleomycin – lung damage
Vinka alkaloids – peripheral neuropathy

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127
Q

What are some side effects of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma Treatment?

A

Chemotherapy:
Alopecia
N+V
Myelosuppression & BM failure = Infection

Radiotherapy - Increased risk of second malignancies

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128
Q

What is Febrile Neutropenia?

A

A condition marked by Fever and very low neutrophil numbers in the blood.
Massive risk in Px who have had recent/High dose Chemo (or on Carbimazole)

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129
Q

What is the treatment for Febrile Neutropenia?

A

Immediate Broad Spec Antibiotics
(Amoxicillin + Fluoroquinolone)

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130
Q

What is Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

malignant clonal expansion of lymphocytes which occurs at different stages of lymphocyte development.

All lymphomas without Reed Sternberg cells.
80% are B cell origin and 20% T cell origin.

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131
Q

Give some Key Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas

A

Low Grade - Follicular

High Grade - Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma

Very high Grade - Burkitt Lymphoma

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132
Q

What are the risk factors of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

HIV
Epstein-Barr Virus
H. pylori (MALT lymphoma)
Hepatitis B or C infection
Exposure to pesticides and a specific chemical called trichloroethylene used in several industrial processes
Family history

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133
Q

What are some Specific Symptoms of Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Linked to EBV infection.
Causes Massive Jaw Lymphadenopathy in children

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134
Q

What are the symptoms of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Variable symptoms due to the range of subtypes however Px generally present in a similar way to Hodgkin’s Lymphoma:

Painless Rubbery Lymphadenopathy
B Symptoms
Lymph nodes NOT Painful with Alcohol.

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135
Q

What are the Diagnostic tests for Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma?

A

Lymph Node Biopsy - No RS/Popcorn Cells confirms NHL lymphoma

CT/MRI for Ann Arbor Staging

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136
Q

What is the Treatment for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP:
Rituximab - Targets CD20 on B cells
Cyclophosphamide
Hydroxy-Daunorubicin
Vincristine (Oricovin)
Prednisolone

+ radiotherapy

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137
Q

Describe the prognosis of low-grade Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Slow growing, advanced at presentation, incurable

Median survival; 10 years

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138
Q

Describe the prognosis of high-grade Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

Nodal presentation; presents early than low grade, therefore often curable

Aggressive - can make patient very unwell.

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139
Q

How does the treatment for low and high-grade Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma, differ?

A

In general, if the patient is symptomless - watch and wait.

Low grade; no chemotherapy may be required - radiotherapy may be curative in localised disease.
If symptomatic, Chemotherapy radiotherapy, combination chemotherapy and mAb

High Grade:
Early - Short course R-CHOP
Advanced - Combination R-CHOP + Rituximab

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140
Q

How does the treatment differ between High grade Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that is detected early and late?

A

Early - 3 months of RCHOP with radiotherapy

Late - 6 months of RCHOP with Radiotherapy

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141
Q

What is Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome is caused by the myeloid bone marrow cells not maturing properly and therefore not producing healthy blood cells.

There are a number of specific types of myelodysplastic syndrome.

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142
Q

What happens to the blood cell maturation in Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

A

Causes low levels of blood components that originate from the myeloid cell line:

Anaemia - Low RBC
Neutropenia - Low neutrophils
Thrombocytopenia - Low platelets

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143
Q

What do patients have an increased risk of developing if they have Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

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144
Q

How does Myelodysplastic Syndrome Present?

A

May be Asymptomatic and the diagnosis is made incidentally

May present with symptoms of:
Anaemia - fatigue, pallor, SOB
Neutropenia - Recurrent/severe infections
Thrombocytopenia - Bleeding/bruising

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145
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for Myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

FBC - Low RBC, Neutrophils, Platelets

Blood Film - Blasts present (immature myeloid derived progenitors)

Bone marrow aspiration biopsy

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146
Q

What is the management of Myelodysplastic Syndrome?

A

Watchful Waiting
Supportive Treatment with blood transfusions if severely anaemic
Chemotherapy
Stem Cell Transplant

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147
Q

Define Leukaemia?

A

The malignant Proliferation (Cancer) of a particular line of haematopoietic stem cells (blast cells) in the bone marrow. This causes unregulated production of certain types of blood cells.

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148
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Leukaemia?

A

A genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells (myeloblast or lymphoblast) in the bone marrow leads to excessive production of a single type of abnormal white blood cell.

This can lead to suppression of other cell lines causing underproduction of those types.

This causes Pancytopenia - Combination of anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

149
Q

Why is there suppression of other cell lines in leukaemia?

A

Rapid proliferation of one leukocyte takes up lots of space in the bone marrow.
This leaves less space for functioning cells to be produced.

150
Q

What are the 4 main types of leukaemia?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (CLL)

151
Q

What age ranges are at increased risk of the different types of leukaemia?

A

Mnemonic: ALL CeLL mates have CoMmon AMbitions
under 5 and over 45 - ALL
Over 55 - CLL
Over 65 - CML
Over 75 - AML

152
Q

What age group does ALL commonly affect?

A

children under 5

153
Q

What clinical symptoms are associated with Leukaemia?

A

Fatigue - anaemia
Fever + infections
Failure to thrive (children)
Pallor due to anaemia
Petechiae and abnormal bruising due to thrombocytopenia
Abnormal bleeding - thrombocytopenia

Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly

154
Q

What is the presentation of leukaemia?

A

Quite non specific.
Symptoms are associated with affects of pancyotpenia

155
Q

AML arises from abnormalities in which type of cell?

