Cardiology COPY COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is the equation for Stroke volume?

A

EDV-ESV

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2
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

CO = HR X SV

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3
Q

What is the equation for Blood pressure?

A

CO X TPR

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4
Q

What is the equation for pule pressure?

A

Systolic - Diastolic

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5
Q

What is the equation for mean arterial pressure?

A

Diastolic pressure + 1/3(PP)

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6
Q

What is the equation for ejection fraction?

A

SV/EDV

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7
Q

What is Ohms Law?

A

Flow = pressure gradient / R

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8
Q

What is the equation for Poiseuille Law?

A

R = 8lu/pi x r^4

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9
Q

Define Preload

A

Volume of blood in ventricles immediately before contraction. The volume of blood that causes the degree of stretch on the heart muscle for contraction

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10
Q

Define Afterload?

A

Force against which the ventricles must contract to expel the blood out of the ventricles

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11
Q

Define Contractility?

A

Inherent strength and vigor of the hearts contraction during systole

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12
Q

Define Elasticity?

A

The ability of the heart to return to its normal shape after stretching by recoiling once the force has been removed

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13
Q

Define compliance?

A

How easily the heart chamber will stretch when it is filled with a volume of blood

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14
Q

Define Resistance?

A

The force that must be overcome to push blood through the circulatory system

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15
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

Inflammatory process characterised by hardened plaques within the intima of a vessel wall. Eventually, plaque will either occlude vessel lumen resulting in a restriction of blood flow (angina) or rupture (thrombus formation - death).

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16
Q

Where do atherosclerotic plaques often occur?

A

Peripheral and Coronary arteries!

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17
Q

How are atherosclerotic plaques distributed in these arteries?

A

Focally distributed - governed by haemodynamic factors. For example, changes in flow/ turbulence (e.g. bifurcations)

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18
Q

What is neointima?

A

As the intima grows (new intima)

Changes in blood flow altering the phenotype of endothelial cells.

Altered gene expression in key; endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, macrophages and fibroblasts

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19
Q

What makes up the structure of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Lipid
Necrotic core
Connective tissue
Fibrous cap
Lymphocytes

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20
Q

What are the 5 main stages of atherosclerosis progression over the course of the condition?

A

Fatty Streak
Intermediate Lesions
Fibrous Plaques (advanced lesions)
Plaque Rupture
Plaque Erosion

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21
Q

What is the fatty streak stage of atherosclerosis?

A

Earliest lesion of atherosclerosis < 10 years:

  • Scavenger receptors take up lipids in intima layer of vessel wall
  • Aggregations of lipid-laden macrophages (Foam Cells) and T lymphocytes within the intima layer of the vessel wall.
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22
Q

What is the intermediate lesion stage of atherosclerosis?

A

Lesion progresses to comprise layers of;

Foam cells
Vascular smooth muscle cells
T lymphocytes
Adhesion and aggregation of platelets to vessel walls
Extracellular Lipid Pools

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23
Q

What is the fibrous plaque stage of atherosclerosis?

A
  • Growth of the atheroma.
  • Covered by dense fibrous caps made of ECM proteins including; collagen (strength), elastin (flexibility) - these are laid down by SMCs
  • Impedes blood flow and prone to rupture
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24
Q

What is the plaque rupture stage of atherosclerosis?
Why might atherosclerotic plaques Rupture?

