Haematology and Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differences between fetal and adult haemoglobin?

A

Two alpha subunits and two gamma subunits
Adult is alpha and beta

Greater affinity to oxygen than adult haemoglobin
Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, as adult haemoglobin needs higher partial pressure

HbF production decreases as HbA increases at 32-36 weeks

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2
Q

What is hydroxycarbamide used for?

A

Anit-metabolite chemo drug
Increases production of fetal haemoglobin in sickle cell anaemia - protective against sickle cell crises and acute chest syndrome

Genetic abnormality for beta subunit means sickle shape, fetal haemoglobin cannot be sickle shape as there is no beta subunit

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3
Q

What are the common causes of anaemia in infancy?

A

Physiological anaemia of infancy

Anaemia of prematurity
Blood loss
Haemolysis - haemolytic disease of the newborn, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency
Twin-twin transfusion

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4
Q

What is physiologic anaemia of infancy?

A

Normal dip in Hb around 6-9 weeks in term babies
High oxygen delivery at birth due to high Hb causes negative feedback - reduced erythropoeitin from the kidneys - reduces Hb from bone marrow

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5
Q

What are some of the causes for anaemia in a premature neonate?

A

Less time in utero receiving iron from mother
Red blood cell creation cannot keep up with rapid growth
Reduced erythropoeitin levels
Blood tests removing significant amount of circulating volume

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6
Q

What is HDN?

A

Causes haemolysis and jaundice
Incompatibility of rhesus - rhesus negative mum with rhesus D positive baby - sensitisation before future pregnancies
Mother’s anti-D antibodies cross placenta to positive baby, attacks RBCs of fetus and they break down

Haemolysis, anaemia, high bilirubin levels

Direct coombs test to check

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7
Q

What are the key causes of anaemia in older children?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia secondary to dietary insufficiency

Blood loss - menstruation in older girls

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8
Q

What are rarer causes of anaemia in children?

A
Sickle cell
Thalassaemia
Leukaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary eliptocytosis
Sideroblastic anaemia

Blood loss due to roundworms, hookworms, whipworms in developing countries - treatment with mebedazole

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9
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anaemia?

A
TAILS
Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron defiency
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia
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10
Q

What are the causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Acute blood loss
Anaemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anaemia

Haemolytic anaemia
Hypothyroidism

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11
Q

What are the causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Megaloblastic:
B12 or folate deficiency

Due to impaired DNA synthesis

Normoblastic:
Alcohol
Reticulocytosis from haemolytic anaemia, blood loss
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs e.g. azathioprine
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12
Q

What are the generic symptoms of anaemia?

A
Tiredness
SOB
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations

Specific to iron deficiency - pica, hair loss

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13
Q

What are the signs of anaemia?

A

Pale skin, conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia, raised RR

Koilonychia - spoon shaped nails indicate iron deficiency
Angulat chelitis - iron defi
Atrophic glossitis - atrophy of papillae, smooth tongue
Brittle hair and nails
Jaundice - haemolytic
Bone deformities - thalassaemia

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14
Q

What are the investigations for anaemia?

A
FBC, Hb, MCV
Blood film
Reticulocyte count - high count is active production to replace lost cells
Ferritin
B12 and folate
Bilirubin
Direct Coombs
Haemoglobin electrophoresis for haemoglobinopathies
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15
Q

What are the causes of impaired red cell production in children?

A

Red cell aplasia - parvovirus B19 infection, aplastic anaemia, leukaemia, congenital red cell aplasia

Ineffective erythropoiesis - iron def, folic acid def, chronic inflammation, chronic renal failure
Myelodysplasia, lead poisoning

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16
Q

What are the causes of red cell destruction (haemolysis) in children?

A

Red cell membrane disorders - hereditary spherocytosis

Red cell enzyme disorders - G6PD deficiency

Haemoglobinopathies - thalassaemias, sickle cell

Immune - HDN, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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17
Q

What are the causes of blood loss leading to anaemia in children?

A

Fetomaternal bleeding

Chronic GI bleed - Meckel diverticulum

Inherited bleeding disorders - von Willebrand disease

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18
Q

What are useful investigations for red cell aplasia?