A

Common myeloid progenitor cells → abnormal myeloblasts

No differentiation

156
Q

ALL arises from abnormalities in which type of cell?

A

Common lymphoid progenitor cells → abnormal lymphoblasts

No differentiation

157
Q

CLL arises from abnormalities in which type of cell?

A

Mature B-lymphocyte

Partial differentiation

158
Q

CML arises from abnormalities in which type of cell?

A

Basophils, neutrophils and eosinophils

Partial differentiation

159
Q

CMML arises from abnormalities in which type of cell?

A

Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia

Mature monocytes

160
Q

What may be the white cell counts for some of the different types of leukaemia?

A

Symptomatically high WCC

  • > 100x10^9/L for AML
  • > 200x10^9/L for ALL
  • > 400x10^9/L for CML
161
Q

What diagnostic investigations are used in leukaemia?

A

FBC - Pancytopenia

Blood film - abnormal cells/inclusions

Lactate Dehydrogenase - often raised by non-specific

Bone Marrow Biopsy - Diagnostic

CXR - lymphadenopathy

CT/MRI for staging of lymphomas/other tumours

162
Q

What are the different types of Bone marrow biopsy that may be used to diagnose leukaemias?

A

Bone Marrow Aspiration - liquid sample of cells

Bone Marrow Trephine - solid core of bone marrow

Bone marrow Biopsy - uses a specialist needle

163
Q

What is Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)?

A

Neoplastic common myeloid progenitor/ myeloblast proliferation
Most common acute leukaemia in adults and most commonly affects over 75 yrs.

164
Q

What are the genetics of AML?

A

t(15:17)
Association with Downs and Radiation

165
Q

What is the progression of AML like?

A

Rapid progression

If not Tx ASAP then 3 year survival =20%

166
Q

What are the symptoms of AML?

A

Sx of Leukaemia
B symptoms

Gum infiltration

167
Q

What are the investigations of AML?

A

FBC - Pancytopenia

Blood Film - High proportion of blast cells, Myeloperoxidase
AUER RODS (myeloperoxidase cytoplasmic aggregates in neutrophils)

BM Biopsy - > 20% myeloid Blast cells

168
Q

What are Auer Rods?

A

Associated with AML
myeloperoxidase cytoplasmic aggregates in neutrophils

169
Q

What is the treatment of AML?

A

Supportive treatment: (blood/platelets/fluids/antibiotics)
Correction of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and coagulation abnormalities

Treatment of infection with IV antibiotics

Allopurinol - prevention of acute tumour lysis syndrome

Chemo needed to induce remission

BM transplant and steroids to maintain

170
Q

What is Tumour Lysis Syndrome?

A

Caused by the release of Uric Acid from cells that are destroyed by chemotherapy.
Uric acid can form crystals in interstitial tissue and the kidneys causing AKI.

Tx with Allopurinol

171
Q

What is Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Neoplastic Myelocyte proliferation (precursor for eosinophils, basophils, Neutrophils)

Associated with exposure to ionising radiation

172
Q

What are the Genetics of CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome (chromosome 9)
Cytogenetic translocation t(9:22)

173
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome translocation
BCR ABL gene fusion causing Tyrosine Kinase irreversibly switched on.
Tyrosine kinase increases cell proliferation

174
Q

What are the symptoms of CML?

A

General Sx of Leukaemia
B Symptoms
MASSIVE Hepatosplenomegaly

175
Q

What are the investigations of CML?

A

FBC - anaemia (but leuko/granulocytosis)

BM biopsy - increased granulocytes

Philadelphia chromosome genetic test using FISH - look for BCR-ABLE

176
Q

What is the treatment for CML?

A

Chemotherapy
Imatinib - T.K inhibitor

BM/stem cell Transplant

177
Q

What is the risk of CML?

A

Risk of progression to AML

178
Q

What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)?

A

Neoplastic Lymphoblast proliferation
Most common Childhood malignancy - 75% of cases < 6 yrs

179
Q

What are the genetics of ALL?

A

Mostly B cell lineage (not T cell)
t(12:22) w/ good prognosis

Associated with DOWNs (30x increased risk)

180
Q

What are the symptoms of ALL?

A

General Sx of Leukaemia
B symptoms

except 6yr olds with DOWNs
hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy

181
Q

What are the investigations of ALL?

A

FBC - Pancytopenia

Blood film - increased lymphoblast cells

BM Biopsy - >20% Lymphoblasts (diagnostic)

Immunofluorescence - TdT +tve lymphoblasts

182
Q

What is the treatment for ALL?

A

Chemotherapy

Correct Pancytopenia

Consider ALLOPURINOL and Prophylactic Abx

Generally good prognosis

183
Q

What is the treatment of Acute Promyelocytic Leukaemia?

A

All-Trans-Retinoic Acid (ATRA)

184
Q

What is Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of Lymphocytes (most B cells)
Most common leukaemia overall often affecting adults >55yrs
multifactorial

185
Q

What are the symptoms of CLL?

A

Often Asymptomatic

If Sx:
General Sx of Leukaemia
Lymphadenopathy (non tender)
Hepatosplenomegaly

186
Q

What are the investigations for CLL?

A

FBC - Pancytopenia (except has lymphocytosis)

Blood Film - SMUDGE CELLS

Immunoglobulins - Hypogammaglobulinaemia

187
Q

Why is there Hypogammaglobulinaemia in CLL?

A

B cells proliferate but do not differentiate into plasma cells and therefore few Igs are produced.