A
  • Plaque is constantly growing and receding - fibrous cap has to be resorbed and redeposited in order to be maintained
  • If balance shifted in favour inflammatory conditions (e.g. increased enzyme activity) the cap becomes weak and plaque ruptures.
  • Exposure of basement membrane, collagen, necrotic tissue and haemorrhage of vessels within plaque causes thrombus formation and vessel occlusion
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25
What is the plaque erosion stage of atherosclerosis?
- Small early lesions - Fibrous cap does not disrupt - Luminal surface underneath the clot may not have enough endothelium present but is smooth muscle rich - Prominent lipid core
26
What are the stages of atherosclerotic plaque formation?
1️⃣ Initiation of inflammation and endothelial cell dysfunction 2️⃣ Stimulus for adhesion of leukocytes - release of chemo-attractants 3️⃣ Dysfunctional endothelial cells allow the transmigration of LDLs into the tunica intima 4️⃣ Accumulation of LDLs tunica intima cause dysfuntional endothelial cells to release ROS and metalloproteases which function to oxidised the LDL → activated oxLDL 5️⃣ The activation of oxLDLs causes endothelial cells to express adhesion receptors for leukcocytes on their surface, leading to uptake of LDLs and monocytes 6️⃣ Surface of macrophages contain a scavenger receptor which facilitates the uptake of oxidised LDLs to form a foam cells 7️⃣ Foam cells have multiple pathophysiological functions: - Release chemokines to attract more macrophages - Release IGF-1 into tunica media to promote migration of SMCs (from media to intima) that increase collagen synthesis leading to the hardening of the atherosclerotic plaque 8️⃣ During this process, foam cells will die → releasing lipid content. This drives the growth of the plaque 9️⃣ Death of foam cells also causes release of contents which causes increased inflammation 🔟 T-cells also facilitate inflammation 🔟+ Excessive growth of the plaque causes it to rupture, leading to accumulation of the RBC, platelets and clotting factors → thrombosis
27
What initiates inflammation and leads to endothelial cell dysfunction in atherosclerosis?
Cholesterol/ high LDLs in the blood damages the endothelial cells ROS from inflammation.
28
What chemo attractant is released by the endothelium and what does this lead to?
Selectins cause leukocyte rolling and firm adhesion to the blood vessel walls.
29
What are the pathological functions of a foam cell?
Release chemokines and attract further macrophages to the tunica intima Release IGF-1 into the tunica media to promote migration of Smooth muscle cells from the tunica media into the tunica intima which increases the collagen synthesis and leads to the hardening of the atherosclerotic plaque.
30
What is a foam cell?
A macrophage that has been up take into the tunica intima that expresses scavenger receptors that will uptake oxidised LDLs This uptake forms a foam cell.
31
What is a foam cell?
A macrophage that has been up take into the tunica intima that expresses scavenger receptors that will uptake oxidised LDLs This uptake forms a foam cell.
32
What does the death of the foam cell release in atherosclerosis?
DNA material that attracts neutrophils Proinflammatory cytokines ROS These all lead to increased inflammation.
33
What inflammatory cytokines are found in atherosclerotic plaques?
- IL1, 6 and 8. - IFN-γ - strong proinflammatory cytokine - TGF-β - involves in wound healing - Chemokines (e.g. Monocyte Chemoattractant Protein-1)
34
How can Atherosclerosis (Coronary Heart Disease) be treated?
Percutaneous Coronary Intervention Drugs
35
What is Percutaneous Coronary Intervention?
Non-surgical procedure that uses a catheter to place a stent into a narrowed blood vessel
36
What is Re-stenosis?
The recurrence of abnormal narrowing of an artery or valve after corrective therapy
37
What drugs are used to reduce restenosis in patients who have undergone corrective surgery?
Taxol and Sirolimus - work by reducing SMC proliferation after placement of stent. The stent is washed (eluted) with these drugs
38
How does Aspirin help to treat CHD?
Irreversible inhibitor of platelet cyclo-oxygenase to prevent Thromboxane A2 production and further platelet aggregation
39
How does Clopidogrel/ Ticagrelor help to treat CHD?
Inhibitors of the stimulatory P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets preventing platelet response amplification
40
How does Statins help to treat CHD?
Inhibit HMG CoA reductase - reduces cholesterol synthesis
41
What inflammation-causing cytokine is targeted using drugs alongside statin therapy?
IL-1
42
What drug therapy is used as an alternative to statins if ineffective or not tolerated?
PCSK9 inhibitors
43
Give 5 Modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis.
1. Smoking. 2. High levels of LDL's. 3. Obesity. 4. Low exercise 5. Diabetes. 6. Hypertension. 7. Alcohol consumption
44
Which histological layer of the artery may be thinned by an atheromatous plaque?
Tunica Media
45
What is the precursor for atherosclerosis.
Fatty streaks.
46
What are the functions of chemoattractants?
Chemoattractants signal to leukocytes. Leukocytes accumulate and migrate into vessel walls -> cytokine release e.g. IL-1, IL-6 -> inflammation!
47
Describe the process of leukocyte recruitment.
1. Capture. 2. Rolling. 3. Slow rolling. 4. Adhesion. 5. Trans-migration.
48
Define atherogenesis.
The development of an atherosclerotic plaque.
49
What is the key principle behind the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
It is an inflammatory process!
50
What are Acute Coronary Syndromes?
Spectrum of acute cardiac conditions ranging from unstable angina to varying degrees of MI
51
What is the most common causes of Acute Coronary Syndromes?
Atherosclerotic rupture and consequential arterial thrombosis!
52
What is the mainstay treatment for ACS? why is this?
Anti-platelet medications: Aspirin Clopidogrel Ticagrelor Since a thrombus formed in a fast flowing artery are mostly made up of platelets.
53
Name some less common causes of Acute Coronary Syndromes?
Coronary vasospasm without plaque rupture Drug abuse (amphetamines, cocaine) Spontaneous Coronary Artery Dissection
54
What drugs can cause ACS?
Amphetamines Cocaine
55
What are the types of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?
Unstable Angina ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)
56
Explain how Spontaneous Coronary Artery Dissection can lead to Acute Coronary Syndrome?
tear in lining, lining comes away from the wall of the artery and blocks vessel.
57
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of ACS?
Atherosclerosis -> plaque rupture -> platelet aggregation -> thrombosis formation -> ischaemia -> hypoxia of cells -> angina infarction -> necrosis of cells -> permanent heart muscle damage and ACS.(MI)
58
How would you Diagnose someone presenting with ACS symptoms such as Chest pain?
ECG: If there is ST elevation or new left bundle branch block the diagnosis is STEMI. If there is no ST elevation then perform troponin blood tests: If there are raised troponin levels and other ECG changes (ST depression or T wave inversion or pathological Q waves) the diagnosis is NSTEMI If troponin levels are normal and the ECG does not show pathological changes the diagnosis is either: unstable angina Another cause such as musculoskeletal chest pain
59
What is Cardiac Troponin?
Protein complex functioning to regulate actin and myosin contraction
60
What would a rise in Troponin suggest?
Consistent with myocardial ischaemia as the proteins are released from the ischaemic muscle. However they are non specific so a raised troponin does not automatically mean ACS
61
Why is Cardiac Troponin relevant in diagnosing ACS?
Highly sensitive marker for cardiac muscle injury - increased levels is very indicative of myocardial cause
62
What is important to remember about Cardiac Troponin when being used for diagnosis?
not specific for ACS → also increases in conditions that causes stress in myocardium (e.g. PE, gram negative sepsis, myocarditis)
63
Give some other potential causes of raised troponins?
Chronic renal failure Sepsis Myocarditis Aortic dissection Pulmonary Embolism
64
Define angina.
Angina is a type of Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD) characterised by chest pain It is an imbalance of O2 supply/demand mismatch to the heart due to reduced blood flow from a blockage
65
What is the most common cause of angina?
Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to atherosclerosis.
66
What are the different types of Angina Pectoris?
Stable Unstable Decubitus Crescendo Angina Prinzmetals's Vasospastic Microvascular Angina
67
What type of angina is associated with ACS?
Unstable Angina
68
What is Unstable angina?
An acute coronary syndrome (ACS) that is defined by the absence of biochemical evidence of myocardial damage but characterised by chest pain at rest/minimal exertion
69
Give 5 possible causes of angina.
1. Narrowed coronary artery = impairment of blood flow e.g. atherosclerosis. 2. Increased distal resistance = LV hypertrophy. 3. Reduced O2 carrying capacity e.g. anaemia. 4. Coronary artery spasm. 5. Thrombosis.
70
Give 5 modifiable risk factors for angina.
1. Smoking. 2. Diabetes. 3. High cholesterol (LDL). 4. Obesity/sedentary lifestyle. 5. Hypertension.
71
Give 3 non-modifiable risk factors for angina.
1. Increasing age. 2. Gender - Males 3. Family history/genetics.
72
What are the symptoms associated with ACS?
Central, Crushing chest pain associated with: Nausea and vomiting Sweating and clamminess Feeling of impending doom Shortness of breath Palpitations Pain radiating to jaw or arms
73
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of angina that results from atherosclerosis.
On exertion there is increased O2 demand. Coronary blood flow is obstructed by an atherosclerotic plaque -> myocardial ischaemia -> angina.
74
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of angina that results from anaemia.
On exertion there is increased O2 demand. In someone with anaemia there is reduced O2 transport -> myocardial ischaemia -> angina.
75
How do blood vessels try and compensate for increased myocardial demand during exercise.
When myocardial demand increases e.g. during exercise, microvascular resistance drops and flow increases!
76
Why are blood vessels unable to compensate for increased myocardial demand in someone with CV disease?
In CV disease: Epicardial resistance is high meaning microvascular resistance has to fall at rest to supply myocardial demand at rest. When this person exercises, the microvascular resistance can't drop anymore and flow can't increase to meet metabolic demand = angina!
77
What percentage of stenosis is associated with stable angina?
70% occlusion of the artery. This still allows enough blood flow through the artery at rest.
78
What is Stable angina?
Occlusion of an artery (70%) leading to ischaemia of the myocardial tissue resulting in chest pain. At rest enough blood can still flow through the artery to meet the demands of the tissue. Upon exercise or exertion, the tissue requires more oxygen and therefore a greater blood flow at which point the flow through the stenosed artery is not adequate enough and hence results in chest pain upon exertion.
79
what is the most common type of angina?
Stable angina
80
What is the most commonly affected region of the heart in stable angina?
Subendocardium. The coronary arteries struggle to perfuse the deeper layers of the myocardium either due to coronary artery stenosis or LV hypertrophy resulting in ischaemia to this portion of the tissue.
81
What are the Symptoms of angina?
Central Crushing chest Pain on exertion/rest /emotion/cold/heavy meals. May radiate to one or both arms, neck, jaws or teeth. Worsens with time Other Symptoms: Dyspnoea, nausea, sweatiness, faintness
82
What is the difference between symptoms of angina in Stable, unstable and decubitus types?
Stable angina occurs in periods of roughly 20 mins upon exertion or exercise. Unstable angina can be continuously painful at rest or even minimal exertion. Decubitus angina causes pain when lying down flat.
83
What is the difference pathophysiologically between stable and unstable angina?
Both are commonly caused by atherosclerotic plaque causing obstruction of a coronary artery. In unstable angina, the plaque may rupture causing blood to leak out and a secondary thrombus to form which occludes the artery further creating an even narrower lumen for blood to flow through.
84
What is a key distinction between angina and MI?
Angina results in pain due to myocardial ischaemia where the heart tissue is starved of oxygen but is still alive. MI is when the ischaemia has resulted in infarction that has led to the death of the heart tissue. Angina is therefore reversible and MI is not.
85
What is Prinzmetals Vasospastic angina?
angina where patients may or may not have atherosclerosis of the coronary vessels. instead ischaemia occurs due to vasospasms of the coronary arteries where they constrict so much they can cause ischaemia. These can occur at any time not just on rest or on exertion.
86
What is the mechanism that causes prinzmetals angina?
Not clearly understood but likely due to vasoconstriction factors such as Thromboxane A2 release
87
What layers of the heart are affected in Prinzmetals angina?
Transmural Ischaemia All layers of the heart wall supplied by the coronary arteries are affected.
88
What ECG reading would be shown on stable angina?
AT rest: Normal On exertion: ST segment depression due to subendocardium ischaemia.
89
What ECG reading would be shown in prinzmetals angina?
ST segment elevation due to transmural ischaemia.
90
How can symptoms of stable angina be relieved?
Relieved upon rest (after approx 5 mins) OR Symptoms relieved by GTN spray
91
What cardiac enzymes are used to aid the diagnosis of ACS?
Cardiac troponin (Troponin T and I): Released into the blood when cardiac muscle is damaged. Highly sensitive but not specific. Creatine Kinase - MB (CK-MB): Helpful to determine re-infarction as levels should drop back to normal 36-72 hours after.
92
What is the progression of cardiac troponins following an MI?
Rise within 3-12 hours Peak at 24-48 hours Return to baseline by 5-14 days <14g/l normal = no MI, 14-30 ng/l = possible MI, >30ng/l = definite MI
93
Are troponin levels elevated in angina?
Often they are normal since the ischaemia has not killed the cells and thus the troponin have not been released sometimes they may be elevated
94
Describe the primary prevention of angina.
1. Risk factor modification. 2. Low dose aspirin.
95
Describe the secondary prevention of angina.
1. Risk factor modification. 2. Pharmacological therapies for symptom relief and to reduce the risk of CV events. 3. Interventional therapies e.g. PCI.
96
Name 3 symptom relieving pharmacological therapies that might be used in someone with angina.
1. Beta blockers. 2. Nitrates e.g. GTN spray. 3. Calcium channel blockers.
97
Describe the action of beta blockers.
Beta blockers are beta 1 specific. They antagonise sympathetic activation and so are negatively chronotropic and inotropic. Myocardial work is reduced and so is myocardial demand = symptom relief.
98
Give 4 side effects of beta blockers.
1. Bradycardia. 2. Tiredness. 3. Erectile dysfunction. 4. Cold peripheries.
99
When might beta blockers be contraindicated?
They might be contraindicated in someone with asthma or in someone who is bradycardic.
100
Give an example of a cardio-specific beta blocker
Atenolol
101
Describe the action of nitrates in GTN spray
Nitrates e.g. GTN spray are venodilators. Venodilators -> reduced venous return -> reduced pre-load -> reduced myocardial work and myocardial demand.
102
Describe the action of Ca2+ channel blockers.
Ca2+ blockers are arterodilators and negative Chronotropic/ionotropic agents: Reduced O2 demand -> reduced BP -> reduced afterload -> reduced myocardial demand.
103
Name 2 drugs that might be used in someone with angina or in someone at risk of angina to improve prognosis.
1. Aspirin. 2. Statins.
104
How does aspirin work?
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX. You get reduced TXA2 synthesis and so platelet aggregation is reduced. Caution: Gastric ulcers!
105
What are statins used for?
They reduce the amount of LDL in the blood.
106
What ECG reading would be shown on unstable angina?
May be normal May have some ST depression/T wave inversion/depression
107
What ECG reading would be shown on unstable angina?
May be normal May have some ST depression/T wave inversion
108
What is the treatment for Stable angina?
Immediate Symptomatic Relief - GTN sublingual stray Long Term Symptomatic Relief - Beta Blocker (Atenolol) or Calcium Channel Blocker (Amlodipine) Secondary Prevention of CVD: Aspirin Atorvastatin ACE inhibitor Already on a beta blocker
109
What are the investigations for stable angina?
Clinical Hx of pain / relief ECG : Rest - normal Exertion - ST depression/Flat T waves CT Angiography - Stenosed atherosclerotic artery
110
What treatment should be considered for angina if pharmacology is unsuccessful?
Referral for revascularisation Through PCI or CABG
111
What is revascularisation?
Revascularisation might be used in someone with angina. It restores the patent coronary artery and increases blood flow.
112
Name 2 types of revascularisation.
1. PCI. 2. CABG.
113
Give 2 advantages and 1 disadvantage of PCI.
1. Less invasive. 2. Convenient and acceptable. 3. High risk of restenosis.
114
Give 1 advantage and 2 disadvantages of CABG.
1. Good prognosis after surgery. 2. Very invasive. 3. Long recovery time.
115
How is unstable angina diagnosed?
History ECG - may present as ST-segment depression, transient ST-segment elevation, or T-wave inversion No elevation in troponin - unstable angina not associated with damage to the heart
116
What is the Clinical Classification of Unstable Angina?
- Cardiac chest pain at rest or during minimal exertion - Severe and of new onset cardiac chest pain - Cardiac chest pain with crescendo pattern (distinctly more severe, prolonged, or frequent than before)
117
Define Myocardial Infarction?
Necrosis of cardiac tissue due to prolonged myocardial ischaemia due to COMPLETE occlusion of an artery by thrombus.
118
What are the types of MI?
Non-ST Elevated Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) ST Elevated Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) Silent MI
119
What would the ECG for a STEMI look like?
ST elevation and tall T waves Will produce pathological Q waves some tome after an MI There may be a new LBBB in larger MIs (WiLLiaM) V1 – W shape V6 – M shape
120
What would the ECG for a NSTEMI look like?
ST depression T wave inversion Q waves may be present hours/days after infarct (often a retrospective diagnosis)
121
What heart sound signs may be heard in an MI?
4th heart sound – due to forceful contraction of the atria to overcome a stiff or dysfunctional ventricle Pansystolic murmur – due to papillary muscle dysfunction or rupture
122
What is the difference in an NSTEMI and STEMI when caused by atherosclerosis?
NSTEMI occurs after a partial occlusion of major Coronary artery STEMI occurs after complete occlusion of a major Coronary artery.
123
What is the management plan for ACS that is not an STEMI?
Risk Factor modification: Stop smoking Lose weight Healthy diet Exercise Anti-platelet therapy: - Aspirin (300mg initially then 75mg daily) - Dual therapy with P2Y12 receptor inhibitors - Clopidogrel (300 mg initially then 75mg for 12 months), ticagrelor (180 mg initially then 90 mg twice daily) or prasugrel Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor for high risk patients (Abciximab) PCI (if risk assessment score (GRACE) is medium/high) and CABG Anti-coagulants: Heparin/LMWH e.g. enoxaparin has better efficacy than unfractionated heparin Fondaparinux Other Sx Control: Nitrates – GTN spray or IV infusion Beta blockers – bisoprolol Statins ACE inhibitors - Ramipril Calcium channel blockers (if beta blocker contraindicated) – amlodipine