A

Reticulocytles will be low
Parvovirus serology
Bone marrow aspirate

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19
Q

What are useful investigations for haemolysis?

A

Reticulocytes normal or high
Bilirubin raised

Blood film
Hb HPLC

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20
Q

What are useful investigations for blood loss/ineffective erythropoiesis causing anaemia?

A

Blood film

Serum ferritin

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21
Q

Where does iron intake come from in infants?

A

Breast mild 50% absorbed
Infant formula 10% absorbed
Cow’s milk 10% absorbed
Mixed diet

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22
Q

What are the diagnostic clues that point towards haemolysis?

A
Raised reticulocyte count - polcythaemia
Unconjugated bilirubinaemia
Increased urinary urobilinogen
Abnormal appearance of RBCs on film
Positive direct antiglobulin test if an immune cause
Increased rbc precursors in bone marrow
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23
Q

What does haemolytic anaemia lead to?

A
Anaemia
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly
Increased blood levels of unconjugated bilirubin
Excess urinary urobilinogen
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24
Q

What are the causes of haemolytic anaemia in children?

A

Haemolysis only leads to anaemia when bone marrow cannot compensate for destruction - RBC lifespan may be reduced to few days, but bone marrow production can increase by eight fold

Immune haemolytic anaemias uncommon in children, unlike neonates

Usually intrinsic abnormalities of the RBC:
Hereditary spherocytosis, red cell enzyme disorder
Haemoglobinopathies