188
Q

What is the Treatment of CLL?

A

Varies depending on stage
Early - watchful waiting
Advanced - Chemo
Radiotherapy to shrink lymphadenopathy
Splenectomy
BM transplant
Stem cell transplant

189
Q

What is a complication of CLL?

A

Richter Transformation:
B cells massively accumulate in Lymph nodes causing massive lymphadenopathy.

CLL transforms to aggressive lymphoma

190
Q

What are some complications of Chemotherapy used to treat leukaemia?

A

Failure
Stunted growth/development in children
Infections - immunodeficiency
Neurotoxicity
Infertility

Tumour Lysis Syndrome

191
Q

What is a normal haematocrit?

A

45%

192
Q

What is haematopoiesis?

A

Synthesis of blood cells

193
Q

Where does haematopoiesis happen?

A

Bone marrow

194
Q

How is haematopoiesis regulated?

A

Through the action of cytokines

195
Q

What is Extramedullary Haemopoiesis?

A

Formation and activation of blood cells outside the bone marrow (BM), as a response to hematopoietic stress caused by microbial infections and certain diseases, such as myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN), lymphomas, and leukemias

196
Q

Define myeloproliferative neoplasms

A

Haematological malignancies

Chronic conditions - present and evolve over many years

197
Q

How do myeloproliferative neoplasms manifest?

A

Accumulation of mature blood cells in circulation

198
Q

Where do myeloproliferative neoplasms arise from?

A

Haematopoietic stem cells

199
Q

What causes myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A

Genetic mutations in haematopoietic stem cells

Cells inappropriately and permanently switched on by signalling cytokines that control haematopoiesis

200
Q

What genes are associated with Myeloproliferative diseases?

A

Mutations in:
JAK2
MPL
CALR

201
Q

What are the 3 main myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Primary Myelofibrosis
Polycythaemia Vera
Essential Thrombocytopenia

202
Q

What condition do myeloproliferative disorders have the risk of progressing to?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

203
Q

What Proliferating cell line causes:
Primary Myelofibrosis
Polycythaemia Vera
Essential Thrombocytosis

A

Primary Myelofibrosis - Haematopoietic Stem Cell

Polycythaemia Vera - Erythroid Cells

Essential Thrombocytosis - Megakaryocyte

204
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

Erythrocytosis (increased Hb, Packed cell volume and RBCs) of any cause

(opposite to anaemia)

205
Q

How common is polycythaemia vera?

A

Rare
2 cases/100,000 per year

206
Q

What is the prognosis of polycythaemia vera?

A

13 years

207
Q

What are some causes of Polycythaemia?

A

Primary - Polycythaemia Vera, Primary familial/Congenital Polycythaemia

Secondary - Hypoxia, increased EPO (secreting tumours), Dehydration, Alcohol

208
Q

What is the pathology of Primary Polycythaemia?

A

Mutations in JAK2 or EPO
Increased sensitivity of BM cells to EPO
Increased RBC production

209
Q

What is the Pathology of Secondary Polycythaemia?

A

Appropriate response:
Increased RBC production due to hypoxia, dehydration, alcohol, etc.

Inappropriate Response:
Increased EPO secretion from tumours

210
Q

What causes Polycythaemia Vera?

A

JAK2 mutation V617 - EPO constantly switched on
Accounts for 95% of cases

211
Q

What causes Primary familial and congenital polycythaemia?

A

Mutation in EPO receptor gene.

212
Q

What are the symptoms of Polycythaemia Vera?

A

May be ASx
Easy bleeding/Bruising
Fatigue
Dizzinesss/Headaches.
Itchy after a bath
Burning in fingers and toes - Eryhtromyalgia

213
Q

What are the signs of Primary Polycythaemia vera?

A

Plethoric complexion
Hepatosplenomegaly – result of extramedullary haemopoiesis
Hyperviscosity of blood - increased RBCs = increased haematocrit

214
Q

What are the signs of Secondary Polycythaemia?

A

Plethoric complexion
Hyperviscosity of blood - increased RBCs = increased haematocrit
No splenomegaly

215
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations of Polycythaemia Vera and Secondary Polycythaemia?

A

FBC:
P. Rubra Vera:
Raised WBC and platelets
Low serum EPO (negative feedback)

Secondary:
Normal WBC and platelets
Low serum EPO (negative feedback)

BM biopsy
Genetic testing for JAK2 gene

216
Q

What is the treatment of Polycythaemia Vera?

A

Primary: Non curative
Venesection + Aspirin
Aim to maintain normal blood count and haematocrit (<45%):
Hydroxycarbamide - in high risk patients

Secondary Tx underlying cause.

217
Q

What are some main complications of Polycythaemia Vera?

A

Arterial Thrombosis - Stroke/MI

Venous Thrombosis - DVT, Splanchnic vein thrombosis, Portal vein Thrombosis

218
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for polycythaemia vera?

A

Eliminate secondary causes:

Lung disease

Alcohol

Apparent erythrocytosis

EPO (erythropoietin) secreting tumours

219
Q

What is the prognosis of essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Life expectancy is normal

220
Q

What is Essential Thrombocythaemia?

A

Elevated Platelet Count

221
Q

What is the cause of Essential Thrombocytosis?

A

JAK mutation
TPO switched on

222
Q

How is Thrombocytosis Diagnosed

A

FBC - increased platelets

Blood film - Platelet Islands/aggregations

Check For iron status

Increased ESR - signs of infection
Increased CRP - signs of infection

223
Q

What is the management of Essential Thrombocythaemia?