124
What are the complications of ACS?
DARTHVADER: Death Arrhythmias Ruptured septum Tamponade HF Valve disease Aneurysm of ventricle Dressler’s syndrome – pericarditis and pericardial effusion after 2-12 weeks Embolism Reoccurrence of ACS
125
What is the acute treatment for ACS (STEMI/NSTEMI)?
MONAC: Morphine Oxygen (if Sats < 94%) Nitrates (GTN) Aspirin (300mg) Clopidogrel (dual antiplatelet)
126
What is the treatment for an NSTEMI following acute treatment of ACS?
GRACE score: low risk - monitor Med-High risk - angiogram / PCI
127
What is the treatment of choice for STEMI?
PCI May also have thrombolysis (IV alteplase) or CABG
128
What is the long term treatment/Secondary prevention management following ACS?
6 As Aspirin (75g once daily) Another antiplatelet - Ticagrelor/Clopidogrel Atorvastatin (80mg once dail) ACE inhibitors (ramipril) Atenolol (or another bB) Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone) in those with clinical heart failure
129
What is Dressler's Syndrome?
Post myocardial infarction syndrome Occurs around 2-6 weeks post MI Localised immune response causing pericarditis.
130
What is the pathology of Dresslers Syndrome?
thought to be an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed as the myocardium recovers. It is characterised by a combination of fever, pleuritic pain, pericardial effusion and a raised ESR. It is treated with NSAIDs.
131
What are the complications of MI?
DREAD: Death Rupture of the heart septum/papillary muscles Edema (causing heart failure) Arrythmia and Aneurysm Dressler's Syndrome
132
What are the subsequent complications from rupture of the ventricular septum, LV wall or papillary muscles due to MI?
Ventricular Septum - Right HF LV wall - Cardiac tamponade Papillary Muscles - Mitral regurgitation/prolapse
133
What are the time periods of the consequences of an acute MI?
Immediate: Ventricular Fibrillation (cardiac arrest) - most common cause of death post MI <24hrs: Cardiogenic shock Bradyarrythmias 3-5 days: Mitral regurgitation - papillary muscle rupture Ventricular septal rupture 2-6 weeks: Dressler syndrome
134
What are the differential diagnoses for an MI?
MI Stable/unstable angina Pericarditis Aortic aneurysm Endocarditis Pulmonary Embolism Pneumothorax
135
What heart area and ECG leads correspond to: Left Coronary Artery LAD Circumflex Right Coronary Artery
Left Coronary Artery: Heart area - Anterolateral ECG leads - I, aVL, V3-V6 LAD: Heart area - Anterior ECG leads - V1-4 Circumflex: Heart area - Lateral ECG leads - I aVL, V5-6 Right Coronary Artery: Heart area - Inferior ECG leads - II, III, aVF
136
What is the Epidemiology for an MI?
600/100,000 for men. 200/100,000 for women
137
Name some of the function of platelets during arterial thrombosis
- Procoagulant activity; release of *thrombin* - Dense granule secretion; contributes to platelet activation - Alpha granule secretion; contributes to coagulation and inflammation - Platelet-fibrin clot; fibrin acts as glue that keeps the thrombus growing and allow it block of arteries to cause MI.
138
Give a brief overview of the process by which platelets cause the platelet plug?
(1) Shear flow (2) Initial adhesion GPIb/VWF (3) Rolling GPIb/VWF/α2β1/collagen (4) Stable adhesion activation/aggregation GPVI, GPIIb/IIIa (5) Platelets are activated by ADP (vai P2Y12R), causing them to change shape, aggregate and seal off the endothelial breach
139
What combined therapy is used to manage patients with ACS?
Aspirin, P2Y12 Inhibitors and GPIIb/IIIa antagonists
140
Give some examples of P2Y12 inhibitors?
Clopidogrel Ticagrelor Prasugrel
141
What is a major side effect of P2Y12 inhibitors?
Increases risk of bleeding! Serious bleeding must subside prior to administration and risk of thrombosis vs. risk of bleeding must be monitored throughout use.
142
Why are GPIIb/IIIa Antagonists very useful in STEMI pateints undergoing PCI?
Cover for delayed absorption of oral P2Y12 Inhibitors occuring due to opiates delaying gastric emptying
143
What is the role of anticoagulants used in the treatment of ACS?
Targets formation and/or activity of thrombin; inhibiting both fibrin formation and platelet activation
144
What anticoagulant is commony used during Non-STEMI ACS?
Fondaparinux (a pentasaccharide) is used prior to coronary angiography
145
What anticoagulants are used during PCI?
Full Dose: Heparin (unfractionated or LMWH) Bivalirudin
146
What is a Silent MI?
When a diabetic patient may not experience typical chest pain during an acute coronary syndrome
147
What umbrella term does Stable Angina come under? What umbrella Term does Unstable Angina come under?
Ischaemic Heart Disease (IHD) Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)
148
What determines if Angina is stable?
Angina is stable if symptoms are always relieved by rest or GTN (glyceryl Trinitrate) spray.
149
What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for Stable Angina?
CT Coronary Angiography
150
Name some causes of oxygen supply reduction associated with IHD?
- Common: anaemia and hypoxaemia - Uncommon: polycythemia, hypothermia, hypovolaemia, hypervolaemia
151
Name some causes of oxygen demand increase associated with IHD?
- Common: hypertension, tachyarrhythmia, valvular heart disease - Uncommon: hyperthyroidism, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
152
Give some risk factors associated with IHD?
- Age - Smoking - Family history - Diabetes mellitus - Hyperlipidemia - Hypertension - Kidney disease - Obesity - Physical inactivity - Stress
153
What are the three major physiological factors lending to oxygen mismatch associated with IHD?
- Impairment of blood flow by proximal arterial stenosis (e.g. atherosclerosis) - Increased distal resistance (e.g. left ventricular hypertrophy) - Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of blood (e.g. anaemia)
154
What is Ohms Law?
Flow = Change in pressure / Resistance
155
What is Poiseuille's Equation?
Q = R^4
156
How does Poiseuille's Law relate to CCS?
Relationship between flow, pressure and resistance; combination of Ohm's law and vessel resistance equation. Radius has to fall below 75% before symptoms
157
What are some differential diagnoses of chest pain?
Cardiac – ACS, Aortic dissection, pericarditis, myocarditis Respiratory – PE, pneumonia, pleurisy, lung cancer MSK – rib fracture, chest trauma, costochondritis (inflammation of the cartilage between the ribs and sternum) GORD Oesophageal spasm Anxiety/panic attacks
158
How would you discuss a patients pain when taking a history for IHD?
SOCRATES: Site Onset Character Radiation Associated symptoms Time/Duration Exacerbating features Severity
159
What characteristics of chest pain suggest ischaemic cardiac pain?
- Heavy, tight pain - Located centrally - Provoked by cold weather, big meals, exertion - Relieved by rest, GTN spray - Associated SOB
160
What is exercise testing?
Patient undertakes mild exercise on a treadmill and ECG is run simultaneously - any abnormailites, refer patient to catheterisation lab
161
What is a Perfusion/ Myoview scan?
IV radio-labelled agent travels to the coronary arteries - areas of darkness signify a blockage.
162
What are Psychosocial factors?
Factors influencing psychological responses (cognitive; behavioural; emotional) to the social environment and pathophysiological changes
163
What is a Coronary Prone Behaviour Pattern?
Coronary prone behaviour is the collection of behaviours and attitudes associated with heart disorders especially coronary heart disease and cardiovascular disorders.
164
Give some examples of personality traits associated with Coronary Prone Behaviour Patterns?
- Aggressiveness/Anger (biggest risk factor) - Ambition - Competitiveness - Hostility (biggest risk factor) - Impatience - Sense of time urgency - Need for achievement
165
Give some psychosocial factors that increase the risk for CHD?
Depression and Anxiety Low quantity and quality of social support High demanding jobs/low control of jobs
166
What are the layers of the pericardium?
Outer Fibrous layer - Continuous with the central tendon of the Diaphragm Serous layer: Outer Parietal - lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium Inner Visceral - forms the outer layer of the heart (Epicardium)
167
What is found between the parietal and Visceral pericardium? What is the Function of this?
Pericardial cavity: Contains 50ml of serous fluid to minimise the friction generated when the heart contracts
168
Which great vessels are Contained within the pericardium?
Roots of the great vessels: Aortal Pulmonary Artery Pulmonary Veins SVC IVC
169
What are the main functions of the pericardium?
- **Fixes the heart** in the mediastinum and limits its motion. - **Prevents overfilling** of the heart. The relatively inextensible fibrous layer of the pericardium limits the filling pressure and volume of the heart - **Lubrication**. A thin film of fluid between the two layers of the serous pericardium reduces the friction generated by the heart as it moves within the thoracic cavity - **Protection from infection**. The fibrous pericardium serves as a physical barrier between the muscular body of the heart and adjacent organs prone to infection, such as the lungs.
170
What is the purpose of the small reserve volume associated with the pericardial sac?
Volume of pericardial fluid changes based on the physiological state of the heart.
171
What is Cardiac Tamponade?
Reduction in cardiac output due to a raised intrapericardial pressure secondary to a pericardial effusion. As there is a greater pressure, the heart chambers cannot expand during diastole reducing SV and CO
172
What are some signs associated with cardiac tamponade?
Beck's Triad Pulsus Paradoxus Tachycardia and Hypotension Soft heart sounds
173
What is Chronic pericardial effusion?
Slow accumulation of fluid allowing for adaptation of the parietal pericardium
174
Why does Chronic Pericardial Effusion rarely cause Cardiac Tamponade?
Increased compliance reduces the effect on diastolic filling and therefore slow accumulating effusion does not often cause tamponade.
175
Define Pericardial Effusion?
Accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial cavity; the pericardial fluid contains blood components such as fibrin, RBCs and WBCs
176
Define Acute Pericarditis?
Inflammation of the pericardium commonly due to viral infection.
177
What are the different types of Pericarditis?
Acute Chronic effusive Chronic Constrictive
178
Who is typically affected by pericarditis?
Males - 20-50yrs
179
What are some of the main causes of pericarditis?
Infection - Coxsackie Virus Dressler's Syndrome Autoimmune Neoplastic Metabolic Traumatic Iatrogenic - PCI
180
What are some infectious causes of pericarditis?
HEAP: Herpes virus Enterovirus (Coxsackie) Adenovirus Parovirus
181
What are some Autoimmune causes of Pericarditis?
Sjogren's Syndrome SLE Rheumatoid Arthritis Scleroderma Systemic Vasculitides
182
What is Constrictive Pericarditis?
persistent inflammation of acute pericarditis causes the heart to be encased with a rigid fibrotic calcified pericardial sac which prevents adequate diastolic filling of the ventricles
183
How is Pericarditis diagnosed?
ECG: (diagnostic) - PeRicardiTiS (PR dep and ST elev) Concave Saddle Shaped ST elevation (in all leads) PR depression ECHO - exclude pericardial effusion/tamponade CXR - Bottle water silhouette FBC - increased WCC Chest Pain ESR/CRP - High ESR may suggest aetiology Pericardial Rub
184
What is the Pathology of Pericarditis?
Pericardium becomes acutely inflamed, with pericardial vascularisation and infiltration with polymorphonuclear leukocytes A fibrinous reaction frequently results in exudate and adhesions within the pericardial sac, and a serous or haemorrhagic effusion may develop If this fluid accumulation impacts the hearts function this is cardiac tamponade
185
What is the nature of the chest pain associated with pericarditis?
Sharp severe pleuritic chest pain - radiate to left shoulder due to phrenic nerve Pain is relieved when sitting forward Pain is exacerbated when lying flat or on inspiration
186
What are the symptoms of pericarditis?
Severe pleuritic chest pain Dyspnoea Cough/hiccups - phrenic involvement Systemic disturbance - weight loss, joint pain, fever
187
What is Pericardial Rub?
Extra heart sound heard upon auscultation One systolic - Two diastolic Sound resembles scratching.
188
What are the signs of effusion associated with pericarditis?
Pulsus paradoxus Kussmaul's Sign - rise in JVP on inspiration Tachycardia and Hypotension soft heart sounds - effusion obscures beat and sounds
189
What is Beck's Triad?
Three clinical signs associated with pericardial tamponade: - Falling BP - Hypotension (weak pulse or narrow pulse pressure) - Muffled heart sounds - Raised jugular venous pressure.
190
What are some important differential diagnoses of pericarditis?
MI - has no pericardial rub/not related to lying down (ST elevation not saddle shaped) pneumonia Aortic Dissection PE
191
What is the management for pericarditis?
Period of sedentary activity until resolution of inflammation NSAIDS (2 weeks) + Gastric Protection (PPI) Colchicine (3 weeks) Consider Abx for bacterial aetiology
192
What is the Mechanism of action of Colchicine?
Inhibits migrations of neutrophils to site of inflammation to reduce risk of reoccurrence
193
What are some complications of pericarditis?
Pericardial effusion - cardiac tamponade myocarditis constrictive pericarditis
194
How is Pericardial Effusion Diagnosed?
Echocardiogram - Echo free space around heart CXR – large heart ECG – low voltage QRS complexes and sinus tachycardia
195
How is cardiac tamponade diagnosed?
ECHO - diagnostic Beck's Triad ECG - varying QRS peaks CXR - big globular heart
196
How is Cardiac Tamponade treated?
Urgent pericardiocentesis
197
How is Pericardial Effusion treated?
treat underlying cause NSAIDS Colchicine
198
What is the main cause of pericardial effusion?
Typically pericarditis RF are all factors related to pericarditis
199
Name some environmental causes of Angina?
Emotional stress Large meals Cold weather
200
What is Poiseuille's Law?
Resistance = 8lu/pi r^4 l - length of vessel U - viscosity R - radius of vessel
201
What is Crescendo Angina?
patients present with angina over a period of months that gets progressively worse
202
What is the prevalence of Angina in men and women?
Men - 5% (5000/100,000) Women - 4% (4000/100,000)
203
What is a common side effect of nitrates in GTN?
headache due to vasodilation
204
What are some side effects of Calcium channel blockers?
postural hypotension Swollen ankles Flushing
205
What procedures may be involved in PCI?
Balloon Stent Angioplasty with Stent
206
What is the most common cause of Pericarditis?
Viral infection
207
What are the various causes of pericarditis??
Idiopathic Infection: Viral (most common) – HIV, Coxsackie B, echovirus Bacterial – TB Fungal – Histoplasma spp. Malignancy MI Autoimmune (immune system attacking the pericardium): Sjogren’s RA SLE Dressler syndrome (inflammation of pericardium after MI damaging it)
208
What is Pulsus Paradoxus?
An inspiratory decrease in systolic BP >10mmHg. (not a paradox but exaggeration of normal physiology) Caused by increased venous return to the right side of the heart during inspiration The increased RV volume therefore occupies more space within the rigid pericardium and impairs LV filling Paradox: On physical exam, beats are detected on cardiac auscultation during inspiration which cannot be palpated at the radial pulse. This is associated with increased JVP (kussmauls sign)
209
What is cardiomyopathy?
A disease of the heart muscle tissue where there is impaired ability to contract and/or there is electrical conduction dysfunction.
210
what is the epidemiology of cardiomyopathy?
Generally they are inherited conditions but can be acquired
211
What are the general risk factors for cardiomyopathy?
Family history Hypertension Obesity Diabetes Previous MI
212
What are the 3 major determinants of myocardial performance?
Preload - the volume of blood entering the ventricles that causes a greater stretch on the ventricles. Afterload - The pressure that must be overcome in order to eject blood from the ventricles during systole. Contractility
213
What are the main types of cardiomyopathy?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM) Arrhythmogenic Right/Left ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC/ALVC) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy.
214
What is the most common type of Cardiomyopathy?
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
215
What is Primary Cardiomyopathy?
Occurs when genes encoding proteins involved in the Myocardial tissue are dysfunctional resulting in poor/altered function myocardial cells and further pathology.
216
What is Secondary Cardiomyopathy?
Where the Myocardial cells structure and function becomes damaged through: Toxins inflammation infection systemic disorders
217
How are cardiomyopathies diagnosed?
ECHO Some with MRI Troponins may be elevated.
218
What is Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
Dilation/thinning of the ventricular walls (chamber enlargement) causing weakness of the ventricular myocardial cell contraction. Systolic function is impaired leading to poorly ejected blood Can result in biventricular congestive HF.
219
What are the Symptoms of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
Can be Asymptomatic May present as congestive heart failure. Dyspnoea Weakness Fatigue Oedema Raised JVP Pulmonary congestion Cardiomegaly 3rd/4th Heart Sounds
220
What is the Aetiology of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
Idiopathic - Gene mutations often in cytoskeletal genes. Infection Ischaemia Alcoholism Thyrotoxicosis
221
What is the epidemiology of DCM?
More common in males 35/100,000 Median age - 50
222
How is DCM diagnosed?
ECHO - Marked Dilatation CXR - Cardiomegaly, pulmonary oedema ECG - May have tachycardia/arrhythmias
223
What is the treatment for DCM?
Tx of underlying conditions - AF/ HF Bed rest Loop and Thiazide Diuretics for fluid overload ACEi Beta Blockers Heart transplant
224
What is Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Unexplained primary cardiac hypertrophy (often on LV wall and interventricular septum) leading to impaired diastolic filling and a reduced stroke volume. due to thick heart and reduced compliance
225
Which is the main issue in HOCM, Systole or diastole?
Diastole is main issue. Enlarged heart walls. ventricles are stiff LV does not relax properly and so diastolic filling is impaired.
226
What is the cause of HCM?
Autosomal Dominant mutation in Sarcomeric genes: Beta-myosin heavy chain Troponin T alpha tropomyosin.
227
What are the symptoms of HCM?
Most may be asymptomatic Variable dyspnoea Chest pain / palpitations Syncope Sudden death
228
What are the main complications of DCM?
Progressive Heart Failure Sudden Cardiac Death
229
What may be found upon examination of a patient with HCM?
Forceful Apex beat Late ejection systolic Murmur (crescendo-decrescendo similar to AS) S4 Heart sound - stiff ventricle so sound as blood hits non compliant wall. Jerky Carotid pulse Alpha wave in JVP.
230
What is the Epidemiology of HCM?
1/500 Men and black people more likely
231
What is the most common form of sudden cardiac death in the young population and atheletes?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
232
How is HCM diagnosed?
ECG - LVH, ST segment changes, DEEP T wave inversion CXR - variable, left atrial enlargement ECHO - large LV walls
233
What is the treatment of HCM?