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25
What are the clinical features of hereditary spherocytosis?
May be asymptomatic Jaundice - in childhood, may be intermittent Anaemia Mild to mod splenomegaly Aplastic crisis - uncommon, transient (2-4 wks) caused by parvovirus B19 infection Gallstones - due to increased bilirubin excretion
26
What is the management of hereditary spherocytosis?
Most are mild, need oral folic acid as have raised requirement due to increased RBC production. Splenectomy beneficial, indicated in poor growth or troublesome anaemia - tired, loss of vigour Need to ensure vaccinated against Hib, men C, strep pneumonia Lifelong daily oral penicillin prophylaxis
27
Where is iron absorbed?
Duodenum and jejunum Requires acid from stomach to keep iron as soluble ferrous That is why meds e.g. PPIs can interfere with iron absorption, as less acid
28
What is total iron binding capacity?
The total space on transferrin molecules which iron as ferric irons Fe3+ can bind to the transferrin. This is measured as transferrin saturation - how much is bound.
29
What does it mean when ferritin is high or low?
Extra ferritin released if inflammation e.g. cancer, infection Normal or low - iron deficiency anaemia could be normal if they also have an infection
30
What does it mean when TIBC and transferrin is high or low?
High in iron deficiency | Low in iron overload
31
How can iron be supplemented?
Ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate Can cause constipation and black coloured stools Unsuitable if malabsorption is the cause
32
What is G6PD deficiency?
Condition where there is a defect in the G6PD enzyme X linked recessive Usually affects males
33
What are G6PD crises triggered by?
Infections Medications e.g. antimalarials Broad beans/fava beans Becomes jaundiced and anaemic after e.g. eating broad beans
34
What does the G6PD enzyme do?
Protects cells from damage by reactive oxygen species Deficiency makes RBCs more vulnerable to ROS, leading to haemolysis So periods of increased stress can lead to more ros, acute haemolytic anaemia
35
What is the presentation of G6PD deficiency?
Neonatal jaundice Anaemia Intermittent jaundice Gallstones Splenomegaly Heinz bodies seen on blood film - denatured Hb Diagnosis can be made by doing a G6PD enzyme assay
36
What is the management of G6PD deficiency?
Avoid triggers to acute haemolysis - including fava beans and medications Also napthalene in mothballs ``` Primaquine - antimalarial Ciprofloxacin Nitrofurantoin Trimethoprim Sulfonylureas Sulfasalazine ```
37
How can sickle cell be diagnosed?
Pregnant women at risk of being carriers offered testing during pregnancy Newborn screening heel prick at 5 days of age
38
What is the cause of sickle cell?
Autosomal recessive Abnormal gene on chromosome 11 Two copies needed for trait Abnormal HbS variant
39
What are the complications of sickle cell?
Anaemia Increased risk of infection Avascular necrosis of large joints such as hip Pulmonary hypertension Painful and persistent erection - priapism CKD Sickle cell crises - vaso-occlusive crises; sickle cells clump together and block small blood vessels Acute chest syndrome
40
What is the management of sickle cell crises?
``` Managed supportively Have low threshold for admission to hospital Treat any infection Keep warm, IV fluids Simple analgesia Penile aspiration to treat priapism ```
41
What is the general management of sickle cell?
Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises, often have high haematocrit Ensure vaccines up to date Antibiotic prophylaxis e.g. penicillin V against infection Hydroxycarbamide can be used to stimulate HbF Blood transfusion in severe anaemia Bone marrow transplant can be curative
42
What is splenic sequestration crisis?
RBCs blocking blood flow in the spleen Causes acutely enlarged and painful spleen Pooling of blood in spleen can lead to severe anaemia and circulatory collapse Emergency Supportive management with blood transfusions and fluid resuscitation Splenectomy prevents this Used in recurrent crises
43
What is aplastic crises?
Temporary loss of creation of new blood cells Often due to infection with parvovirus B19 Leads to significant anaemia, management supportive with blood transfusions Resolves spontaneously within a week
44
What is acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?
Fever and resp symptoms, and new infiltrates on CXR Can be due to infection e.g. pneumonia or bronchiolitis, or non infective causes e.g. vaso-occlusion or fat emboli
45
What is the treatment of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?
Abx or antivirals for infection Blood transfusions for anaemia Incentive spirometry to encourage effective and deep breathing Artificial ventilation with NIV or intubation
46
What is leukaemia?
Cancer of a particular line of stem cells in bone marrow Causes unregulated production of certain blood cells Classified by chronic (slow) or acute (fast) and cell line affected - myeloid or lymphoid
47
What are the types of leukaemia that affect children, from most to least common?