A

Assess and manage CVD risk
<60yrs - Aspirin alone

> 60yrs or high risk - Aspirin + Hydroxycarbamide

224
Q

What are the differential diagnosis of essential thrombocytosis?

A

Eliminate secondary causes:

Infection

Inflammation (including post-surgical)

Solid tumours

Steroids

Iron Deficiency

225
Q

What are the complications of essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Arterial thrombosis

Venous thrombosis

226
Q

What is the prognosis of myelofibrosis?

A

5 years

227
Q

What is Myelofibrosis?

A

Proliferation of the cell lines in the bone marrow lead to fibrosis

228
Q

What is the cause of myelofibrosis?

A

Predominantly JAK2 mutation

229
Q

What are the symptoms of myelofibrosis?

A

Weight loss

Fatigue

Features of cytopenia

230
Q

What is the management of myelofibrosis?

A

Supportive management:

Blood transfusions, EPO, treat infection

Hydroxycarbamide chemotherapy

Allogeneic stem cell transplant

Ruxolitinab (JAK1/2 inhibitor)

231
Q

What are the stimulants of Erythropoiesis?

A
  • Hypoxia
  • EPO secreted by kidneys
  • Thyroid hormone and testosterone can stimulate as well
232
Q

What substances are required for healthy erythropoiesis?

A
  1. Iron - For haemoglobin formation
  2. Vitamin B12 and folic acid - Required for DNA maturation and condensation. Without it, you will have massive red blood cells
233
Q

Discuss the process of erythropoiesis.

A
  • Occurs in red bone marrow of the epiphyses of bone
  • EPO will stimulate myeloid stem cell to commit to RBC lineage - proerythroblast
  • Proerythroblast will become basophillic erythroblast due to increase in mRNA of haemoglobin products
  • Nucleus condenses and organelles are ejected
234
Q

What is the structure of haemoglobin?

A
  • Haemoglobin has a quaternary structure
  • 4 haem groups
  • 4 four polypeptide chains (α1, α2, β1, and β2)
235
Q

What is the signal for RBC breakdown?

A

Loss of RBC structure through breakdown of the cytoskeletal components spectrin and ankrin

236
Q

What is the process of RBC breakdown?

A
  • Macrophages or Kupffer cells in the spleen, liver or bone marrow phagocytose RBC
  • Globin alpha and beta chains > recycled as AA
  • Haem > iron and protoporphyrin
    • Iron > ferritin > haemosiderin
    • Protoporphyrin > Biliverdin > Bilirubin
237
Q

Describe bilirubin metabolism.

A
  • Haem > Biliverdin > Bilirubin
  • Bilirubin binds with albumin = unconjugated bilirubin - travels to liver
  • Unconjugated bilirubin combines with glucuronic acid (via UGT) = conjugated bilirubin
  • Conjugated bilirubin forms bile, which gets pushed into the duodenum
  • Bacteria in the gut breaks down conjugated bilirubin into urobilinogen (AKA faecal stercobilinogen)
  • Urobilinogen can be reabsorbed and excreted via the urine as urobilin (makes urine yellow)
  • Urobilinogen can become stercobilin and excreted in the faeces (makes poo brown)
238
Q

What is anaemia?

A
  • Low level of haemoglobin in the blood
  • It is the result of an underlying disease, and not a disease itself
239
Q

What are the normal haemoglobin and mean cell volume ranges for men and women?

A

Men:
Haemoglobin - 120-165 g/L
MCV - 80-100 femtolitres

Women;
Haemoglobin - 130-180 g/L
MCV - 80-100 Femtolitres

240
Q

What is Mean Cell (corpuscular) Volume?

A

Size of the red blood cells

241
Q

What level is considered anaemic in men and women?

A
  • <135 g/L for men
  • <115 g/L for women
242
Q

What are the 3 main categories of anaemia?

A
  • Microcytic anaemia (low MCV indicating small RBCs)
  • Normocytic anaemia (Normal MCV indicating normal sized RBCs)
  • Macrocytic anaemia (Large MCV indicating large RBCs)
243
Q

What are the different Mean Corpuscular Volumes in the different types of anaemia?

A

Microcytic - CMV <80

Normocytic - CMV 80-95

Macrocytic - CMV >95

244
Q

What can be reasons for Low blood count/anaemia?

A

Increased Loss:
BLEEDING
Haemolysis

Decreased Production:
Iron deficiency
B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency
BM failure

245
Q

What are the main causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

TAILS:
- Thalassaemia
- Anaemia of chronic disease
- Iron deficiency anaemia
- Lead poisoning
- Sideroblastic anaemia

246
Q

What are the main causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

AHAHA:
Acute blood loss

Haemolytic anaemia

Anaemia of chronic disease

Hypothyroidism + Renal disease

Aplastic anaemia

247
Q

What are the main causes of Macrocytic Anaemia?

A

Megaloblastic:
B12 deficiency
Folate Deficiency

non-megaloblastic:
Alcohol Excess

248
Q

What are the main causes of macrocytosis (large RBCs)?

A

Split into Megaloblastic and Normoblastic:

Megaloblastic:
- B12 Deficiency
- Folate Deficiency

Normoblastic:
- Alcohol
- Reticulocytosis
- Hypothyroidism
- Liver disease
- Drugs (Azathioprine)

249
Q

What is a hypochromic cell?

A

Pale cells due to less haemoglobin

250
Q

What is a Megaloblastic Anaemia?