Amiodarone - reduce risk of arrythmias and sudden death Treat chest pain: Beta blockers and CCB - Verapamil Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
234
What medication is contraindicated in HOCM?
Digoxin Digoxin can increase inotropy which may exacerbate heart symptoms in patients with HCM that have preserved systolic function
235
What is HOCM the most common cause of?
Most common cause of sudden death in young and adults (especially athletes)
236
What is a severe complication of HCM?
Sudden Death
237
What is Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
Associated with Desmosome gene mutations Fibro-fatty replacement of the RV myocytes leading to impaired ability of RV muscle to contract due to muscle cell loss.
238
What is Naxos disease?
A autosomal recessive genetic condition associated with ARVC and diffuse palmoplantar keratoderma and woolly hair
239
What are the symptoms of ARVC?
Arrythmias - main feature Palpitations Presyncope/syncope RHF Death possible on first presentation
240
What is the most common sustained arrythmia in HCM?
Atrial Fibrillation
241
What is the cause of ARVC?
Unknown but may be due to apoptosis, inflammation or genetics
242
What is the Epidemiology of ARVC?
1/2000 Mainly affects males 30-50% of cases have autosomal dominant genetic predisposition
243
How is ARVC diagnosed?
ECHO - RV wall Dimensions and abnormalities RV angiography ECG - In leads V1, 2 and 3, Epsilon wave, T wave inversion MRI - fatty infiltration and fibrosis on RV wall.
244
How is ARVC treated?
Standard heart failure medication. Beta blockers in asymptomatic patients. Amiodarone - Tx for arrythmias Heart transplant
245
What is the most frequent cause of heart transplants?
Dilated cardiomyopathy.
246
What is Restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Rigid Fibrotic Myocardium Increased myocardial stiffness despite normal LV cavity size and function. Increased stiffness restricts diastolic filling as the ventricle is incompliant.
247
What are the causes of Restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Granulomatous disease - Amyloidosis (Amyloid heart disease) / Sarcoidosis. infiltrative myocardial disease Loffler Endo(myo)carditis Haemochromatosis
248
What is the epidemiology of Restrictive cardiomyopathy?
between 1/1000 to 1/1500 5% of all cardiomyopathies Mainly affects the elderly, tropical Africa
249
What are the symptoms of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Similar to constructive pericarditis Features of RV failure Dyspnoea Elevated JVP Hepatomegaly Ascites 3rd and 4th heart sounds
250
What are the investigations for Restrictive cardiomyopathy?
ECHO - thickened ventricular walls, valves and atrial septum. ECG - Low amplitude signals MRI - to distinguish between cardiomyopathies.
251
What is the treatment for restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Tx underlying cause Heart Transplant
252
What are the complications of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Heart failure sudden death Poor prognosis.
253
What is the main feature of ARVC?
Arrhythmia
254
What do all cardiomyopathies carry a risk of?
Developing arrythmia
255
What is Takotsubo's Cardiomyopathy?
Also known as ‘stress-induced cardiomyopathy’ or ‘broken-heart syndrome’. A stressful event can lead to characteristic apical ballooning with transient systolic dysfunction. Thought to be related to catecholamine-induced spasm of the small vessels in the microvasculature. The condition preferentially affects postmenopausal women.
256
What is a channelopathy?
Gene mutations in genes that are involved in ion channel proteins resulting in channelopathies.
257
What can be a cardiovascular sign of channelopathies?
Arrythmias
258
Give some examples of cardiac Channelopathies
Long QT Short QT Brugada Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT)
259
What is the major clinical sign of ARVC?
Ventricular Tachycardia
260
What is the commonest symptoms of channelopathies?
Recurrent Syncope
261
What is Brugada Syndrome?
A channelopathy caused by a mutation in the cardiac sodium channel gene
262
What are the symptoms of Brugada Syndrome?
Asymptomatic May have syncope Can cause sudden death
263
What are the common rhythmic abnormalities associated with Brugada Syndrome?
Ventricular fibrillation Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia
264
What would the ECG look like with a patient with Brugada?
Characteristic ST elevation with partial RBBB pattern in V1 and V2
265
What is sudden cardiac death in young people often due to?
Inherited condition likely a cardiomyopathy or channelopathy
266
What conditions are included in Aortovascular syndromes?
Marfans Vascular Ehler Danlos (EDS) Loeys-Dietz
267
What is Diastolic Distensibility?
The pressure required to fill the ventricle to the same diastolic volume
268
What are the Consequences of Hypertension?
Stroke (ischaemic and haemorrhagic) Myocardial Infarction Heart failure Chronic renal disease Cognitive decline Premature death
269
What are the different stages of clinical Hypertension?
- Define Stage 1 Hypertension. Clinical = 140/90 Ambulatory = 135/85 - Define Stage 2 Hypertension Clinical = 160/100 Ambulatory = 150/95 - Define severe Hypertension. Clinical = 180/110
270
How is Hypertension treated?
Lifestyle modification Antihypertensive drug therapy
271
Who should be offered antihypertensive drug treatment for hypertension?
Individuals aged 80 or below and individuals who have one or more of the following: - Target organ damage - Established CVD - Renal disease - Diabetes - 10-year CVD risk of >20%
272
Describe mechanisms of BP control - targets for therapy
- Cardiac output and peripheral resistance - Interplay between the RAAS and sympathetic nervous system (NA) - Local vascular vasoconstrictor and vasodilator mediators
273
Describe the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system.
1. Kidneys sense low BP and renin is released from juxtaglomerular cells. 2. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I 3. ACE from the lungs converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II 4. Angiotensin II (extremely potent vasoconstrictor) stimulates aldosterone release resulting in increased Na+ and thus water reabsorption which leads to increased blood volume and thus blood pressure
274
Describe the Sympathetic nervous system response to a drop in BP?
Drop in BP results in the release of noradrenaline, leading to vasoconstriction and increased contractility of the heart thus increasing peripheral resistance and cardiac output and thus BP. Also results in renin release which further augments RAAS
275
What is the MOA of ACE inhibitors?
Prevent ACE converting angiotensin I to Angiotensin II and therefore inhibiting the CVS effects of Angiotensin II
276
Give examples of ACEis?
- Ramipril - Enalapril - Perindopril - Trandolapril
277
What are the indications for ACE Inhibitors?
- Hypertension - Heart Failure - Diabetic nephropathy
278
What are the main Adverse effects of ACEi?
Related to reduced Angiotensin II: Hypotension Acute renal failure Hyperkalaemia Teratogenic effects in pregnancy Related to increased Kinin Production: Cough Rash Anaphylactoid reactions
279
Why are there side effects such as cough when using ACEi?
ACE breaks down bradykinin. If ACE is inhibited then bradykinin levels increase This can cause a persistent dry cough
280
What are Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?
They block the receptors of angiotensin II preventing its binding and it inducing effects.
281
Give examples of ARBs?
- Candesartan - Losartan - Valsartan - Telmisartan
282
What are the indications for ARBs?
- Hypertension (and when ACEi is contradicted due to cough) - Diabetic nephropathy - Heart failure (when ACEi contraindicated - acts on AT-1 receptor)
283
What are the ADRs associated with ARBs?
- Symptomatic hypotension (esp. in volume depleted patients) - Hyperkalaemia - Potential renal dysfunction - Rash - Angiooedema - Teratogenic in pregnancy
284
What are Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)?
These block the calcium channels from allowing Ca entry into cardiomyocytes.
285
What are the indications for CCBs?
- Hypertension - IHD (angina) - Arrhythmias
286
Give examples of CCBs.
- *Dihydropyridines (e.g.* amlodopine, nifedipine, felodipine) - *Phenylalkylamines* (e.g. verapamil) - *Benzothiozepines* (e.g. diltiazem)
287
Give an example and explain the actions of Dihydropyridines?
Amlodipine: Preferentially affect Vascular smooth muscle and act as peripheral arterial vasodilators
288
Give an example and explain the actions of Phenylalkylamines?
Verapamil: Directly affects the heart - negatively chronotropic, negatively ionotropic
289
Give an example and explain the actions of Benzothiozepines?
Diltiazem: Intermediate heart and peripheral vascular effects
290
What are the ADRs associated with CCBs?
Due to peripheral vasodilation (Dihydropyridines): - Flushing - Headache - Peripheral oedema - Palpitations Due to negative chrontropic effect (Phenylalkylamines and Benzothiozepines): - Bradycardia - Atrioventricular block - Postural hypotension Due to negative ionotropic effect (Benzothiozepines) - Worsening of HF Verapamil causes constipation
291
What are Beta Blockers?
Beta adrenoceptor blockers that prevent the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline in the sympathetic nervous system. They work on B1 and B2 receptors.
292
Give examples of Beta Blockers?
- Bisoprolol - Propranolol - Atenolol - Carvedilol
293
What are the indications for beta blockers?
- IHD - angina - HF - Arrhythmia - Hypertension
294
Which beta blockers are B-1 selective?
Metoprolol Bisoprolol (Atenolol is mostly B1 but not entirely cardioselective)
295
Which beta blockers are non-selective?
Propranolol Nadolol Carvedilol
296
What condition is contraindicative for beta blockers?
Asthma
297
What are the ADRS associated with Beta blockers?
- Fatigue - Headache - Sleep disturbance - Bradycardia - Hypotension - Cold peripheries - Erectile dysfunction
298
What conditions can Beta blockers cause exacerbations of
Asthma PVD - Claudication or Raynauds Heart Failure - when given in standard doses or acutely
299
How do Diuretics reduce blood pressure?
Increased excretion of water, salt and metabolites in urine
300
What are the indictations for Diuretics?
- Hypertension - Heart failure
301
What are the different classes of Diuretics?
Thiazide diuretics - act on distal tubule blocking Na/Cl exchanger Loop diuretics - act on ascending loop of henle, blocks Na/K/2Cl (NKCC2) transporter Potassium-sparing diuretics (Aldosterone antagonists) - Retain Potassium
302
Give examples of Diuretics of each class?
- Thiazide diuretics: bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide - Loop diuretics: furosemide, bumetanide - Potassium-sparing diuretics: spironolactone, eplerenone
303
What are the ADRs associated with Diuretic?
- Hypovolaemia (mainly loop) - Hypotension (mainly loop) - Hypokalaemia - Hyponatraemia - Hypomagnesaemia - Hypocalcaemia - Hyperuricaemia (gout) - Erectile dysfunction (thiazides) - Impaired glucose tolerance (thiazides)
304
Give an alpha 1 adrenoceptor blocker used as an anti-hypertensive?
Doxazosin
305
Give examples of centrally acting antihypertensives?
Act on the CNS: Moxonidine Methyldopa
306
When may Methyldopa be used?
During pregnancy for gestational hypertension
307
Give an example of a direct Renin Inhibitor?
Aliskiren
308
Outline the treatment programme for hypertension of someone under the age of 55yrs?
First line: ACEi or ARB Second Line: ACEi/ARB + CCB Third Line: ACEi/ARB + CCB + Thiazide Fourth line (Resistance HTN): Consider addition of Spironolactone, alpha blocker, beta blocker
309
Outline the treatment programme for hypertension of someone over the age of 55yrs or afro-caribbean ?
First line: CCB Second Line: ACEi/ARB + CCB Third Line: ACEi/ARB + CCB + Thiazide Fourth line (Resistance HTN): Consider addition of Spironolactone, alpha blocker, beta blocker
310
What is malignant hypertension?
Rapid rise in BP leading to vascular damage
311
What are the signs and Symptoms of malignant hypertension?
Sx - Headache, Visual Disturbances Signs: Systolic BP >200 Diastolic BP > 130 Bilateral renal haemorrhage - exudates - papilloedema
312
What are the complications of malignant hypertension?
Hypertensive Emergencies: AKI HF Encephalopathy
313
What is the treatment for malignant hypertension?
Sodium Nitroprusside
314
Define Heart Failure?
Complex clinical syndrome of signs and symptoms that suggest the efficiency of the heart as a pump is impaired and cannot satisfy the needs of metabolising tissues
315
What are the different Types of Heart Failure?
Systolic: Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction (Most common) - caused by contractility dysfunction Diastolic: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFPEF) - caused by dysfunction during diastole (filling) Acute/Chronic Heart Failure
316
What are the features and main causes of systolic HF?
Failure to contract Ejection fraction <40% (SV/EDV) Caused by: - IHD - MI - Hypertension - Cardiomyopathy
317
What are the features and main causes of Diastolic HF?
Inability to relax and fill There is reduced preload because there is abnormal filling of the LV Ejection fraction >50% Caused by: - Constrictive pericarditis - Cardiac tamponade - Hypertension
318
What is the epidemiology of HF?
Annual incidence of 10% in patients over 65 50% of patients die within 5 years
319
What are the major risk factors of HF?
Age – 65+ Obesity Gender – male People who have had a previous MI
320
What is the underlying principle of treatment of heart failure?
Vasodilator therapy via neurohumoral blockade (RAAS-SNS)
321
What is used in the symptomatic treatment of heart failure?
Diuretics - often loop
322
What are the stages involved in disease influencing neurohumoral blockade therapy for heart failure?
A (first Line) - ACEi + BB therapy (low dose titrated up slowly) B: Aldosterone Antagonist (Spironolactone) C: ARNI (ARB + Neprilysin inhibitor) - Entresto ( combination of Valsartan + Sacubitril) D: SGLT2 inhibitor - Dapagliflozin E: ACEi intolerance - ARB F: ACEi and ARB intolerance - Hydralazine/nitrate combination G: consider Digoxin
323
What are Nitrates when used as a treatment?
Arterial and Venous dilators These reduce both preload (venous dilation) and afterload (arterial dilation) to lower the BP
324
What are the main indications for nitrates?
IHD (Angina) Heart Failure
325
Give Examples of nitrates?
- Isosorbide mononitrate (tablet) - GTN spray - GTN infusion (acute/ severe angina)
326
What are the ADRs associated with Nitrates?
- Headache - GTN spray syncope - Potential tolerance to the drug
327
What are the cardiac natriuretic peptides (CNPs?)
Atrial Naturetic Peptide (ANP) - Atria Brain Naturetic Peptide (BNP) - Brain and Ventricles
328
What causes the physiological release of cardiac natriuretic peptides?
Stretching of atrial and ventricular muscle cells, raised atrial or ventricular pressures and volume overload
329
What effect do CNPs have on renal excretion?
Increases renal excretion of sodium (natriuresis) and water (diuresis)
330
What effect do CNPs have on vascular smooth muscle?
Relax vascular smooth muscle (except efferent arteriole) of renal glomeruli to preserve filtration pressure in kidney whilst still removing Na+ and thus water thus no renal damage)
331
What effect do CNPs have on vascular permeability?
Increased vascular permeability
332
What effect do CNPs on the release of other chemical mediators?
Reduces aldosterone, angiotensin II, endothelin (most potent vasoconstrictor) and ADH release
333
What are CNPs a counter-regulatory system to?
Counter-regulatory system to the renin-angiotensin system
334
What are NPs metabolised by?
NEP or Neprilysin
335
How can the inhibition of NP metabolism be used for in the treatment of HF?
NEP inhibition increases levels of natriuretic peptides
336
Name examples of NEP inhibitors.
Sacubitril - is a neprilysin inhibitor Entresto (ARNI) - is a combination of sacubitril and valsartan (ARB) - VERY EFFECTIVE IN HEART FAILURE
337
What are the Class I antiarrhythmic Drugs?
Sodium Channel Blockers: 1A: quinidine 1B: lidocaine 1C: flecainide
338
What are the Class II Anti-arrhythmics?
Beta-blockers: - non-selective (e.g.propranolol, nadolol, carvedilol) - beta-1 selective (e.g. bisoprolol, metoprolol)
339
Why Is Propranolol useful for arrhythmias immediately post MI?
It blocks both Beta adrenoceptors and can block sodium channels too
340
What are the Class III Anti-arrhythmics?
Prolongs action potential: Amiodarone blocks potassium channels during repolarisation to increase the AP. *Cause QT prolongation; potential for significant side effects in patient with QT prolongation*
341
What are the Class IV Anti-arrhythmics?
Calcium channel blockers (only phenylalkylamines and benzothiozepines): Verapamil and Diltiazem Verapamil is more effective than amlodipine as it does not affect calcium channel at rest
342
What do Class I and III anti-arrythmics do?
Rhythm control (sympathetic drive, e.g. adrenaline worsens arrhythmias)
343
What do Class II and IV anti-arrythmics do?
Rate control (sympathetic drive, e.g. adrenaline worsens arrhythmias)
344
What are the ADRs associated with Amiodarone?
- Bradycardia - Interstitial Lung Disease - Thyroid (hyper and hypo) - Corneal (ocular)/cutaneous (skin) - Hepatic dysfunction/hypotension when IV (due to solvents) - Photosensitivity - Drug interactions
345
What type of drug is Digoxin?
Cardiac glycoside
346
By what mechanism does Digoxin affect the heart?
Inhibits Na/K pump; Therefore Na/Ca exchanger is not active as Na conc increases in the cell Therefore Ca is not removed from the cell causes an increase in Ca2+ inside the cells of the heart Increases contraction of myocytes
347
What affect does Digoxin have on the heart?
- Bradycardia (increased vagal tone) - Slows AV conduction (increased vagal tone) - Increased ectopic activity - Increased force of contraction (direct +ve inotropic effect) by increasing intracellular calcium
348
What are the indications for Digoxin?
- Atrial Fibrillation; reduces ventricular rate response - Severe heart failure; has a positive inotropic effect
349
What are the ADRs of Digoxin?
- Narrow therapeutic range - Nausea - Vomiting - Diarrhoea - Gynaecomastia - Confusion
350
What are Structural Heart defects?
These are often Congenital defects that occur during pregnancy to the heart that are not necessarily inherited that cause heart problems. They can range from minor to life incompatible
351
Give examples of some structural heart defects?
Bicuspid Aortic Valve Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) Coarctation of the Aorta Fallot's Tetralogy Patent Ductus Arteriosus Patent Foramen Ovale
352
What is Tetralogy of Fallot?
Combination of four congenital abnormalities affecting the structure of the heart. This causes oxygen-deficient blood to flow out of the heart and to the rest of the body.
353
What are the four abnormalities associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) - hole between 2 ventricles Over-riding Aorta - Allows blood from both ventricles to entre the aorta RV Hypertrophy - thickening of RV muscle Pulmonary Stenosis - Narrowing of the exit from the RV to pulmonary circulation
354
What are the consequences of the abnormalities in Tetralogy of Fallot?
There is a greater pressure in the RV than the LV and so blood is shunted into the LV → cyanosis as blood is not oxygenated
355
What are the symptoms associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Severity dependent on degree of pulmonary stenosis Cyanosis Clubbing Poor Feeding / weight gain Tet spells Ejection Systolic Murmur (pulm stenosis) Increase Hb concentration
356
What is the cause of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Unknown but likely genetic influence