Most common in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia Acute myeloid leukaemia Chronic myeloid leukaemia is rare
48
At what age does acute lymphoblastic leukaemia peak?
2-3 years
49
At what age does acute myeloid leukaemia peak?
Under 2 years
50
What occurs in leukaemia - pathophysiology?
Mutation leads to excessive production of a type of white blood cell Overproduction of single type of cell can lead to suppression of other cell lines Causes underproduction of other cell types Results in pancytopenia Low RBCs - anaemia Low WBCs - leukopenia Low platelets - thrombocytopenia
51
What are the risk factors for leukaemia?
Radiation exposure e.g. AXR in pregnancy, main environmental risk factor for leukaemia Down's Kleinfelter syndrome Noonan syndrome Fanconi's anaemia
52
What is the presentation of leukaemia?
``` Non-specific Persistent fatigue Unexplained fever Failure to thrive Weight loss Night sweats Pallor - anaemia Petechiae Abnormal bruising - thrombocytopenia Unexplained bleeding - thrombocytopenia Abdominal pain Generalised lymphadenopathy Unexplained or persistent bone or joint pain Hepatosplenomegaly ```
53
When does NICE recommend referral if suspicious of leukaemia?
Any child with unexplained petechiae or hepatomegaly for immediate specialist assessment
54
What are the investigations for leukaemia?
FBC - anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, high numbers of abnormal WBCs Blood film - blast cells Bone marrow biopsy Lymph node biopsy CXR CT scan Lumbar puncture Genetic analysis and immunophenotyping of abnormal cells
55
What is the management of leukaemia?
Chemo Radio Bone marrow transplant Surgery
56
What are the complications of chemotherapy in leukaemia?
``` Failure to treat Stunted growth and development Immunodeficiency and infections Neurotoxicity Infertility Secondary malignancy Cardiotoxicity ```
57
How can cancer in a child present?
A localised mass The consequences of disseminated disease e.g. bone marrow infiltration - causes system ill health Consequences of pressure from a mass on local structures or tissue
58
When is chemotherapy used in malignancy?
Primary curative treatment e.g. acute lymphoblastic leukaemia To control primary or metastatic disease before definitive local treatment with surgery and/or radiotherapy As adjuvant treatment to deal with residual disease and to eliminate presumed micrometastases e.g. after initial local treatment with surgery in Wilms tumour
59
What are some of the short term side effects of chemotherapy?
``` Bone marrow suppression Immunosuppression Gut mucosal damage Nausea and vomiting GI damage, painful mouth ulcers can prevent eating Anorexia Alopecia Drug specific side effects ```
60
What is a consequence of immunosuppression from chemotherapy?
Risk of serious infection | Children with fever and neutropenia admitted for cultures and broad spectrum antibiotics
61
What are some important infections associated with therapy for cancer?
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia - especially in children with leukaemia Disseminated fungal infection - e.g. aspergillosis and candidiasis Coagulase negative staphylococcal infections of central venous catheters Measles and chickenpox may have an atypical presentation Use of live vaccines contraindicated during chemo, and 6 months after
62
What is an example of a treatment scheme for standard risk acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?
Induction Consolidation and CNS protection e.g. methotrexate Interim maintenance e.g. monthly vincristine and dexamethasone Delayed intensification Continuing maintenance - continues for further 2 years in girls, 3 years in boys
63
What is lymphoma?
Results from genetic alterations which trigger abnormal proliferation of lymphocytes
64
What is the difference between leukaemia and lymphoma?
In lymphoma, the malignant cells are mature lymphocytes Arise outside of the bone marrow e.g. lymph nodes Leukaemia is from immature blasts in the bone marrow EXCEPT lymphoblastic lymphomas - B and T cell lymphoblastic lymphomas develop from precursors
65
How can lymphoblastic lymphomas be distinguished from lymphoblastic leukaemias?
Degree of bone marrow infiltration by blasts <25% involvement is lymphoma, >25% leukaemia
66
What is the classification of lymphoma?
Hodgkin's: ``` Classical: Nodular sclerosis Mixed cellularity Lymphocyte rich Lymphocyte depleted ``` Non-classical: Nodular lymphocyte predominant HL (Reed sternberg cells not present) Non-Hodgkin's: Majority are high grade lymphomas (mature cell): - B cell e.g. Burkitt's lymphoma Large B cell lymphoma Primary CNS lymphomas - T cell Anaplastic large cell lymphoma Peripheral T cell lymphoma Mature cell: low grade: - B cell - follicular - T cell - rare Precursor: B and T cell lymphoblastic lymphoma
67
What are the risk factors for lymphoma?
Immunodeficiency - post solid organ transplant, ataxia telangiectasia, HIV, immunosuppressive drugs
68
What are the signs and symptoms in a history indicating lymphoma?