A

An anaemia characterised by large (macrocytic) non-condensed chromatin due to impaired DNA synthesis.

B12 deficiency
Folate Deficiency

251
Q

What are the general Symptoms of Anaemia?

A

Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions such as angina, heart failure or peripheral vascular disease

252
Q

What are the general signs of anaemia?

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival Pallor
Tachycardia
Raised Respiratory Rate

253
Q

What are some symptoms specific to iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Pica - dietary cravings for abnormal things such as dirt

Hair loss - Can indicate Iron Deficiency Anaemia

254
Q

What are some Signs of specific causes of Anaemia?

A

Iron Deficiency Anaemia:
Koilonychia - Spoon shaped nails
Angular Chelitis
Brittle hair and nails

Haemolytic Anaemia:
Jaundice

Thalassaemia:
Bone Deformities

255
Q

What is Anaemia of Chronic Disease?

A

Secondary anaemia due to underlying pathology.
Commonest anaemia in hospitals
Occurs in patients with inflammatory disease

256
Q

What are the causes of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Crohn’s
RA
TB
SLE
Malignant disease
CKD

257
Q

What is the pathology of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

These conditions can cause either a shortening of RBC life or reducing RBC production

Decreased release of iron from BM to developing erythroblasts

Less erythropoietin produced in response to the anaemia

High levels of hepcidin expression – inhibits duodenal iron absorption and macrophage release of iron

Decreased RBC survival

258
Q

What are the investigations of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

FBC and blood film
Normocytic/microcytic and hypochromic (pale)
Low serum iron and low total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
Increased or normal serum ferritin

259
Q

What is the treatment for anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Treat underlying cause
Recombinant erythropoietin

260
Q

What is Iron Deficiency Anaemia?

A

Iron is required for the synthesis of Haemoglobin.
Therefore in Iron deficiency there is impaired synthesis of haemoglobin leading to Microcytic anaemia.

261
Q

What is the presentation of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Anaemia symptoms and signs

262
Q

What is the most common form of anaemia world wide?

A

Iron Deficiency anaemia

263
Q

What are some reasons a person may become iron deficient/causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Iron is being lost (BLEEDING)
Insufficient dietary iron
Iron requirements increase (for example in pregnancy)
Inadequate iron absorption

264
Q

Where is Iron mainly absorbed?

A

Duodenum and Jejunum

265
Q

How is Iron Transported and stored?

A

Transported - Transferrin

Stored - Ferritin and Haemosiderin

266
Q

Why do medications that reduce stomach acid production lead to impaired absorption of iron?

A

Iron is kept in the soluble ferrous (Fe2+) form by the stomach acid.

When it enters the intestines and the acid drops, it changes to Insoluble ferric iron (Fe3+)

The ferric iron is required for absorption.

PPIs will increase insoluble ferric iron in the stomach that cannot be absorbed.

267
Q

What conditions may reduce iron absorption?

A

GI tract Cancer
Oesophagitis and Gastritis - GI bleeding
IBD, Colitis and Coeliacs - Impaired absorption

268
Q

What are the Signs and Symptoms of Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

General Anaemia Sx
Koilonychia
Angular Stomatitis, Cheilitis
Atrophic Glossitis

269
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia?

A

FBC - MCV = Low (microcytic anaemia)

Blood Film - Hypochromic RBC, Target cells, Howell Jolly Bodies

Iron Studies - Low Ferritin (<15), Low transferrin Saturation (<15%), Increased Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)

Endoscopy/Colonoscopy if >60 yrs to look for GI bleed

270
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease

271
Q

What is the treatment of Iron Deficiency Anaemia?

A

Oral Fe - Ferrous Sulphate (Ferrous Gluconate if poorly tolerated)
Blood Transfusion

272
Q

What are some Side effects of Treating Iron deficiency anaemia with Ferrous sulphate?

A

Cause GI Upset
Diarrhoea
Constipation
Black stools

273
Q

What is Sideroblastic Anaemia?

A

A microcytic anaemia characterised by ineffective erythropoiesis due to having too much Iron

274
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of Sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Defective Hb synthesis within Mitochondria
Often X linked inheritance
A Functional Iron deficiency where there is increased Fe but it is not used in Hb Synthesis

275
Q

What are the investigations for Sideroblastic anaemia?

A

FBC - Microcytic

Blood film - Ringed Siderobasts

276
Q

What is the Treatment for Sideroblastic Anaemia?

A
  • Mainly supportive
  • Iron chelation (Desferrioxamine)
  • Consider B6 (Pyridoxine) if hereditary
277
Q

What is Pernicious Anaemia?

A
  • Autoimmune condition in which atrophic gastritis leads to a lack of intrinsic factor secretion from the parietal cells in the stomach
  • Dietary B12 remains unbound and cannot be absorbed at the terminal ileum
  • Therefore B12 deficiency leads to impaired maturation of RBCs and anaemia
278
Q

What is vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Macrocytic anaemia with peripheral neuropathy and neuropsych complaints
  • It is a megaloblastic anaemia, as well as folate deficiency anaemia
279
Q

What are the causes of B12 deficiency?

A

Low dietary intake - vegans
Atrophic gastritis
Gastrectomy
Crohn’s disease
Coeliac disease = malabsorption
Drugs (Metformin, PPI, H2 antagonists)

280
Q

What is the cause of pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune atrophic gastritis

281
Q

What is B12 used for and how is it absorbed?