357
What is the Epidemiology of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Most common complex cardiac abnormality. 10% of congenital heart conditions
358
What are the investigations for Tetralogy of Fallot?
CXR - boot shaped heart ECHO CG (doppler)- anatomy and degree of stenosis/assess flow
359
What is the Treatment for Tetralogy of Fallot?
Early surgical intervention within 2 years Mortality of 5%
360
What is Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?
An abnormal connection between the LV and RV causing a left to right shunt enabling more blood to enter the pulmonary circulation.
361
Why is there not cyanosis in VSD?
There is a higher pressure in the LV than the RV and so blood is shunted from the left to right meaning there is an increased amount of blood going to the lungs; not cyanotic.
362
What are the clinical signs of a small and large VSD?
Size Matters: Small - Asymptomatic Large: Very high pulmonary blood flow in infancy leads to pulmonary hypertension and eventual Eisenmenger’s complex Small, breathless baby, poor feeding, failure to thrive Increased respiratory rate Tachycardia Big heart on chest X ray Murmur varies in intensity
363
What is the epidemiology of VSD?
25% of congenital abnormalities 1-4/1000
364
What are the treatments for VSD?
May close on its own Surgical repair (may provide furosemide/ACEi if moderately sized lesion
365
What is the pathology of Eisenmenger's Syndrome?
High pressure pulmonary blood flow leads to damage in pulmonary vasculature → increased resistance to blood flow (pulmonary hypertension) → RV pressure increases → shunt direction reverses (RV to LV) → cyanosis
366
What are the symptoms of Eisenmenger's Syndrome?
Causes de-oxygenated blood to skip the lungs and go back around the body Once pulmonary HTN is high enough to cause the reversal, only a transplant is curative Causes marked cyanosis, clubbing, heart failure, syncope, high RBC Very poor prognosis
367
What are the risks associated with Eisenmenger's syndrome?
- Stroke - Endocarditis - Risk of death
368
What is Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?
A common structural defect where there is a hole in the septum between the 2 atria
369
What are the types of ASD?
Ostium Primum - associated with AV valve abnormalities Ostium Secundum (85% of ASD) - Asymptomatic
370
What is the epidemiology of ASD?
Typically affects 40-60 years M>F
371
What is the pathophysiology of ASD?
There is a higher pressure in the LA than the RA and so blood is shunted from the left to right; not cyanotic. This may be reverse if Eisenmenger's Syndrome develops
372
What are the clinical signs and symptoms of a large ASD?
Pulmonary flow murmur - increased blood to pulm circulation Fixed split-second heart sound (delayed closure of pulmonary valve because more blood has to get out) Dyspnoea Exercise intolerance Atrial arrhythmias from RA dilation
373
What are the investigations for ASD?
CXR: Large heart Large pulmonary arteries ECG: Right bundle branch block (RBBB) due to RV dilatation ECHO: Hypertrophy and dilation of right side of heart and pulmonary arteries
374
How are ASDs treated?
Surgical Repair Percutaneous repair
375
What are Atrio-Ventricular Septal Defects (AVSD)?
A hole between the atria and the ventricles 2 per 10,000 Strong association with Downs
376
What are the symptoms of AVSD?
Complete defect: Breathlessness Poor feeding Poor weight gain Partial Defect: Can present in later adulthood. Similar to ASD/VSD Tachycardia Dyspnoea Exercise intolerance
377
What are the clinical signs of a large AVSD?
- Enlargement of the heart - Heart failure - inability to adequately supply body oxygen - Eisenmenger's Syndrome - Exercise intolerance - Pulmonary hypertension - Pneumonia
378
How are AVSDs treated?
Pulmonary artery banding if large defect in infancy – band reduces flow to lungs thereby reducing pulmonary hypertension and Eisenmenger’s syndrome Surgical repair – very challenging Partial defect may be left alone if there is no right heart dilatation
379
What is Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth; allows abnormal transmission of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery. Pulmonary arterial and left atrial flow increase
380
Is PDA more common in males or females?
Females
381
What is the pathophysiology of PDA?
Normally following birth the PDA closes. If patent then there is a left to right shunt Increases Pulmonary volume causing Pulm HTN and eisenmenger's syndrome.
382
What are the symptoms of PDA?
- Pulmonary hypertension and RHF (due to Eisenmenger's reaction) - Breathlessness - Poor feeding, failure to thrive - Risk of endocarditis
383
What are the clinical signs of large PDA?
Large: Develop big heart Torrential flow from the aorta to the pulmonary arteries in infancy Breathless, poor feeding, failure to thrive Continuous “MACHINERY” murmur Eisenmenger’s syndrome
384
What are the clinical signs of a small PDA?
Small: Little flow from the aorta to Pulmonary arteries Usually asymptomatic Murmur found incidentally Endocarditis risk
385
What are the investigations for PDA?
CXR – large shunt between aorta and pulmonary arterial system may be prominent ECG – may demonstrate LA abnormality and LV hypertrophy Echocardiogram – may show dilated LA and LV
386
What are the treatments of PDA?
Surgical or percutaneous closure Local anaesthetic Indomethacin - (prostaglandin inhibitor) can be given to stimulate duct closure.
387
What is Coarctation of the Aorta?
Narrowing of the Aorta Excessive sclerosing that normally closes the ductus arteriosus extends into the aortic wall leading to narrowing of the aorta distal to the ductus arteriosus
388
What is Coarctation of the Aorta associated with?
Associated with Bicuspid aortic valves Turner’s syndrome Berry aneurysms Patent ductus arteriosus M>F
389
What are the Clinical signs of Coarctation of the Aorta?
Right arm Hypertension (may have left arm hypotension) Lowe pressure in vessels distal to Coarctation Bruits (buzzes) over the scapulae and back Murmur
390
What are the investigations of Coarctation of the Aorta?
CXR – dilated aorta indented at site of coarctation ECG – LV hypertrophy CT – can accurately demonstrate coarctation and quantify flow
391
What is the management of Coarctation of the Aorta? What is a risk of this?
Surgical repair Percutaneous repair Balloon dilation (preferred for re-coarctation) and stenting RISK OF ANEURYSM FORMATION AT SITE OF REPAIR
392
What is a Patent Foramen Ovale?
Failure of the foramen ovale to close after birth
393
What are the effects of a patent foramen Ovale?
No symptoms If no other abnormalities then normal health
394
What percentage of people may have a patent foramen ovale?
1/4
395
What is a bicuspid aortic valve?
Aortic valve has 2 cusps rather than 3. Get turbulence generation instead of laminar flow in the aorta
396
What are the issues with a bicuspid aortic valve?
Can work well at birth and go unoticed Exercise exacerbates complications Abnormal degradation of the aortic valve over time - requires valve replacement
397
What is the epidemiology of a bicuspid aortic valve?
1-2% of general Population. Most common congenital heart defect
398
What is the investigation and treatment of a Bicuspid Aortic Valve?
Ix - ECHO Tx - Surgical valve replacement
399
Which structural heart abnormalities are not cyanotic and why?
VSD ASD PDA Left to right shunt But this can lead to Eisenmenger's Syndrome due to the increased pulmonary flow and subsequent Pulmonary HTN.
400
Which structural heart abnormalities are cyanotic and why?
Tetralogy of Fallot Right to left shunt.
401
What is the result of a Coarctation of the aorta on body perfusion?
Blood is diverted massively through the aortic arch branches and therefore you have increased perfusion to the upper body and less to the lower body.
402
How is Coarctation of the Aorta Diagnosed?
CXR - notched ribs CT angiogram
403
What is the most common inherited heart defect?
Bicuspid Aortic Valve
404
What is the Treatment for restrictive cardiomyopathy?
None Consider transplant
405
What condition often leads to Eisenmenger's Syndrome as a complication?
VSD, ASD, PDA
406
What is a common complication of bicuspid aortic valves?
Aortic Aneurysm development
407
What is pulmonary stenosis?
Narrowing of the outflow tracts of the right ventricles This results in increased resistance of the pulmonary circulation leading to RV hypertrophy 8-12% of Congenital Heart Defects
408
What are the categories for Hypertension?
Normotensive Stage 1 Hypertension Stage 2 Hypertension Severe Hypertension (Stage 3)
409
What is the normal range for blood pressure?
90/60 - <120/ <80
410
Define stage 1 hypertension
- ABP 135/85 - Clinic 140/90
411
Define Stage 2 Hypertension?
- ABP 150/95 - Clinic 160/100
412
Define severe hypertension
Clinic 180/120
413
What is Primary Hypertension?
When it is Idiopathic (no known cause) 95% of cases
414
What is Secondary Hypertension?
When the underlying cause is known 5% of cases
415
What are some underlying causes of secondary hypertension?
CHAPS: Cushings Syndrome/CKD Hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome) Aorta Coarctation Phaeochromocytoma Stenosis of Renal Arteries.
416
What are the risk factors of hypertension?
Increased Age Blacker ethnicity Overweight - biggest RF Decreased exercise/sedentary lifestyle smoking diabetes stress increased salt intake Family Hx
417
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
CKD as a result of diabetic nephropathy
418
Define malignant hypertension
Rapid rise in blood pressure which damages vasculature Pathological hallmark is fibrinoid necrosis Usually with severe hypertension + bilateral retinal haemorrhages and exudates
419
When is hypertension an emergency?
When there is sign of immediate damage: Papilloedema Acute kidney injury Acute stroke ACS Aortic dissection
420
What is the pathogenesis of Hypertension?
All mechanisms where there is increased CO from Increased RAAS and SNS activity. Mechanisms where there is increased TPR will increase BP
421
What is the equation for BP?
BP = CO x TPR
422
What are the vascular causes of Secondary Hypertension?
CKD OSA Glomerulonephritis - increased renin Renal Artery stenosis - increase renin Coarctation of the Aorta
423
What are the endocrine causes of Hypertension?
Phaeochromocytoma Cushings Conns (hyperaldosteronism) Acromegaly Thyroid Dysfunction
424
What are some autoimmune causes of Hypertension?
Lupus Scleroderma
425
What are the symptoms of Hypertension?
Mostly Asymptomatic May have a pulsatile headache (but no more than general population) Found on screening
426
When should you screen to find the cause of a patients hypertension?
Early onset (<30yrs) with no risk factors Hypertension resistant to 3 drugs Malignant hypertension If patient has other specific symptoms indicative of secondary causes
427
What drugs can increase blood pressure?
Glucocorticoids Oral contraceptives SSRIs NSAIDs EPO Stimulants Anti-TNFs
428
Which investigations are ordered to quantify overall risk in patients with hypertension?
Fasting glucose Cholesterol
429
What investigations should be considered to determine the cause of a Px hypertension?
Underlying secondary causes should be excluded: Age < 40 years Reduced eGFR (suggestive of renal disease) Proteinuria or haematuria (suggestive of renal disease) Hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia (suggestive of Conn’s syndrome) Hypertension that is sudden onset, variable or worsening.
430
How is Hypertension diagnosed?
In clinic: BP reading in hospital of 140/90 or higher Then ABPM for 24 hours to confirm diagnosis (BP 135/85 + throughout day twice per hour) Assess end organ damage Home BPM: 2 measurements taken daily for 4-7 days
431
What is White Coat Hypertension?
Elevated BP in a clinical setting Px should have ABPM monitoing prior to diagnosis of HTN
432
What investigations are used to assess end organ damage in Hypertension?
ECG/ECHO - LV Hypertrophy Fundoscopy - papilloderma U&Es - hypokalaemia in Conns Urinalysis, Proteinuria and Haematouria Serum creatine GLucose Renal function
433
What is the lifestyle management of Hypertension?
Stop Smoking Exercise - lose weight Control diet
434
What are the main drugs used to lower blood pressure?
CCBs ACEi/ARBs Diuretics B-blockers
435
When should you treat hypertension?
Aged < 80 years with stage 1 hypertension and with one of the following; end organ damage, cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes or 10-year cardiovascular risk ≥10%. of any age with stage 2 hypertension of any age with stage 3 hypertension (consider immediate treatment)
436
What is the medical management of hypertension in a patient who is <55yrs old or has T2DM?
1st Line - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi are Contraindicated) 2nd Line - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi is CI) + CCB 3rd Line - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi is CI) + CCB + Thiazide 4th Line (resistant HTN) - ACEi/ (ARB if ACEi is CI) + CCB + Thiazide + 4th drug: 4th drug if K+ > 4.5 = alpha/beta blocker 4th drug if K+ < 4.5 = Spironolactone
437
What is the Medical Management for a Patient with HTN who is >55+yrs old or from Afro-caribeean origins?
1st Line - CCB 2nd Line - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi is CI) + CCB 3rd Line - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi is CI) + CCB + Thiazide 4th Line (resistant HTN) - ACEi/ ARB (if ACEi is CI) + CCB + Thiazide + 4th drug: 4th drug if K+ > 4.5 = alpha/beta blocker 4th drug if K+ < 4.5 = Spironolactone
438
If a patient is Black, over 55yrs old and has T2DM which medical management line of HTN would you use?
T2DM takes precedence and Therefore first line is ACEi
439
What are the possible complications of hypertension?
Chronic heart disease MI Stroke - Common complication Heart failure Peripheral arterial damage Aortic aneurysm Chronic kidney disease Vascular dementia
440
When should hypertension treatment be withheld?
When patients are undergoing general anaethesia
441
What is the monitoring for hypertension?
Renal function impairement Otherwise, no monitoring as concordance with treatment an issue Evidence shows going off medication causes hypertension to return
442
What are the thresholds for treatment of hypertension?
Low risk patients - 160/100 (stage 2) High risk patients (diabetes, sign of end organ damage, risk of coronary events) - 140/90
443
What are the BP targets when treating for HTN?
Patients < 80 years: clinic BP < 140/90 mmHg / ABPM < 135/85 mmHg Patients ≥ 80 years: clinic BP < 150/90 mmHg / ABPM < 145/85 mmHg
444
What is Valvular Heart disease?
Cardiac valves may become incompetent (regurgitant), stenotic (narrow) or both. Abnormal valves produce turbulent blood flow, which is heard as a murmur on auscultation, a few murmurs are also felt as a thrill on palpation.
445
What is aortic Stenosis?
Narrowing of the aortic valve
446
What is the basic overlying pathogenesis of valvular stenosis?
Stiff/thick valve leaflets Obstructs forward flow Increasing Afterload leads to systemic or pulmonary congestion Stenotic Valve on RHS = Systemic Venous Congestion Stenotic Valve on LHS = Pulmonary Venous Congestion
447
What valves are often affected by valvular stenosis?
Mitral Aortic Pulmonary Tricuspid
448
What would a regurgitant valve cause?
Causes insufficiency and proximal chamber dilation. This is due to loss of structural chamber integrity and strength
449
What is a regurgitant valve?
Poorly sealed valve leaflets Defective and floppy backflow of the blood through the valve (incompetance) Valvular Regurgitation on RHS = Systemic Venous congestion Valvular Regurgitation on LHS = Pulmonary Venous congestion
450
What occurs as a result of stenosis?
Increased upstream pressure resulting in proximal chamber dilation and hypertrophy This leads to the heart becoming large and rigid and poorly compliant
451
What is the difference between a regurgitant valve and a stenotic valve?
Regurgitant - Defective and floppy Stenotic - Narrowed valve lumen
452
Which valve defects commonly cause murmurs?
Aortic Regurgitant and stenosis Mitral Regurgitant and stenosis
453
When are Right and left sided defects commonly heard as murmurs?
RILE (Right = inspiration and Left = Expiration) Pulmonary/Tricuspid on RHS on insipration
454
Where are Left sided defects commonly heard as murmurs?
RILE (Right = inspiration and Left = Expiration) Aortic/Mitral heard on LHS on Expiration
455
What is the nmeonic for when you would hear aortic regurgitance/stenosis and mitral valve reguritance and stenosis?
ARMS (Aortic regurgitance / Mitral Stenosis) on Diastolic ASMR (Aortic Stenosis / Mitral Regurgitance) on Systolic
456
What is the main cause of Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Rheumatic Heart disease (Most common - post strep pyogenes infection)
457
What are some less common causes of Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Valve calcification Infective endocarditis
458
What is the pathology of Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Thickening and immobility of valve leads to obstruction of blood flow from LA to LV 🡪 increased LA pressure, pulmonary hypertension and right heart dysfunction AF is common due to elevation of LA pressure and dilatation Thrombus may form in the dilated atrium and give rise to systemic emboli e.g. the brain causing a stroke Chronically elevated LA pressure leads to an increase in pulmonary pressure and pulmonary oedema
459
What are the symptoms of mitral stenosis?
Progressive exertional dyspnoea Cough productive of blood-tinged sputum Haemoptysis – coughing up blood due to rupture of bronchial vessels due to elevated pulmonary pressure Right HF Fatigue Weakness Abdominal/lower leg swelling Palpitations – due to AF Chest pain
460
What are the Signs of Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Malar Flushed Cheeks - due to low CO2 Pulmonary HTN - Dyspnoea A wave on JVP Loud S1 Snap - due to thickend valve cusps Low pitched MID-DIASTOLIC murmur - loudest at apex and expiration when Px lies on LHS
461
What murmur is heard in Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Low pitched - due to decreased pulse and decreased CO MID DIASTOLIC Murmur Loudest at APEX Best heard on EXPIRATION when Px is lying on LHS
462
What is the Diagnosis/investigations for Mitral valve stenosis?
CXR - LA enlarged ECG - Afib, M shaped P waves due to LA enlarged GS - ECHO - Assess valve area
463
What is the Treatment for Mitral Valve Stenosis?
Diuretics - Furosemide for HF Rate control - BB/digoxin Anticoagulants if AF (Warfarin) Surgical: Percutaneous balloon Valvotomy - Stent opening mitral valve Mitral valve replacement
464
What is the main cause of Mitral Valve Regurgitation?
Myxomatous degeneration - Mitral Valve prolapse Connective tissue disorders - Marfans, Ehlers Danlos Infective Endocarditis
465
What are the risk factors for Mitral Valve Regurgiation?
Females Increased Age Low BMI Prior MI or Connective Tissue disorder
466
What are the symptoms of Mitral Valve Regurgitation?
Exertional dyspnoea Fatigue and lethargy Palpitations Right sided HF and can lead to congestive heart failure
467
What is the pathogenesis of Mitral Valve regurgitation?
Mitral valve fails to prevent reflux of blood into LA Increased LA pressure increased pulmonary pressure Pulmonary Oedema
468
What is the Murmur Like in Mitral Valve Regurgitation?
PAN SYSTOLIC BLOWING murmur RADIATES to AXILLA Loudest at APEX Soft S1 and Prominent S3 in heart failure (severe cases)
469
What is the diagnostic investigations for mitral valve regurgitation?
Gold standard = ECHO - LA size and LV function analysis ECG CXR
470
What is the second most common valvular condition requiring surgery?
Mitral Valve Regurgitation
471
How is Mitral Valve Regurgitation Treated?