Painless progressive lymphadenopathy - develops over weeks/months (could just be due to infection, so requires careful history) B symptoms: fatigue, drenching night sweats, fever <38, weight loss >10% 6 mnths Pruritus Mediastinal involvement (thymus or mediastinal lymph nodes) dyspnoea, cough, chest pain
69
What symptoms of lymphoma indicated extranodal involvement?
More common in NHL Bone marrow - symptoms of anaemia, infection, easy bruising and bleeding Abdomen - bloating, early satiety, pain, unable to pass stools and vomiting if obstructed Retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy - urinary retention Skin - new skin lesions, jaundice Testicular swelling CNS - behavioural change, headache, confusion, nausea and vomiting, seizures, weakness, sensory changes
70
What are the clinical findings seen on examination in lymphoma?
Non tender, firm, matted lymph nodes In Hodgkin's - cervical, supraclavicular, axillary In NHL - more rapidly growing and bulky Mediastinal mass - may cause SVC obstruction, effusions, airway obstruction Abdomen - splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, abdominal mass Skin - T cell lymphomas inc mycosis fungoides, jaundice Testicular mass Neurological weakness, sensory abnormalities, features of raised ICP
71
What are some differentials for lymphadenopathy?
Viral infective - URTI, mono, rubella, measles, CMV, adenovirus, HIV Bacterial infection - TB, typhoid, syphillis, lyme's, brucellosis Malignant - leukaemia, neuroblastoma Autoimmune - JIA, SLE, drug reaxtions
72
What is the most common cause of lymphadenopathy in children?
Infection
73
What are the investigations for lymphoma?
Bedside: Pbs, swabs (rule out infection) urine dip, ECG - check before starting cardiotoxic chemo Bloods: FBC - pancytopenia or leukaemia, (anaemia, thrombocytopenia, raised WBC in leukaemia) U&Es - baseline kidney function LDH and urate - raised in high cell turnover LFTs, low albumin = worse prognosis Monospot test - exclude EBV Hep B/HIV risk of reactivation with rituximab G6PD def identified as tx can cause haemolytic crisis ESR - worse prognosis if raised Imaging: CXR - mass CT/MRI/PET - staging USS liver or spleen Biopsies of enlarged node Fine needle aspiration Excision or partial biopsy
74
What classification is used for lymphoma?
Ann Arbor for Hodgkin's St Jude's for non-Hodgkin's I - 1 group on 1 side of diaphragm II - >2 groups same side III - nodes on both side IV Hodgkin's - extranodal sites beyond E IV NHL - disseminated, multifocal A: no systemic symptoms B: systemic symptoms
75
What is the management of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Chemo Radio <50% children, PET scan assess response after 2 cycles of chemo and if still going, need adjuvant radiotherapy Lymphocyte predominant HL has less intensive tx - usually surgery or low dose chemo sufficient
76
What is the management of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Chemo Regime depends on type and staging B cell usually 4-6 invasive T cell NHL less invasive, lasts 2-3 years Biologics e.g. rituximab Radio as adjuvant rarely Bone marrow transplant for relapsed patients Lymphoblastic lymphoma treated according to ALL
77
What are the short term complications of lymphoma?
``` SVC obstruction Bowel obstruction/perforation Cytopenias Pericardial or pleural effusions Pain from tumour invasion Tumour lysis syndrome ```
78
What are the short term complications of lymphoma treatment?
``` Neutropenic sepsis Mucositis, diarrhoea Anorexia, weight loss Alopecia Nausea and vomiting Fatigue Tumour lysis syndrome ```
79
What are the long term complications of the treatment for lymphoma?
``` Secondary cancers Cardiotoxicity Pulmonary toxicity Renal impairment Growth impairment Infertility ```
80
What is tumour lysis syndrome?
Oncological emergency caused by lysis of tumour cells either due to chemo or spontaneously in highly proliferative tumours
81
What can tumour lysis syndrome result in?
Hyperphosphataemia Hyperkalaemia Hypocalcaemia Hyperuricaemia AKI Cardiac arrhythmias Nausea and vomiting Seizures
82
What can help prevent tumour lysis syndrome occurring?
Prophylactic hydration Allopurinol Prior to chemo Rasburicase can be used if white cell count >50, breaks down uric acid (check no G6PD def) Allopurinol prevents uric acid production
83
What is the treatment of tumour lysis syndrome?
``` Aggressive hydration Rasburicase - drug mimics urate oxidase (not present in humans) Allopurinol Haemofiltration Dialysis ```
84
What is DIC?
``` Disseminated intravascular coagulation Systemic activation of blood coagulation Generates intravascular fibrin Leads to thrombosis of small and medium sized vessels Organ dysfunction ```
85
What are the common causes of DIC?
Severe sepsis or shock due to circulatory collapse e.g. meningococcal sepsis damage from trauma or burns May be acute or chronic Likely initiated through tissue factor pathway
86
What are the predominant features of DIC?
Bruising Purpura Haemorrhage Pathophysiological process - microvascular thrombosis, purpura fulminans
87