A
  • DNA synthesis cofactor and the production of red blood cells
  • required for cell division - Without it, cells remain large (megaloblast)
  • It is normally present in meat, fish and dairy, and it absorbed in the terminal ileum combined with intrinsic factor
282
Q

What is the normal physiology of Vitamin B12 absorption

A

B12 typically binds to Transcobalamin in the saliva (provides protection against stomach acid)

Parietal cells release Intrinsic factor (IF)

IF forms complexes with Vit B12 which is then absorbed in the ileum

B12 is then used for RBC production

283
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of B12 deficiency and Pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune destruction of Parietal cells
Therefore reduced intrinsic factor produced
Therefore poor absorption of B12
B12 cannot be used to produced RBCs
Anaemia

284
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Pernicious anaemia?

A

General Anaemia Sx
Signs:
Lemon Yellow Skin
Angular Stomatitis and glossitis
Neurological SX - B12 def causes demyelination

285
Q

What neurological symptoms may be seen in Pernicious anaemia?

A

Symmetrical paraesthesia
Muscle Weakness

286
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations of B12 Deficiency and Pernicious Anaemia?

A

MCV Increased - macrocytic anaemia

Blood film - Megaloblasts + Oval Macrocytes

Low serum B12 levels

Anti-IF antibodies and Anti-parietal Abs

287
Q

How long does B12 deficiency and pernicious anaemia take to develop?

A

Years

288
Q

What is the treatment of Pernicious anaemia?

A

Dietary advice (Salmon and eggs)
B12 Supplements
PO Hydroxocobalamin

289
Q

What would you not treat B12 deficiency anaemia with?

A

Folic acid supplements
Can cause fulminant neurological Deficits

290
Q

What are some complications of Pernicious anaemia?

A

Heart failure
Angina
Neuropathy

291
Q

What is Folate Deficiency Anaemia?

A
  • A type of MACROcytic anaemia with absence of neurological signs
  • Folate is required for cell division and DNA synthesis.
    Without it maturing RBCs wont divide - Megalobastic
292
Q

How long does Folate deficiency anaemia take to develop?

A

Months

293
Q

What are the causes of folate deficiency anaemia?

A
  • Poor diet (poverty, alcohol, elderly)
  • Increased demand (Pregnancy, renal disease)
  • Malabsorption (Coeliac)
  • Drugs, alcohol and methotrexate
294
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of megalobastic anaemia?

A

Headache
Loss of appetite and weight

295
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of folate-deficiency anaemia?

A

General Anaemia Sx
Angular Stomatitis and Glossitis
No Neurological Sx - distinguish between B12 Def.

296
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Folate deficiency Anaemia?

A

FBC and Blood film - Macrocytic and Megaloblasts

Decreased serum folate

297
Q

What is the treatment for Folate deficiency anaemia?

A

Dietary advice - leafy greens and brown rice
Folate supplements

If pancytopenic then give packed RBC Transfusion

298
Q

How can you tell the difference between B12 and folate deficiency anaemia?

A

Both macrocytic megaloblastic anaemias

B12 presents with anaemia Sx and Neurological deficits.

Folate has no neurological deficits.

299
Q

What is Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Anaemia caused by haemolysis - early breakdown of RBCs

300
Q

Where does haemolysis occur?

A

Intravascular - within blood vessels

Extravascular - within reticuloendothelial system (most common)

By macrophages in spleen (mainly), liver and bone marrow

301
Q

What are the hereditary causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Enzyme defects (G6P dehydrogenase deficiency)
  • Membrane defects (Spherocytosis, elliptocytosis)
  • Haemoglobinopathies (Abnormal Hb production) (Sickle cell, thalassaemia)
302
Q

What are the acquired causes of haemolytic anaemia

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Infections - malaria
Secondary to systemic disease

303
Q

What is Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Autoimmune Abs against RBCs causing intra and extravascular haemolysis

304
Q

What are the types of Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Divided into two subtypes depending on temperature:
  • WARM type - IgG mediated - occurs at normal or warm temperatures (Idiopathic)
  • COLD type - IgM mediated - also called cold agglutinin disease
305
Q

What is the specific test to Diagnose Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Direct Coombs Test - Agglutination of RBCs with Coombs reagent

306
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of haemolytic Anaemia?

A
  • Anaemia symptoms (Pallor, fatigue, dyspnoea)
  • Jaundice (Increase in bilirubin)
  • Splenomegaly (increased haemolysis)
  • Dark urine (PNH)
307
Q

What are the investigations for haemolytic anaemia?

A

Low Hb

FBC - Normocytic Anaemia

Blood film - Shistocytes, increased reticulocytes’

Jaundice features: Inc bilirubin, Inc urinary urobilin, High faecal stercobilin

Direct coombs Test - positive for autoimmune

308
Q

What is the treatment of Coombs +ve haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Treat underlying condition
  • RBC transfusion and folic acid
  • Prednisolone
  • Rituximab
  • Splenectomy
309
Q

What is the treatment of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Folate and iron supplementation
Immunosuppressives
Splenectomy

310
Q

How does CKD cause anaemia?

A

Decreased EPO causes reduced erythropoiesis
Normocytic and Normochromic anaemia

311
Q

What is Aplastic Anaemia?

A

A Pancytopenia where Bone Marrow fails and stops making haematopoietic stem cells from pluripotent cells..

312
Q

What are the causes of aplastic anaemia?

A

Congenital
Acquired e.g. aplastic anaemia
Chemotherapeutic drugs
Infections – EBV, HIV, TB, Hepatitis
Pregnancy

313
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of aplastic anaemia?