ACEi + beta blockers IE Prophylaxis Serial ECHO Monitoring If severe (Sx at rest) then Valve repair/replacement
472
What is the normal area of the aortic valve?
3-4cm^2
473
What is the lumen size of the aortic valve when you get symptoms?
1/4 of the lumen size
474
What is the most common valve disorder?
Aortic Stenosis
475
What are the consequences of Aortic Valve Stenosis?
LV dilation and hypertrophy
476
What are the causes of Aortic Stenosis?
Congenital Bicuspic valve <70yrs Calcification due to Age >70yrs Rheumatic Valvular Disease
477
What are the 3 types of aortic valve stenosis?
Supravalvular SubValvular Valvular
478
What is the pathogenesis of Aortic Valve stenosis?
Ageing leads to aortic valve thickening and clacifications obstructing the normal LV outflow. Increased afterload Leads to increased LV pressure and compensatory LV hypertrophy. May lead to relative ischaemia causing angina arrhythmia and LV failure
479
What are the symptoms of aortic valve stenosis?
SAD: Syncope (exertional) Angina Dyspnoea - related to HF
480
What are the signs of Aortic Stenosis?
Slow rising (pulsus tardus) and weak (pulsus parvus) carotid pulse Heart sounds: Soft or absent 2nd heart sound – may become soft or inaudible when the valve becomes immobile Prominent 4th heart sound – due to LV hypertrophy Ejection systolic murmur – crescendo – decrescendo character
481
What is the Murmur like in aortic valve stenosis?
Ejection Systolic Crescendo Decrescendo Radiates to CAROTIDS At Right sternal Boarder - 2nd IC space
482
What is the diagnostic investigations for aortic valve stenosis?
ECHO - LV size and function, aortic valve area (doppler derived gradient) ECG - LVH - ST depression and T-wave inversion in aVL, V5 and V6 CXR
483
What is the treatment for Aortic Valve stenosis?
Surgical Tx if symptomatic: Healthy Px - Open repair/replacement More at risk (>75yrs) TAVI - Transcutaneous Aortic Valve Implant
484
hat is Aortic Regurgitation?
Leakage of blood into LV during diastole due to ineffective coaptation of aortic cusps
485
What are the main causes of Aortic valve regurgitation?
Congenital Bicuspid Valve RHD Connective tissue disorders - Marfans, Ehlers Danlos
486
What is the pathophysiology of Aortic Regurgitation?
Leakage of blood back into the LV during diastole due to ineffective closure of the cusps LV dilation and hypertrophy to maintain CO Reduced diastolic BP Relative ischaemia Leads to LV failure
487
What are the Symptoms of Aortic Regurgitation?
Exertional dyspnoea Orthopnoea Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea Palpitations Angina Syncope
488
What are the signs of Aortic Regurgitation?
Quincke - nailbed Pulsates when pressed De Musset - Head nodding with heart beat Wide pulse pressure LV failure Early Diastolic Murmur Austin Flint Murmur (severe)
489
What is the murmur like in Aortic Regurgitation?
EARLY DIASTOLIC BLOWING murmur At RIGHT Sternal boarder - 2nd IC space Austin Flint murmur (severe)
490
What is the Diagnostic investigations for Aortic Regurgitation?
ECHO - Evaluate Aortic valve root and dimensions ECG - Evidence of LVH CXR - Cardiomegaly
491
What are the treatments for Aortic Regurgitation?
Consider Infective endocarditis prophylaxis - Also considered as a DDx Vasodilators (ACEi to improve SV and reduce regurgitance if Px is asymptomatic or HTN) Surgical Valve replacement if symptomatic
492
What is Infective Endocarditis?
Infection of the heart valves or other endocardial lined structure within the heart (e.g. septal defects, pacemaker leads, surgical patches)
493
What is the epidemiology of IE?
Used to be a disease of the young affected by rheumatic heart disease Now it is a disease of: - The elderly (in an ageing population) - Young IV drug abusers - Young congenital heart disease - Anyone with prosthetic heart valves or pacemakers - Poor dental hygiene More common in males
494
What are the different types of Infective Endocarditis?
Left-sided Native (mitral or aortic) Left-sided Prosthetic (early - within a year, late - after a year) Right-sided IE (rarely prosthetic). Device related (e.g. pacemakers, defibrillators)
495
How does the nature of Infective Endocarditis affect the outcome?
Left-sided; are more likely to cause thrombo-emboli systematically. Right-side more likely to spread to cause a pulmonary embolism
496
What are the Causes of Infective Endocarditis?
Bacteria: S.aureus (most common in IVDU, T2DM, surgery) S. Viridans - Dental problems P. aeruginosa S.bovis HACEK Organisms
497
What are the risk factors for Infective Endocarditis?
Male, Elderly, Prosthetic Valves Young IV Drug user Young w/Congenital heart defect Rheumatic Heart Disease
498
Where does Infective endocarditis usually affect? When may it affect other regions?
Usually Mitral valve (LHS) In IVDU it will more commonly affect Tricuspid Valve (RHS) due to injecting into veins and travelling to RHS of heart
499
What is the Pathogenesis of Infective Endocarditis?
Abnormal/damaged endocardium leads to increased platelet deposition. Bacteria virulence factors can adhere to this Vegetation Propagation involves activation of clotting cascade Inhabiting MOs cause cardiac valve distortion and cardiac failure + sepsis Typically around the valves
500
What is a common consequence of Infective Endocarditis?
Valvular Regurgitation Than can lead to Ventricular insufficiency and subsequent increased risk of HF
501
What are the symptoms of Infective Endocarditis?
Fever + Non-specific Symptoms New valve regurgitation Sepsis Emboli of unknown origin General Sx: Headache Malaise Confusion Night sweats
502
What are the specific signs of infective endocarditis?
FROM JANE: Fever Roth’s spots – retinal haemorrhages Osler’s nodes – painful spots on hand Murmur - arrhythmia Janeway lesion – painless spots Anaemia Nail-bed splinter haemorrhages (splinter) Emboli – MI, stroke, PVD
503
What are the diagnostic Criteria is used for infective endocarditis? What are the Major and Minor Criteria?
Made using DUKE CRITERIA - 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor: Major: - Positive blood culture with typical IE microorganism - Echocardiograph showing endocardial involvement (e.g. vegetation, abscess) or new valvular regurgitation. Minor: - Fever (>38) - Pre-disposing factor (e.g. predisposing heart condition, IV drug user) - Vascular phenomena (e.g. major arterial emboli, septic pulmonary infarcts, intracranial haemorrhage, Janeway lesions, conjunctival haemorrhage) - Immunological problems (e.g. glomerulonephritis, Osler's nodes, Roth's spots, rheumatoid factor) - Microbiological evidence (e.g. positive blood culture (non-IE typical microorganism) or serological evidence of infection with organism consistent with IE)
504
What investigations are used to diagnose suspected IE?
Transoesophageal Echo (TOE): DIAGNOSTIC Generally safe but risk of perforation or aspiration Easiest if ventilated (but never ventilate just for TOE) Transthoracic echo (TTE): Safe Non-invasive No discomfort Often poor images so lower sensitivity ECG - conduction abnormalities, low QRS voltage, ST elevation, heart block, ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachycardia CXR – cardiomegaly Blood cultures - IE organisms
505
What are the two main sites vegetation adheres to in IE?
Atrial surface of AV valves Ventricular surface of SL valves.
506
What is the Treatment for Infective Endocarditis?
S.aureus - Vancomycin + rifampicin ( +gentamycin if prosthetic valve) S.viridans - Benzypenicillin + gentamycin for 4-6 weeks Surgery - remove valve if incompetent and replace with prosthetic Tx complications
507
What are the complications of infective endocarditis?
Heart failure Aortic root abscess Septic emboli Sepsis
508
Define Heart Failure
Inability of the heart to deliver blood thus oxygen that is commensurate with the requirement of the metabolising tissues despite normal or increased cardiac filling
509
How is HF categorised by the New York Heart Association (NYHA)?
- Class I - no limitation (asymptomatic) - Class II - slight limitation (mild HF Sx with normal activity) - Class III - marked limitation (symptomatically moderate HF Sx at less than normal activity) - Class IV - inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort (symptomatically severe HF Sx at rest)
510
What is the median age for Heart Failure?
80-years-old (men; 78, women; 82)
511
What is Ejection Fraction?
Measurement, expressed as a percentage, of how much blood the left ventricle pumps out with each contraction
512
What is the normal range for Ejection Fraction?
65-75%
513
What are the 2 main pathologies of heart failure?
Systolic Heart failure - blood cant be pumped out of the LV well enough Diastolic Heart Failure - Not enough blood fills the ventricles during diastole In both cases blood builds up in the lungs causing congestion and fluid build up.2
514
What are the different types of Heart Failure?
HF-Reduced Ejection Factor (Left Ventricular Ejection Factor <40%) HF-Preserved Ejection Factor (Left Ventricular Ejection Factor >50% with dilated LA(>34ml/m2 AND and LVH) HF-Pulmonary Hypertension (Pulmonary Artery Pressure >40mmHg) HF-Valve (stenosis or regurgitation)
515
What is the most common aetiology of Heart Failure?
Myocardial dysfunction resulting from IHD
516
Name some other common causes of Heart Failure.
Hypertension Ischaemic Heart Disease Alcohol excess Cardiomyopathy Valvular disease - Aortic Stenosis, Mitral Regurgitation Arrythmias - Atrial Fibrillation Endocarditis Pericarditis
517
What ejection fraction would suggest borderline HF and Systolic HF?
Borderline - 40-50% Systolic HF - <40%
518
What can cause Low output HF?
Decreased CO, fails to increase with exertion Could be due to: - Pump failure – systolic HF, may be due to decreased heart rate e.g. anti-arrhythmic drugs - Excessive pre-load - Mitral regurgitation, fluid overload - Chronic increased afterload – occurs in aortic stenosis, hypertension – difficult for the heart muscle to push against it
519
What can cause high output HF?
Normal cardiac function but unable to meet increased demands for perfusion. Anaemia Pregnancy Hyperthyroidism
520
What is the difference between left and right heart failure?
Left heart failure would cause congestion in the pulmonary circulation. Right heart failure would cause congestion in the systemic circulation Both can affect each other - eg. RHS HF can cause LHS HF
521
What are the main causes of Systolic (HFref) heart failure?
Decreased Contractility: - Coronary Artery Disease - Volume Overload (Valvular disease, Neurohormonal) - Dilated Cardiomyopathy Increased Afterload: - Hypertension - Aortic Stenosis
522
What are the main causes of Diastolic (HFpef) heart Failure?
Stiff non-compliant left ventricle: Chronic Hypertension, Aortic Stenosis, HOCM can also cause diastolic failure by increasing hypertrophy of LV wall. This then decreases volume of the ventricle leading to a reduced filling room and reduced preload. Restrictive cardiomyopathy, Pericardial Constriction, Myocardial Fibrosis - less compliant LV walls due to increased stiffness. therefore the walls cannot stretch when filling leading to reduced preload
523
What are the compensatory changes seen in HF?
Sympathetic Stimulation - increased preload and afterload RAAS activation - increased preload through increased fluid retention Cardiac changes - Ventricular dilation, myocyte hypertrophy Overtime these cause increased stress on heart and contribute to HF
524
Explain how IHD causes HFref?
Ischaemic heart disease - myocardial damage/infarction can lead to scarring which doesnt contract and so the EF is reduce
525
Explain the sympathetic stimulation compensatory mechanism for HF?
Activation of SNS improves ventricular function by increasing HR and myocardial contractility Constriction of venous capacitance vessels redistributes centrally, and increased preload further augments ventricular function (via Frank-Starling mechanism) Also increases afterload by causing arteriolar constriction which eventually reduces CO and worsens HF
526
Explain RAAS fluid overload/neurohormonal mechanism for HF?
Fall in CO and increased sympathetic tone lead to diminished renal perfusion 🡪 activation of RAAS 🡪 increased salt and water retention Further increases venous pressure and maintains stroke volume by Starling mechanism As salt and water retention increases, This causes fluid overload peripheral and pulmonary congestion causes oedema and contributes to dyspnoea Angiotensin II also causes arteriolar constriction which increases afterload increasing myocardial work an exacerbating HF
527
Explain How Dilated Cardiomyopathy causes HFref?
Dilated cardiomyopathy - chamber grows and there is increases preload leading to increased contraction strength temporarily. over time the muscle walls get thinner and will end up becoming inefficient and reduce contractility
528
Explain How chronic HTN leads to HFref
Chronic hypertension - increased afterload causes LV hypertrophy. This increases the O2 demand, and squeezes coronary arteries decreasing O2 supply to the myocardium. Overtime the heart muscle fatigues and becomes inefficient at pumping blood.
529
What are the cardinal symptoms of HF?
SOB Fatigue Ankle Swelling - fluid retention
530
What are the main causes of Left Heart Failure?
IHD Hypertension - As arterial pressure increases, harder for LV to pump blood out 🡪 LV hypertrophy 🡪 greater demand for oxygen - Coronaries squeezed by extra muscle 🡪 less blood delivered to tissue Cardiomyopathy: - Dilated – heart chamber dilates (grows in size) in order to fill ventricle with more blood (increased preload) - Over time, muscle wall gets thinner and weaker 🡪 systolic HF - Restrictive – heart wall becomes stuff 🡪 less compliant 🡪 can’t stretch Aortic stenosis – narrowing of aortic valve
531
What are the symptoms of Left Heart failure?
Breathlessness (dyspnoea) Cough Orthopnoea - SOB on lying flat - relieved by standing (causes crackles on auscultation) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnoea Peripheral Oedema
532
What is Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnoea?
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is a term used to describe the experience that patients have of suddenly waking at night with a severe attack of shortness of breath and cough.
533
What are the signs of Left Heart Failure?
Cardiomegaly (displaced apex beat) Pulmonary Oedema Bi-basal Crackles 3rd and 4th heart sounds (S3 in Dilated Ventricle and S4 in a less compliant) Pleural effusion Crepitations in lung bases Tachycardia Reduced BP Cool peripheries Heart murmur
534
What are the main causes of Right Heart Failure?
Left ventricular failure: (most common cause of RHF) - Fluid build-up 🡪 increased pressure in pulmonary artery 🡪 harder for right side to pump blood into Hypertension Pulmonary stenosis Lung disease (cor pulmonale) – harder to exchange oxygen - Pulmonary arterioles constrict 🡪 increase pulmonary BP 🡪 harder for RV to pump against 🡪 hypertrophy and failure Atrial/ventricular shunt – blood moves from L🡪R - Leads to increased volume on right side 🡪 RV hypertrophy - More prone to ischaemia (systolic dysfunction) and has a small filling volume (diastolic dysfunction)
535
What are the symptoms of Right Heart Failure?
SOB Peripheral oedema Ascites Nausea Anorexia
536
What are the signs of Right Heart Failure?
Raised JVP – JVP distension Hepatomegaly/Splenomegaly Pitting oedema – sacral/leg oedema in bed-bound patients which causes a “pit” when pressed Ascites Weight gain (fluid)
537
How is Heart Failure diagnosed?
Clinical presentation BNP blood test (specifically “N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide” – NT‑proBNP) ECG - ascertain underlying cause - ischaemia, LVH, HTN, Arrhythmia GS - Echocardiogram (TTE) - Done if BNP and ECG abnormal (Ascertain underlying cause) CXR - (ABCDE) Alveolar oedema, Kerley Blue lines, Cardiomegaly, Dilated Upper lobe vessels, Plural Effusions
538
What are the key signs of Heart Failure?
- Tachycardia and hypotension - Shortness of Breath - Fatigue - Displaced apex beat - Raised JVP - common in RHF - Additional heart sounds/ murmurs, - Hepatomegaly (e.g. pulsatile/ tender) - RHF - Peripheral/ sacral oedema - Ascites
539
What are some Risk Factors of Heart Failure?
Anything that increases myocardial work: - Age over 65 years - Men (due to lack of oestrogen protection) - Obesity - African descent - Individuals who have had an MI - Alcohol excess - Hyperthyroidism - Anaemia - Pregnancy
540
What Diagnostic scoring criteria are used for HF?
Framingham Boston
541
What lifestyle changes are recommended as a treatment for Heart Failure?
- Avoid large meals - Education - Weight loss - Cardiac Rehab - Smoking cessation - Exercise - Vaccination
542
What is the mainstay treatment algorithm for HFrEF?
ABAL: ACEi Beta Blockers Aldosterone Antagonists (MRA) Loop Diuretics
543
What is the recent first line medical management for HFrEF to reduce mortality? What Medical Treatments can be used to reduce HF symptoms?
Reduce Mortality: 1. ARNI (Entresto) / ACEi / ARB 2. SGLT2 inhibitor 3. Beta Blockers (Bisoprolol) 4. ACEi 5 Aldosterone Antagonists (spironolactone, Eplerenone) Reduce Sx: Diuretics - Loop/Thiazide Digoxin
544
What is the prognosis of a patient with HFrEF?
50% mortality in 5 years
545
What is the Medical Treatment for HFpEF?
No therapy to reduce Mortality Tx underling cause of HFpEF Symptom Mx - ACEi, BB, Diuretics (loop, thiazide, AA) Digoxin
546
What is Cor Pulmonale?
Right sided Heart failure caused by respiratory disease.
547
What is the pathogenesis of Cor Pulmonale?
The increased pressure and resistance in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension >25mmHg) results in the right ventricle being unable to effectively pump blood out of the ventricle and into the pulmonary arteries. Causes RV Hypertrophy and overtime this will become inefficient leading to HF. This leads to back pressure of blood in the right atrium, the vena cava and the systemic venous system.
548
What are some common respiratory causes of Cor Pulmonale?
COPD is the most common cause Pulmonary Embolism Interstitial Lung Disease Cystic Fibrosis Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
549
How do patients with Cor Pulmonale Present?
Early Cor pulmonale - Asymptomatic Later: SOB Peripheral Oedema Dyspnoea - on exertion Syncope Chest Pain
550
What are the signs of Cor Pulmonale?
Hypoxia Cyanosis Raised JVP (due to a back-log of blood in the jugular veins) Peripheral oedema Third heart sound Murmurs (e.g. pan-systolic in tricuspid regurgitation) Hepatomegaly due to back pressure in the hepatic vein (pulsatile in tricuspid regurgitation)
551
How is Cor Pulmonale Diagnosed?
ECHO - Evidence of increased pressure Spirometry - Chronic lung disease Evidence GS - Right Heart Catheterisation - Measure Pulm Pressures
552
What is the Management of Cor Pulmonale?
Treat symptoms and underlying cause. Long term oxygen therapy may be used.
553
Give some Non-modifiable risk factors for CVD and atherosclerosis?
Increased Age Family Hx Male
554
What are some end results of Atherosclerosis?
Angina Myocardial Infarction Transient Ischaemic Attacks Stroke Peripheral Vascular Disease Mesenteric Ischaemia
555
What are some end results of Atherosclerosis?
Angina Myocardial Infarction Transient Ischaemic Attacks Stroke Peripheral Vascular Disease Mesenteric Ischaemia
556
What is Primary and Secondary Prevention of CVD?
Primary Prevention – for patients that have never had cardiovascular disease in the past. Secondary Prevention – for patients that have had angina, myocardial infarction, TIA, stroke or peripheral vascular disease.
557
What is some advice for Primary and Secondary prevention of CVD?
Advice on diet, exercise and weight loss Stop smoking Stop drinking alcohol Tightly treat co-morbidities (such as diabetes)
558
What is the management for secondary prevention of CVD?
4 As: A – Aspirin (plus a second antiplatelet such as clopidogrel for 12 months) A – Atorvastatin 80mg A – Atenolol (or other beta-blocker – commonly bisoprolol) A – ACE inhibitor (commonly ramipril) titrated to maximum tolerated dose
559
What is Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Major circulatory disorder characterised by arterial obstruction, leading to reduced blood supply and ischaemia in the lower limbs. Most commonly caused by atherosclerosis
560
Define Acute Limb Ischaemia?
Acute limb ischaemia (also known as acute limb-threatening ischaemia) describes a sudden decrease in perfusion due to arterial occlusion, and can result in rapid ischaemia.
561
Define Critical Limb Ischaemia?
Critical limb ischaemia is defined as rest or night pain for greater than 2 weeks, with or without tissue loss such as ulceration.
562
What is the Pathogenesis of Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Atherosclerosis causing a blockage of blood flow. Intermittent Claudication: Blockage causes nerve pain due to release of adenosine in response to ischaemia Critical Limb Ischaemia: Severe occlusion of arteries and blood supply is barely adequate to meet metabolic demand leading to pain at rest and increased risk of gangrene and infection.
563
How can you tell which artery is blocked/affected in PVD?
Hip or buttocks pain – aorta or iliac arteries Thigh – common femoral artery Upper 2/3rd of calf – superior femoral artery Lower 1/3rd of calf – popliteal artery Foot – tibial or peroneal artery
564
What is Intermittent Claudication?
Nerve pain caused by the release of adenosine in response to limb muscle ischaemia caused by atherosclerosis (PVD)
565
What are the symptoms of Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Varying symptoms: - Asymptomatic - ABPI (ankle brachial Pressure index) <0.9 - Bruits (pulsatile regions due to turbulent blood flow) - Aching / burning in the legs - Intermittent claudication (pain on exercise relieved by rest) Critical Limb Ischaemia: - Rest pain (critical limb ischaemia) - Skin ulceration and gangrene.
566
What are some Signs of Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Signs: Absent femoral, popliteal or foot pulses. Cold white legs.
567
What can be a sign of acute limb ischaemia?
Complete occlusion of the vessel - due to embolic/thrombotic event. Foot pain at rest - relieved by hanging out the side of bed at night Causes 6 Ps
568
What are the 6Ps signs of complete limb Ischaemia?
Pulselessness Pallor Pain Perishingly Cold Paralysis Paraesthesia
569
What is the Fontane classification of PVD?
Stage 1. Asymptomatic Stage 2. Intermittent Claudication (pain on exertion) Stage 3. Critical Limb Ischaemia (pain at rest) Stage 4. Ischaemic ulcers - Gangrene
570
What are the investigations for PVD?
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI): 0.5 - 0.9 = Intermitted Claudication <0.5 = Chronic Limb Ischaemia Colour Doppler (DUPLEX) ultrasound - confirm site and degree of stenosis. CT angiography if surgery considered.
571
What is the Buerger's Test?
Assessment of Arterial Sufficiency: - With the patient supine, elevate both legs to an angle of 45 degrees and hold for one to two minutes. Observe the colour of the feet. Pallor indicates ischaemia. It occurs when the peripheral arterial pressure is inadequate to overcome the effects of gravity. The poorer the arterial supply, the less the angle to which the legs have to be raised for them to become pale. - Then sit the patient up and ask them to hang their legs down over the side of the bed at an angle of 90 degrees. Gravity aids blood flow and colour returns in the ischaemic leg. The skin at first becomes blue, as blood is deoxygenated in its passage through the ischaemic tissue, and then red, due to reactive hyperaemia from post-hypoxic vasodilatation.
572
What is ABPI and what is the normal range?
Compares Blood in post/ant. tibial artery to brachial artery. 0.9-1.3 = normal
573
What is the treatment for PVD?
Intermittent Claudication RF management: - Quit smoking - Treat hypertension - Lower cholesterol - Improve diabetes - Improve diet Medication - Clopidogrel Chronic Limb Ischaemia: - Revascularisation surgery (PCI/Bypass graft) - Local Thrombolysius with t-PA - In Ischaemic limb emergency - PCI within 4-6 hours otherwise amputation.
574
What are the Risk Factors for Peripheral Vascular Disease?
Smoking Hypertension Ageing Obesity CKD T2DM
575
What may be some differential diagnoses for Critial leg ischaemia?
Gout / cellulitis But deep duskiness of skin and sudden deterioration rules this out.
576
What are the main complications of PVD?
Amputation Critical Limb/acute limb ischaemia Permanent limb weakness Rhabdomyolysis Increased risk of CVD.
577
What is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm?
Permanent dilation of the aorta exceeding 50% where >3cm diameter. Often Infra-renal (below renal arteries)
578
What is the Epidemiology of AAA?
- AAAs have a reported prevalence of 1.3-12.7% in the UK - M>F - Most common in the elderly: >60
579
What are the Risk factors of AAA?
Idiopathic, Smoking, obesity, HTN, Family Hx Connective tissue disorders - Marfans, Ehlers Danlos
580
What is the Pathogenesis of AAA?
Smooth muscle, elastic and structural degradation of the vascular wall in ALL 3 LAYERS of the vascular tunic. Due to MMPs being released from atherosclerotic inflammation Increased Leukocyte infiltration leads to increased vessel diameter to > 3cm +
581
What diameter of an AAA is at increased risk of rupture?
AAA more than 5.5cm diameter
582
What happens if the AAA ruptures?
Medical Emergency requires immediate surgical repair 80% mortality prior to reaching hospital.
583
What are the symptoms of an Unruptured AAA?
Usually asymptomatic
584
What are the symptoms of a ruptured AAA?
Sudden epigastric pain, Radiating to flank Pulsatile mass in abdomen Hypotensive and Tachycardic
585
What are the signs of a ruptured AAA?
- **Pulsatile abdominal mass** - **Tachycardia and hypotension:** red flags signifying ruptured AAA - **Grey-Turner’s sign:** flank bruising secondary to retroperitoneal haemorrhage - **Cullen’s sign:** pre-umbilical bruising
586
What is a differential Diagnosis of a ruptured AAA?
Acute pancreatitis - Does not tend to have a pulsatile feel. GI bleed Perforated GI ulcer Appendicitis Pyelonephritis
587
What is the diagnostic investigation of AAA?
Abdominal Duplex Ultrasound High sensitivity and Specificity If ruptured then none - medical Emergency
588
What is the Treatment of an AAA?
Unruptured - manage RF and Surveillance ASx and <5.5cm - monitor Sx and>5.5 - surgery (endovascular repair or open surgery)
589
What is the Treatment of a Ruptured AAA?
Stabilise ABCDE + fluids AAA Graft surgery repair.
590
What is the incidence of an AAA?
25/100,000 incidence at 50yrs. Rises with age. Males
591
What is an Aortic Dissection?
Tear in the intima resulting in blood dissecting through the tunica media causing separation of the layers of the aortic wall. Creates a false lumen in the diseased media and splits the wall.
592
What are the classifications of an Aortic Dissecction?
Type A – involves ascending aorta (most common) Type B – doesn’t involve ascending aorta
593
What are causes of Aortic Dissection?
Genetic link, Atherosclerosis, Inflammatory, Trauma: Mechanical stress causes a tear in the intima of the aortic lining. This causes blood to enter the aortic wall under pressure causing a haematoma and separates the layers.
594
What are the risk factors for Aortic Dissection
Connective tissue disorders - Marfans, Ehlers Danlos Hypertension Cocaine Use Aortic Aneurysm Smoking Hypercholesterolaemia
595
What are the most common locations of an Aortic Dissection?
Sinotubular junction - Aortic root near aortic valve Just distal to Left Subclavian Artery (descending thoracic aorta)
596
What are the symptoms of Aortic Dissection?
- **Sudden onset, severe ‘tearing’ or ‘ripping’ chest pain** that may radiate to the back and down the arms - **Syncope:** red flag symptom
597
What are the signs of an Aortic Dissection?
Absent peripheral pulses Unequal BP in left and right arm Neurological signs due to involvement of branch arteries Aortic regurgitation, cardiac tamponade Compression of other arteries – renal, subclavian
598
What is the Diagnosis of Aortic Dissection?
Transoesophageal ECHO (if haemodynamically unstable) OR CT angiogram (if Px is haemodynamically stable) Shows intimal Flap and False lumen CXR - Shows widened mediastinum
599
What are the treatments for Aortic Dissection?
Surgical: Open repair/Endovascular aortic repair Medication (to reduced HR and BP): Special Beta Blockers - Esmolol Vasodilator - Sodium Nitroprusside
600
What are some complications of Aortic Dissection?
Cardiac Tamponade Aortic Insufficiency Pre renal AKI Stroke - Ischaemic
601
What is an Arrhythmia?
**Arrhythmias** are abnormal heart rhythms. They result from an interruption to the normal electrical signals that coordinate the contraction of the heart muscle.
602
Define tachycardia.
> 100 bpm.
603
Define bradycardia.
< 60 bpm.
604
What are the 4 cardiac arrest rhythms? Which are Shockable/non-shockable?
Shockable rhythms: - **Ventricular tachycardia** - **Ventricular fibrillation** Non-shockable rhythms: - **Pulseless electrical activity** (all electrical activity except VF/VT, including sinus rhythm without a pulse) - **Asystole** (no significant electrical activity)
605
Give 3 potential consequences of arrhythmia.
1. Sudden death. 2. Syncope. 3. Dizziness. 4. Palpitations. 5. Can also be asymptomatic.
606
Give the two broad categories of tachycardia.
1. Supra-ventricular tachycardia's. 2. Ventricular tachycardia's.
607
Where do supra-ventricular tachycardia's arise from?
They arise from the atria or atrio-ventricular junction.
608
Do supra-ventricular tachycardia's have narrow or broad QRS complexes?
Supraventricular tachycardias are often associated with narrow complexes.
609
Name 5 supra-ventricular tachycardia's.
1. Atrial fibrillation. 2. Atrial flutter. 3. AV node re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT) - Most common SVT 4. Accessory pathway - Wolfson Parkinson White 5. Focal atrial tachycardia. (sinus Tachycardia)
610
Where do ventricular tachycardia's arise from?
The ventricles.
611
Do ventricular tachycardia's have narrow or broad QRS complexes?
Ventricular tachycardias are often associated with broad complexes.
612
Name 2 Ventricular Tachycardias?
Ventricular Tachycardia Ventricular Fibrillation
613
Name 3 arrhythmias that come under Bradycardia rhythms?
RBBB / LBBB 1, 2, 3 Heart Block Sinus Bradycardia
614
What is atrial Fibrillation?
Irregularly irregular atrial firing Rhythm
615
What are the causes of AF?
Any condition that causes a raised atrial pressure Heart Failure CAD RHD HTN secondary to mitral valve stenosis Idiopathic
616
What are the risk factors for AF?
60+ T2DM HTN Valve defects Hx of MI
617
What is the pathogenesis of AF?
Rapid re-entrant ectopic foci (300-600 Bpm) Causes atrial spasm Causes atrial blood to pool and therefore reduces CO and increases risk of thromboembolic events.
618
What are the symptoms of AF?
1. Palpitations. 2. Shortness of breath. 3. Fatigue. 4. Chest pain. 5. Increased risk of thromboembolism and therefore stroke. 6. Syncope
619
What are the different types of AF?
Paroxysmal (episodic) Persistent (longer than 7 days) Permanent (sinus Rhythm unrestorable)
620
What are the investigations for AF?
ECG is diagnostic Irregularly Irregular pulse w/ narrow QRSs <120ms No P waves (fibrillatory squiggles)
621
What is the Treatment of AF?
1. Rate control - beta blockers, CCB and digoxin. 2. Rhythm control - electrical cardioversion or pharmacological cardioversion using flecainide. 3. Flecainide can be taken on a PRN basis in people with infrequent symptomatic paroxysms of AF. 4. Long term - catheter ablation and a pacemaker. 5. Anticoagulation (warfarin)
622
What score can be used to calculate the risk of stroke in someone with atrial fibrillation?
CHADS2 VASc.
623
What does the CHADS2 VASc score take into account?
CHADS2 VASc: Congestive HF Hypertension Age > 75 Age 65-74 Diabetes Mellitus Stroke/TIA Vascular disease Sex - Female Used to calculate stroke risk. 0 = No 1 = consider oral anticoagulation / aspirin 2 = Oral Anticoagulation (warfarin/Rivaroxaban)
624
Atrial fibrillation treatment: what might you give someone to help with rate control?
Beta blockers, CCB and digoxin.
625
Atrial fibrillation treatment: what might you give someone to help restore sinus rhythm (rhythm control)?
Electrical cardioversion or pharmacological cardioversion using flecainide.
626
What is the long term treatment of atrial fibrillation?
Catheter ablation - it targets the triggers of AF.
627
What are some complications of AF?
Heart failure Ischaemic stroke Mesenteric Ischaemia
628
What is Atrial Flutter?
Irregular organised atrial firing 250-350 bpm
629
What are the risk factors of atrial flutter?
Similar to aetiology of AF
630
What is the pathogenesis of Atrial flutter?
Atrial flutter is caused by a “re-entrant rhythm” in either atrium. This is where the electrical signal re-circulates in a self-perpetuating loop due to an extra electrical pathway. The signal goes round and round the atrium without interruption. This stimulates atrial contraction at 300 bpm. The signal makes its way into the ventricles every second lap due to the long refractory period to the AV node, causing 150 bpm ventricular contraction. It gives a “sawtooth appearance” on ECG with P wave after P wave.
631
What are the symptoms of atrial flutter?
Dyspnoea Palpitations Syncope
632
What is the diagnosis of Atrial flutter?
F wave - saw tooth pattern Often has a 2:1 block - 2 p waves for every 1 QRS
633
What is the treatment of Atrial flutter?
Acutely unstable - DC Synchronised Cardioversion Stable - Rhythm/Rate (amiodarone + BB) control w/ oral coagulation (prevent thromboemboli) Radiofrequency ablation - long term
634
What is Wolf parkinson White?
An AV Reciprocating Tachycardia (AVRT) There is an accessory pathway that exists for impulse conduction called the bundle of Kent between atria and ventricles This is a Pre excitation syndrome (excites ventricles early causing a delta wave) This is not re-entry through the AVN. Often hereditary
635
What are the symptoms of Wolf parkinson white?
Palpitations Dizziness Dyspnoea
636
What is the ECG of Wolf parkinson white?
Slurred DELTA WAVES Short PR interval (<0.12s) Wide QRS (>0.12s)
637
What is the treatment of Wolf Parkinson White?
1. Valsalva Manoeuvre If Vagal manoeuvres are ineffective then: 2. IV adenosine (6mg, then 12mg then 12mg) to cease conduction. 3. Consider surgical radiofrequency ablation
638
What conditions can radiofrequency ablation be curative for?
Atrial Fibrillation Atrial Flutter Supraventricular Tachycardias Wolf parkinson White syndrome
639
What is Long QT syndrome?
A ventricular Tachyarrhythmia typically caused by a congenital channelopathy where mutations affect ion channels. This causes the QT interval to be 480ms +
640
What are some causes of Long QT syndrome?
Romano ward syndrome Hypokalaemia and Hypocalcaemia Drugs - Amiodarone/magnesium
641
What is Torsades De Pointes?
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia in patients with prolonged QT. Rapid irregular QRS complexes which twist around baseline. Can cease spontaneously or develop into ventricular fibrillation.
642
What is ventricular fibrillation?
This involves very rapid irregular ventricular activation with no mechanical effect i.e. no cardiac output. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) occurs when the ventricular muscle fibres contract independently. Shapeless rapid osscillations on ECG patients becomes pulseless and goes into cardiac arrest - no effective cardiac output
643
What is the first line treatment for Ventricular fibrillation?
Electrical defibrillation (DC Cardioversion)
644
What are the narrow complex tachycardias?
Rapid cardiac rhythm > 100bpm, QRS complex <120ms: Supraventricular tachycardia Atrial fibrillation/flutter
645
What are the broad complex tachycardias?
Rapid cardiac rhythm >100bpm, QRS complex >120ms Ventricular tachycardia Supraventicular tachycardia with bundle branch block/pre-excitation
646
Give 4 causes of sinus bradycardia.
1. Ischaemia. 2. Fibrosis of the atrium. 3. Inflammation. 4. Drugs.
647
Give 3 causes of heart block.
1. CAD. 2. Cardiomyopathy. 3. Fibrosis.
648
What are the 3 types of AV block?
First degree prolonged PR interval Second degree - Mobitz type I and Type II Some atrial impulses fail to reach the ventricles Third degree Complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity
649
What does first degree AV block look like on an ECG?
1:1 conduction - Every P wave has QRS followed Prolonged PR interval >200ms
650
What are the symptoms of First Degree AV Block?
No symptoms No treatment
651
What can cause first degree AV block
LEV’s disease IHD – scar tissue from myocyte death blocks conduction pathway Myocarditis Hypokalaemia Drugs - block AVN conduction (BB/CCB/Digoxin)
652
What does second degree AV block look like on an ECG?
When some P waves are conducted and others aren't 2:1 conduction - Every other P wave is followed by a QRS complex
653
What are the types of Second degree AV block?
Mobitz I Mobitz II
654
What is Mobitz type I heart block?
PR interval gradually increases until AV node fails and no QRS is seen. This then Repeats
655
What is Mobitz type 2 Heart Block.
PR interval is constant but every nth QRS complex is missing. There is a sudden unpredictable loss of AV conduction and so loss of QRS.
656
What are the different symptoms a patient may experience with Mobitz Type I and II Heart block?
Type I: Patient often experiences light headedness, dizziness and syncope Type II: Patients often experience chest pain, SOB, syncope and postural hypotension
657
What is the treatment for second degree heart block?
Pacemaker
658
What are some causes of Mobitz Type I and type II?
Type I - Caused by AV node block - Beta blockers, CCB, Digoxin, inferior MI Type II - Caused by Intra-nodal block - Inferior MI, Rheumatic Fever
659
What is 3rd degree AV block?
Complete heart block Atrial activity fails to conduct to the ventricles. P waves and QRS complexes therefore occur independently.
660
What can cause 3rd degree heart block?
Acute MI HTN Structural heart disease
661
What is the treatment for 3rd degree heart block?
IV Atropine Permanent Pace maker
662
What is the Pathogenesis of Bundle Branch Block?
Where electrical conduction down the left/right bundle branch in the bundle of HIS/septum is blocked/delayed often by fibrosis. This causes the impulse conduction to the ventricles to occur at different times creating a second R wave in the leads associated with the right/left ventricles on an ECG. In LBBB - LV contraction later than RV In RBBB - RV contraction later than LV
663
Give the causes of Left/Right Bundle Branch Block?
Acute Ischaemia and MI Myocarditis Chronic HTN Cardiomyopathies Left - IHD, valvular disease Right - PE, IHD, valvular disease
664
LBBB: what would you see in lead V1 and V6?
A 'W' shape would be seen in the QRS complex of lead V1 and a 'M' shape in V6. WiLLiaM.
665
RBBB: what would you see in lead V1 and V6?
A 'M' shape would be seen in the QRS complex of lead V1 and a 'W' shape in V6. MaRRoW.
666
What ECG changes are you likely to see in ischaemia and infarction?
T wave flattening and inversion ST segment depression first → progresses to ST elevation Q waves (old infarction)
667
Infarction involving the left anterior descending coronary artery will give rise to changes in which ECG leads?
Anterior leads: V2, V3, V4
668
Infarction involving the L circumflex coronary artery will give rise to changes in which ECG leads?
Lateral: V5, V6
669