A

Anaemia
Increased susceptibility to infection
Increased bruising
Increased bleeding (especially from nose and gums)

314
Q

What are the investigations for aplastic anaemia?

A

FBC – would show pancytopenia (low levels of all blood cells i.e. RBCs, WBCS etc.)
Reticulocyte count – low or absent
BM biopsy – hypocellular marrow with increased fat spaces

315
Q

What is the treatment for aplastic anaemia?

A

Remove causative agent
Blood/platelet transfusion
BM transplant
Immunosuppressive therapy – anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) and ciclosporin

316
Q

What are the main causes of splenomegaly?

A

Infection
Liver disease
Autoimmune disease - SLE/RA
Cancers (often haematological)

317
Q

What is Haemophilia A?

A

A bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII

318
Q

What is Haemophilia B?

A

A bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in Factor IX

319
Q

What are the genetics of Haemophilia?

A

These are X linked Recessive disorders and therefore will only tend to affect males.

320
Q

What do the symptoms of haemophilia depend on?

A

Plasma levels of factor 8/9 (A/B)
<1 IU/dl = severe disease:
frequent spontaneous bleeding into muscles and joints that can lead to crippling arthropathy

1-5 IU/dl = moderate disease:
severe bleeding following injury and occasional apparently spontaneous episodes

> 5 IU/dl = mild disease:
bleeding only with trauma or surgery

321
Q

What are signs and symptoms of Haemophilia?

A

Excessive Bleeding to minor trauma

Intra-cranial haemorrhage, haematomas, chord bleeding in neonates

Spontaneous bleeding into joints and muscles (haemoarthrosis)

GI bleeding
Haematuria
Haematomas (blood collections outside vessels)

322
Q

What is Prothrombin Time (PTT) a measure of?

A

Extrinsic clotting pathway

323
Q

What is the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) a measure of?

A

Intrinsic clotting pathway

324
Q

What diagnostic investigations are used to diagnosed Haemophilia?

A

Bleeding scores

Coagulation factor assays:
Normal prothrombin time (PTT) and VWF – Factor 8/9 not in extrinsic pathway
Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) – Factor 8/9 are in intrinsic pathway
Reduced plasma factor 8/9

Genetic testing

325
Q

What is the management of Haemophilia?

A

Affected clotting factors (VIII or IX) can be replaced by IV.

Desmopressin can stimulate the release of VwF and raise level of factor 8/9

Antifibrinolytics - Tranexamic Acid

326
Q

What is the main complication of haemophilia and how is it treated?

A

Joint deformities and arthritis from recurrent bleeding into joints

Tx: Encouragement to join exercise regimes and avoid contact sport and aspirin

327
Q

What is Von Willebrand Disease (VWD)?

A

An autosomal dominant condition where there is a deficiency, absence or malfunction of VWF leading to abnormal bleeding.

328
Q

What is the most common inherited cause of abnormal bleeding?

A

Von Willebrand Disease

329
Q

What is the presentation of VWD?

A

Hx of easy, prolonged or heavy bleeding:

Bleeding gums w/ bruising
Nose bleeds (Epistaxis)
Menorrhagia (heavy menstrual bleeding)

FHx of VWD.

330
Q

What is the diagnosis of VWD?

A

Hx or FHx of abnormal bleeding

Bleeding assessment tools

331
Q

What is the management of VWD?

A

Does not require day to day Tx

Tx is in response to major bleeding or trauma.

Tx:
Desmopressin can be used to stimulates the release of VWF
VWF can be infused
Factor VIII is often infused along with plasma-derived VWF

332
Q

What can be given to Women with VWD that suffer from heavy periods?

A

Tranexamic acid

333
Q

What is Rheumatic Fever?

A

Autoimmune disease that mostly occurs after a group A strep infection.
It causes joint pain and can affect other areas such as the heart (carditis) brain and skin.

334
Q

How would a patient with Rheumatic fever present?

A

Fever
Joint pain
Recent infection (sore throat/scarlet fever)
Chest pain
SOB

335
Q

What are some risk factors for rheumatic fever?

A

Infection
FHx of rheumatic fever
Overcrowded living.

336
Q

What are the first line investigations to diagnose rheumatic fever?

A

Blood tests:
ESR/CRP
WCC
Blood cultures

ECG - Shows heart block
ECHO - if mitral regurgitation murmur

337
Q

What is the Treatment for Rheumatic fever?

A

Benzylpenicillin

Diuretic +/- ACEi if heart failure present

338
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

Glandular Fever caused by EBV infection.

339
Q

What conditions are associated with EBV?

A

Burkitts Lymphoma
Hodgekin’s Lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma

340
Q

Who is typically presenting with infectious mononucleosis?

How is infectious. mononucleosis spread?

A

15-24yr olds

EBV spread via saliva or body fluids

341
Q

What is the Diagnostic investigations for glandular fever?

A

FBC
Blood film - Atypical Lymphocytes

EBV serology
EBV PCR

342
Q

What is the management of glandular fever?

A

Generally self limiting
Supportive therapy

Good hydration and analgesics

343
Q

What is Immune thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?

A

Autoimmune destruction of platelets (IgG)

344
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ITP?

A

Autoimmune destruction of platelets (IgG antibodies to platelets and megakaryocytes)

Often triggered by viral infection or malignancy

The IgG antibodies coat the platelets which are then removed by binding to Fc receptors on macrophages

345
Q

What are the symptoms of ITP?