Infarction involving the R coronary artery will give rise to changes in which ECG leads?
Inferior: II, III, aVF
670
Give 3 effects of hyperkalaemia on an ECG.
1. Tall 'tented' T waves. 2. Flat P waves. 3. Broad QRS. 4. Short QT interval
671
Give 2 effects of hypokalaemia on an ECG.
1. Flat T waves. 2. Prolonged PR Interval 3. QT prolongation. 4. ST depression. 5. Prominent U waves.
672
Give an effect of hypocalcaemia on an ECG.
1. QT prolongation. 2. T wave flattening. 3. Narrowed QRS. 4. Prominent U waves.
673
Give an effect of hypercalcaemia on an ECG.
1. QT shortening. 2. Tall T waves. 3. No P waves.
674
What is Deep Vein Thrombosis?
When a thrombus forms in deep leg vein Below calf - less concerning and most common Above calf/thigh - life threatening
675
What are the Risk factors for DVT?
Virchow's triad Factors: Venous Stasis - Immobility, Hypercoagulability - OCP, HRT, Pregnancy, Polycythaemia Endothelial Injury - smoking, age, malignancy
676
What are the Signs of DVT?
- **Unilateral swelling** - **Oedema** - **Tender and erythematous** - **Distention of superficial veins** - **Phlegmasia cerulea dolens:** occurs in a massive DVT, resulting in obstruction of venous and arterial outflow (rare). This leads to ischaemia and a blue and painful leg
677
What are the symptoms of DVT?
Unilateral calf pain, redness and swelling
678
What are the investigations for DVT?
Clinical history + WELLs Score >2 = high risk D-dimer raised and Duplex ultrasound (gold standard) (D dimer normal excludes DVT, but positive does not confirm) CT or MR venogram
679
What is the Diagnostic pathway for DVT?
Clinical Hx WELLs Score 2 or more = likely DVT --> Duplex Ultrasound (diagnostic) WELLs Score 1 or Less --> D-Dimer test --> If raised --> Duplex Ultrasound
680
What is the treatment of DVT?
1st Line DOAC anticoagulant therapy Rivaroxaban/Apixaban 2nd Line LMWH (if above CI in renal impairment) Warfarin
681
What are some important differential diagnoses of DVT?
Cellulitis - S.aureus / S.pyogenes Leukocytosis
682
What are some preventative measures for DVT?
Compression stockings Early mobilization Leg elevation
683
What are the major complications of DVT?
PE Post-thrombotic Syndrome Recurrence of thrombosis
684
What is the cause of the 3rd Heart sound? When is it considered normal? What Pathology is it heard in?
- Caused by diastolic filling of the ventricle - Considered normal if < 30 years old (may persist in women up to 50 years old) - Heard in left ventricular failure (e.g. dilated cardiomyopathy), constrictive pericarditis (called a pericardial knock) and mitral regurgitation
685
What is the cause of the 4th Heart sound? What Pathology is it heard in?
- Caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle - therefore coincides with the P wave on ECG - in HOCM a double apical impulse may be felt as a result of a palpable S4 - May be heard in aortic stenosis, HOCM, hypertension
686
What causes the first Heart Sound? When is it Soft? When is it Loud?
- Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves - Soft if long PR or mitral regurgitation - Loud in mitral stenosis
687
What is the cause of the Second Heart Sound? When is it soft?
- Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves - Soft in aortic stenosis splitting during inspiration is normal
688
What pathophysiological features will cause a murmur
Increased Turbulent blood flow: Increased Velocity of blood: - Through a stenosed valve/ narrow VSD/ASD - Increased contractile strength of myocardium - Decreased Diameters - through HOCM narrowing the exit of the ventricle to the Aorta Decreased Viscosity of blood - through anaemia Blood flow back across incompetent valves
689
Where do you listen to different Murmurs/ Heart sounds? What is the Mnemonic to remember them?
All Physicians Earn Too Much: Aortic Valve - R. 2nd ICS - CoA, AS, AR Pulmonic Valve - L. 2nd ICS - PS, PR, ASD ERBS Point - L 3rd ICS - S1 +S2, HOCM Tricuspid Valve - L 4th ICS - TS, TR, VSD Mitral Valve - L 5th ICS, (MCL) - MR, MS
690
Where would a murmur caused by Aortic Stenosis best be heard and where would it radiate to?
Best Heard - Right parasternal boarder, 2nd intercostal space Radiates to - Carotids as it flows up through the aortic arch vessels
691
Where would a murmur caused by Aortic Regurgitation best be heard and where would it radiate to?
Best Heard - Right Parasternal Boarder, 2nd intercostal space Radiates to - Left upper sternal boarder (2nd/3rd ICS) due to blood flowing back across the left side of the heart
692
Where would a murmur caused by mitral regurgitation best be heard and where would it radiate to?
Best Heard - Left 5th ICS, mid clavicular line Radiates to - Axilla as blood is flowing up into the left atria which is towards the axilla
693
What would a blowing (musical Murmur) suggest?
Blowing Murmurs are usually regurgitation murmurs: Aortic Regurgitation Mitral Regurgitation
694
What would a Rumbling (Harsh) murmur suggest?
Valvular Stenosis: Aortic Stenosis Mitral Stenosis
695
What would a Machine Like Murmur suggest?
Patent ductus Arteriosus
696
what kind of pitch would a VSD murmur have?
High pitch due to high pressure gradients as the blood flows from the LV to the RV through the VSD
697
What kind of pitch would a Mitral stenosis murmur have?
Low pitch Due to low pressure gradient from the atria to the ventricles But high blood flow across the valve creates a low pitch
698
What kind of pitch would a Aortic Stenosis/ Aortic Regurgitation /Mitral regurgitation murmur have?
Harsh High pitch High pressure gradients High blood flow across the valve
699
What conditions would cause an Early Systolic Murmur? What is the motion of the murmur?
Aortic/Pulmonic Stenosis: Valves are rigid and so upon LV contraction the valves bow (not open properly) causing an EJECTION CLICK sound as blood hits the underside of the valve. CRESCENDO DECRESCENDO murmur as the blood velocity increases during systole and then falls of as the blood is ejected HOCM: CRESCENDO DECRESCENDO murmur with NO ejection click Coarctation of the Aorta
700
What conditions would cause an Holo-Systolic Murmur? What is the motion of the murmur?
Mitral/Tricuspid Regurgitation: Murmur occurs through entire systolic time period as blood is flowing back across the valve into the atria the entire time the ventricles contract VSD: As the LV contracts blood is flowing across the VSD into the RV causing turbulent flow in the RV.
701
What conditions would cause an Diastolic Murmur? What is the motion of the murmur?
Aortic/Pulmonic Regurgitation: During Early diastole (right at the start) the LV pressure decreases so blood can back flow across the Aortic valve hitting the LV wall causing turbulent flow Lots of blood flows in early diastole which falls off in late diastole. This causes a DECRESCENDO Murmur Mitral/Tricuspid Stenosis: OPENING SNAP (immediately at the start of diastole) followed by lots of blood entering the ventricles in early diastole which then reduces as diastole progresses causing a DECRESCENDO murmur
702
What kind of murmur would be heard in a Patent Ductus Arteriosus?
A Continuous "Machine" Murmur due to a constant shunt from the aorta to the pulmonary artery
703
Where does thrombosis occur?
Arterial circulation - High pressure (platelet rich) Venous Circulation - Low pressure (fibrin rich)
704
What are the main sites for Arterial thrombosis?
Coronary Cerebral Peripheral Other sites
705
What can lead to arterial thrombosis development?
Atherosclerosis Inflammatory Infection Trauma Tumours Unknown
706
What conditions can arterial thrombosis lead to?
Myocardial Infarction Cerebral Vascular Disease Peripheral Vascular Disease
707
What is the Treatment for Arterial thrombosis?
Anti-platelets: Aspirin LMWH or Fondraparinux Thrombolytic therapy: Streptokinase OR TpA Reperfusion - PCI
708
Why is heparin avoided to treat cerebral vascular disease/ cerebral thrombosis
Heparin has a high risk of bleeding
709
What are the main sites of venous thrombosis?
Peripheral - Ileofemoral, Femoro-popliteal Other sites - Cerebral, Visceral
710
What diagnostic tests are required for Venous thrombosis diagnosis?
Signs and Sx are very non-specific Blood tests - D-dimer - sensitive but not specific Imaging usually required
711
What is the main group of factors that leads to venous thrombosis?
Virchows Triad
712
What are the treatments for Venous thrombosis?
Anti-Coagulants: Heparin/LMWH Warfarin DOAC
713
What is Heparin and how does it work?
Glycosaminoglycan Given by Infusion Binds to anti-thrombin and increases its activity. Indirect thrombin inhibitor
714
What is LMWH?
Smaller molecule of heparin that is excreted renally. Weight adjusted dose given via SC injection Used for Tx and Prophylaxis
715
What is Warfarin?
Anticoagulant that prolongs the Prothrombin time Prevents synthesis of Active factors II, VII, IX, X Antagonist of Vitamin K
716
What is the half life of Warfarin?
36 hours
717
What are NOACs/DOACs?
New oral anticoagulant drugs/ Direct oral anticoagulant drugs Directly act on Factor II or X
718
What is important for Venous thrombosis prevention?
Mechanical/chemical thromboprophylaxis Early mobilisation and good hydration
719
What is the half life of Heparin and how is it monitored?
4 hours Monitor with APTT (anti-prothrombin time)
720
What is the Half lifeof LMWH?
12 hours and therefore can be given once daily and not necessarily needed to be monitored
721
What is NOAC/DOAC used for? When would NOAC/DOAC not be used
Extended thromboprophylaxis and treatment of AF, DVT and PE Not used in pregnancy
722
What is the mechanism of action of Aspirin?
Inhibits Cyclo-oxygenase irreversibly. Prevents thromboxane formation and therefore inhibits platelet aggregation
723
How can warfarin be reversed?
Give Vitamin K
724
How can DVT be prevented?
Mechanical: Hydration Early mobilisation Compression stockings Chemical: LMWH
725
What is the prevalence of DVT/PE?
25,000 people die per year due to DVT/PE in the UK
726
Why does DVT lead to ischaemia and loss of leg?
DVT leads to increased compartment pressure resulting in venous hypertension. This can compress the arterioles reducing their blood suplly and resulting in ischaemia to the local tissues.
727
What is a pulmonary embolism?
When an embolus (often from a thrombus/DVT) travels through the venous circulation and into the pulmonary circulation to get lodged in the pulmonary vasculature.
728
What are the symptoms of PE?
Signs: Tachycardia Tachypnoea Pleural rub SX: Breathlessness Pleuritic chest pain High RFs
729
What are some differential diagnoses to think of for PE?
DDx of chest pain and SOB
730
What are the initial investigations for PE?
CXR - usually normal ECG - Sinus Tachy - S1Q3T3 D-Dimer and CTPA (GS - CT scan and Pulmonary angiogram) Blood gases - Type I resp failure (Decreased O2/CO2)
731
What is the treatment of PE?
Supportive Tx and Tx underlying cause Apixaban DOAC LWMH (if CI for renal impairment)
732
What can be done to prevent PE?
Early mobilisation and hydration. Anticoagulation
733
How would a Massive PE be Tx?
Thrombolytics - Alteplase (clot buster)
734
What are the types of aneurysms?
True - weakening of arterial wall leading to dilation False Mycotic
735
When would you hear S3 in pathology?
Left ventricular failure (DCM) Constrictive pericarditis Mitral Regurgitation
736
When would you hear S4 in pathology?
Aortic stenosis HOCM Hypertension
737
What is Rheumatic Fever?
An autoimmune condition triggered by streptococcus bacteria that causes an inflammatory reaction in cardiac and joint tissue.
738
What is the cause of Rheumatic fever?
Pharyngeal infection with Group A strep (S. pyogenes)
739
What is the pathophysiology of Rheumatic Fever?
2-4 weeks post Strep infection: Body produces antibodies against S. pyogenes M protein toxin. Abs cross react with Px own tissues through molecular mimicry Abs attack Px Joint, heart, skin and NS tissues causing an inflammatory reaction.
740
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Rheumatic fever?
Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.
741
What is the typical presentation of Rheumatic Fever?
Recent sore throat (infection) Chest pain (pleuritic) SOB Joint pain - oligo/poly arthritis Non-pruritic rash Sydenham's Chorea
742
What are the signs of Rheumatic Fever?
Heart: Heart Murmur - MR or AR Tachycardia/Bradycardia HF Joints - Tender joints Skin: Erythema marginatum rash Subcutaneous nodules
743
What is Sydenham's Chorea?
Irregular, uncontrolled rapid movements of the limbs
744
How is Rheumatic fever Diagnosed?
Jones Criteria: 2 Major OR 1 Major + 2 Minor Major (JONES): J – Joint arthritis O – Organ inflammation, such as carditis N – Nodules E – Erythema marginatum rash S – Sydenham chorea Minor: (FEAR) F - Fever E - ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) without carditis A - Arthralgia without arthritis R - Raised inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)
745
What investigations will support a Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever?
Throat swab for bacterial culture ASO (anti-strep Antibodies) titres ECHO/ECG/CXR for heart involvement
746
How is Rheumatic Fever treated?
Conservative Mx: Bed rest, analgesia Antibiotics: IV Benzylpenicillin STAT followed by Penicillin V for 10 days Tx system involvement: NSAIDs - joint pain Aspirin/Steroids - Carditis Diazepam - Sydenham's Chorea
747
What are the complications of Rheumatic fever?
Rheumatic Heart Disease: (occurs in 30-50% of rheumatic fever cases) Valvular Heart Disease - Mitral stenosis (and aortic) Heart Failure Infective endocarditis Atrial fibrillation
748
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic Fever
749
What cardiac enzymes are used to aid the diagnosis of ACS?
Cardiac troponin (Troponin T and I) Released into the blood when cardiac muscle is damaged. Highly sensitive but not specific.
750
What are some differential diagnoses of chest pain?
Cardiac – ACS, Aortic dissection, pericarditis, myocarditis Respiratory – PE, pneumonia, pleurisy, lung cancer MSK – rib fracture, chest trauma, costochondritis (inflammation of the cartilage between the ribs and sternum) GORD Oesophageal spasm Anxiety/panic attacks
751
What is Shock?
Acute circulatory failure with inadequate or inappropriately distributed tissue perfusion (meaning there is inadequate glucose and oxygen for aerobic cellular respiration), resulting in generalised hypoxia and/or inability of cells to utilise oxygen.
752
What is the pathophysiology of Shock?
- Hypotension stimulates baroreceptors in aortic arch and carotid sinuses causing increased sympathetic nervous activity with “spill-over” of noradrenaline into the circulation - Later this is augmented by the release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla which causes vasoconstriction - Vasoconstriction, together with increased myocardial contractility and HR help to restore BP and CO - Reduced perfusion of the renal cortex stimulates the juxtaglomerular apparatus to release renin - Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I which is then converted into angiotensin II (in the lungs by ACE) which stimulates the release of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa causing water and sodium retention - This helps to restore the circulating volume
753
What are the different Types of Shock?
- Septic – infection with any organism 🡪 acute vasodilation from inflammatory cytokines - Anaphylactic – Type-I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity, release of histamine - Neurogenic – spinal cord injury, epidural or spinal anaesthesia - Hypovolaemic – loss of >20% of body’s blood or fluid supply, severe fluid loss makes it impossible for the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood around the body
754
What are the causes of Hypovolaemic Shock?
Hypovolaemic (reduced preload) – low blood volume Haemorrhagic: -Trauma -GI bleeding -Fractures -Ruptured aortic aneurysms Non-haemorrhagic (fluid loss): -Burns – heat increases permeability of capillaries so more plasma leaks -Severe diarrhoea and vomiting 🡪 dehydration -Intestinal obstruction (fluid accumulates in intestines) -Pancreatitis
755
What are the causes of Cardiogenic Shock?
Pump failure- Heart isn't Pumping - Acute MI - Myocarditis - Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias - Bradycardias - Rupture of valve cusp Obstructive: - Obstruction to outflow - Massive PE - Tension pneumothorax Restricted cardiac filling: - Cardiac tamponade - Constrictive pericarditis
756
How can you recognise Shock?
Skin is pale, cold, sweaty and vasoconstricted Rapid, weak pulse Reduced pulse pressure – MAP may be maintained (note – arterial BP NOT a good indicator of shock since it will be maintained until a very large amount of blood loss Reduced urine output Confusion, weakness, collapse and coma Capillary refill time (CRT) – if it takes more than 3 seconds to turn pink after 5 seconds of compression, this is the earliest and most accurate sign of shock
757
What is the general management of Shock?
- Airways – ensure patency - Breathing – give 100% O2 and correct immediately life-threatening problems e.g. congestive cardiac failure, bronchospasm, tension pneumothorax - Circulation IV access Give fluid and blood if acute blood loss Ensure haemostasis i.e. stop bleeding - Stabilise BP Fluid replacement Medications that increase heart contractility, vasoconstriction and retain fluid Vasoconstriction - adrenaline - Supplemental oxygen or airway intubation
758
What is SIRS?
Systemic Inflammatory Response syndrome (SIRS) defined as: Temperature of >38˚C or <36˚C Tachycardia >90 BPM Respiratory rate >/= 20 breaths per minute OR PaCO2 <4.3kPa WBC > 12 x 109/L or < 4 x 109/L
759
What are the signs and symptoms of Septic Shock?
Current ore recent Infection + Pyrexia and rigors Nausea and vomiting Vasodilation with warm peripheries Bounding pulse
760
What is the management for Septic Shock?
Airways Breathing Circulation Antibiotics - Community-acquired pneumonia – ceftriaxone - MRSA – vancomycin - Pseudomonas – cefepime + metronidazole Treat underlying cause: - Haemorrhage - Sepsis - Anaphylaxis
761
What is the Pathology of Anaphylactic Shock?
Type I Hypersensitivity - Massive release of mediators from mast cells and basophils induced by cross-linking of surface IgE with trigger antigen leads to an increase in vascular permeability, vasodilation and respiratory smooth muscle contraction
762
What are the signs and symptoms of Anaphylactic Shock?
Onset of symptoms usually within 5-60 minutes of antigen exposure Swollen tongue, lips Laryngeal oedema Swollen epiglottis `Warm peripheries and hypotension due to profound vasodilation Urticaria Angio-oedema Wheezing and SOB due to bronchospasm Upper airway obstruction due to laryngeal oedema Low BP – due to vasodilation, increased vascular permeability and fluid loss from vascular space
763
What is the management of Anaphylactic Shock?
Remove the precipitating cause e.g. stop administration of offending drug Oxygen – high flow Adrenaline – 0.5mL injected IM, IV if patient is in cardiac arrest, half doses for patients taking amitriptyline, imipramine or beta blockers Fluids – 500-1000mL 0.9% saline Chlorphenamine (antihistamine) Hydrocortisone Admit for observation due to risk of second late reaction Prevent further attacks
764
What are the signs and Symptoms of Hypovolaemic Shock?
Inadequate tissue perfusion Skin – cold, pale, clammy, slate-grey Brain – drowsiness and confusion Increased sympathetic tone Tachycardia – narrow pulse pressure and weak pulse Sweating BP may be maintained initially but hypotension develops later Bradycardia
765
What are the signs and Symptoms of Cardiogenic Shock?
Signs of myocardial failure Characterised by - Chest pain - Respiratory distress - JV distension - Hypotension - Crackles in lung ECG – ST elevation V1-6 Gallop rhythm Pulmonary oedema