A

Purpuric rash - red spots on skin caused by bleeding underneath

easy bruising
Epistaxis - nosebleeds
menorrhagia
Gum bleeding

346
Q

What are the investigations for ITP?

A

FBC
Thrombocytopenia – low levels of platelets

Increased megakaryocytes on BM examination
May have detection of platelet autoantibodies

347
Q

What is the treatment of ITP?

A

1st Line:
Prednisolone + IV IgG

2nd Line:
Splenectomy

348
Q

What is Thrombotic Thrombocytic purpura (TTP)?

Why does it occur?

A

Extensive microvascular clots form in small vessels in the body, resulting in a low platelet count (due to platelet consumption) and organ damage

Occurs due to deficiency of ADAMTS 13, a protease which is normally responsible for degradation of VWF

349
Q

What are the symptoms of Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura?

A

Purpuric rash
AKI
Haemolytic anaemia
Easy bruising
Fever
Neurological Sx

350
Q

What are the investigations for Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Schistocytes
ADAMTS-13 deficiency
Coagulation screen - normal but lactate
dehydrogenase raised as a sign of haemolysis

351
Q

How is Thrombotic thrombocytic purpura treated?

A

Plasmapharesis (plasma exchange to remove ADAMTS 13 Ab)

2nd line - IV methylprednisolone + Rituximab

352
Q

What is Prothrombin time and INR?

What is the normal range?

A

PT - how long it takes for the blood to clot.
INR - international normalised ratio

PT range = 11-13.5 seconds
INR = 0.8-1.1

353
Q

What is the aPTT test?

A

Partial thromboplastin time (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)
Normal range is 21-35 seconds.
When higher than normal this suggests there may be bleeding or liver disease etc.

354
Q

Explain the process of Heamostasis?

A

Prothrombin (II) 🡪 thrombin (IIa) – converted by factor Xa

Thrombin function:
Converts fibrinogen 🡪 fibrin
Activates XIII into XIIIa
Positive feedback effect on further thrombin production

Fibrin is an essential component of a blood clot

355
Q

What is the Intrinsic, Extrinsic and Common clotting cascade?

A

Intrinsic:
Factor XII -> XIIa
Factor XI -> XIa
Factor IX -> IXa
Factor VIII -> VIIIa

Extrinsic:
Tissue factor (III) + VII –> VIIa

Common:
Factor X -> Xa
Factor V –> Va
Prothrombin to Thrombin
Fibrinogen to Fibrin

356
Q

What factors does Warfarin inhibit?

A

10, 9, 7 ,2

357
Q

What factors do Heparin/NOACs inhibit?

A

Xa

358
Q

What is the Fibrinolytic System?

A

Plasminogen 🡪 Plasmin via TPA
Plasmin cuts fibrin into fragments
This prevents blood clots from growing and becoming problematic

359
Q

What clotting factors is the liver responsible for and what vitamin is required for this?

A

10, 9, 7, 2
Vitamin K

360
Q

What does a reticulocyte tell you?

A

Reticulocyte count – enables you to see how quickly the bone marrow is producing new RBCs. Reticulocytes are immature RBCs

Low reticulocyte count – indicative that something is preventing RBCs from being produced e.g. haematinic deficiency

High reticulocyte count – indicative that RBCs are being lost or destroyed (e.g. bleeding/haemolytic anaemia). New RBS production is increased to act asa compensatory mechanism

361
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease

362
Q

What are some differential Diagnoses for Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease

363
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy (crisis) (DIC)?

A

Wide spread clotting and bleeding (as all platelets and CFs used for blood clots)

Haemostasis is out of control. get areas of lots of small clots which can lead to organ Ischaemia.

As lots of Platelets and Clotting Factors are used up, other areas can start to bleed and these do not clot.

I.e. there will be initial thrombosis followed by bleeding tendency

364
Q

When does DIC occur?

A

Occurs when the balance between forming new clots and breaking down clots is tipped in favour of clots 🡪 widespread clotting (organ ischaemia) 🡪 depleted clotting factors 🡪 bleeding

365
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DIC?

A

Wide spread clotting and bleeding (as all platelets and CFs used for blood clots)

Involves widespread generation of fibrin clots within the blood vessels caused by initiation of coagulation pathway due to tissue damage/ promotion of clotting.

There is also consumption of platelets/coagulation factors as well as secondary activation of fibrinolysis 🡪 production of Fibrin and Fibrinogen Degradation Products (FDPs) which contribute to bleeding by inhibiting fibrin polymerisation

I.e. there will be initial thrombosis followed by bleeding tendency

366
Q

What are the causes of DIC?

A

Massive activation of clotting cascade

Malignancy – leukaemia t(15:17) translocation
Obstetrics causes – amniotic fluid embolism and abruptio placentae
Septicaemia
Trauma
Infections - meningitis
Haemolytic transfusion reactions
Liver disease

367
Q

How does DIC present?

A

Varies from no bleeding at all to complete haemostatic failure
Bleeding typically occurs from venepuncture/IV sites and the nose and mouth
Bruising
SOB
Haemoptysis

368
Q

How is DIC Diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis suggested by history (severe sepsis, trauma, malignancy), clinical presentation and presence of severe thrombocytopenia
Prolonged PTT, APTT and Thrombin Time (TT)
Decreased fibrinogen and increased FDPs
Blood film – shows fragmented red cells

369
Q

What is the treatment for DIC?

A

Treat underlying cause – maintain blood volume and tissue perfusion
May need transfusions – platelets, RBCs and Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
Activated C protein

Phase 2a (24 decks)

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