How can DIC be detected?
``` No single test Thrombocytopenia Prolonged prothrombin time Prolonged APTT Low fibrinogen Raised fibrinogen degradation products D-dimers Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia ```
88
What is the management of DIC?
Treat underlying cause of DIC, usually sepsis Intensive care Provide fresh frozen plasma to replace clotting factors Cryoprecipitate Platelets
89
What is the purpose of the spleen?
``` Spleen contains red pulp - filtration of RBCs white pulp - active in immune response creation of RBCS if not in bone marrow storage of RBCs, lymphocytes, platelets in emergency ``` production and maturation of B and T cells and plasma cells
90
When can splenectomy occur?
Planned Traumatic - accident or surgery Autosplenectomy - physiological loss of spleen function (hyposplenism)
91
What conditions is hyposplenism associated with?
``` Sickle cell anaemia - chronic damage to spleen results in atrophy coeliac disease dermatitis herpetiformis essential thrombocythaemia ulcerative colitis ```
92
What are the indications for a splenectomy?
Trauma Spontaneous rupture - often in massive splenomegaly e.g. mono with a minor trauma Hypersplenism - hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis, immune thrombocytopenia Neoplasia - lymphoma or leukaemia Cysts, abscesses
93
What on a blood film gives an indication of hyposplenism?
Howell-Jolly bodies Basophilic nuclear remnants in circulating erythrocytes During maturation, late erythrocytes usually expel nuclei, some do not but are filtered by the spleen Therefore indicates a damage or absent spleen
94
What are the complications of hyposplenism?
Individuals with absent or dysfunctional spleen at increased risk of severe infection - encapsulated bacteria S pneumonia; pneumococcus H influenzae Hib N meningitidis Increased risk of severe falciparum malaria
95
What is the management of hyposplenic patients?
Immunisations against s pneumoniae, n meningitidis, Hib, influenza Antibiotic prophylaxis - oral phenoxymethylpenicillin or macrolides If unwell, systemic antibiotics and admit If at high risk in hyposplenism e.g.: age <16, or >50 years Poor response to pneumococcal vaccination Previous invasive pneumococcal illness Underlying haematological malignancy resulting in splenectomy
96
What is pancytopenia?
Low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets
97
What are usual causes of pancytopenia in children?
Acute leukaemias Bone marrow failure Megaloblastic anaemia Can be due to reduced production: (Or increased removal - rare) B12/folate deficiency Drugs - chemo, abx, anticonvulsants, psychotropic drugs, DMARDs Viruses Malignancy Radiation Idiopathic aplastic anaemia Congenital bone marrow failure e.g. Fanconi's anaemia
98
What are some of the symptoms of pancytopenia?
``` Tired, weak, dizzy, SOB Frequent fevers, infection Pale skin, petechiae Bleeding Bruising easily Heavy menstruation Blood in bowel movements ```
99
How is pancytopenia diagnosed and treated?
Bloods, bone marrow biopsy/aspiration Blood transfusion Stem cell transplant
100
What drugs and chemicals can cause haemolysis in children with G6PD deficiency?
Antimalarials e.g. primaquine, quinine, chloroquine Abx Sulphonamides Quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin Nitrofurantoin Aspirin in high doses Chemicals Naphthalene - mothballs Fava beans - divicine
101
What is HbSC disease?
Affected children inherit HbS from one parent, and HbC from another whereas sickle cell anaemia is HbSS and both HbAs replaced with HbS and HbC so no normal HbA - no normal beta globulin genes Fewer painful crises than those with HbSS But may develop proliferative retinopathy so have eyes checked
102
What are beta thalassaemias?
Beta thalassaemia major - HbA not produced Beta thalassaemia intermedia - small amount HbA produced, anaemia not bad enough to need blood transfusions Minor - one normal gene, heterozygous Small amount of HbA produced
103
What occurs in thalassaemias?
Low level of intracellular haemoglobin leads to hypochromic microcytic cells
104
What are alpha thalassaemias?
Silent carrier state Deletion of a single α-globin gene. It is asymptomatic, without anaemia α-Thalassemia trait Deletion of two α-globin genes There is minimal or no anaemia and no physical signs; findings are identical to those of β-thalassemia minor (microcytosis and hypochromia) Haemoglobin H (HbH) disease Deletion of three α-globin genes. Tetramers of β-globin, called HbH, are formed There is moderately severe anaemia, resembling β-thalassemia intermedia (microcytic, hypochromic anaemia with target cells and Heinz bodies in the blood film) Hydrops fetalis Deletion of all four α-globin genes In the foetus, excess of γ-globin chains form tetramers (Hb Bart) that are unable to deliver the oxygen to tissues. Usually intrauterine death
105
What are the clinical features of beta thalassaemia major?
Severe anaemia, transfusion dependent Failure to thrive Extramedullary haemopoesis - prevented by regular transfusions ``` Pallor Jaundice Bossing of skull Maxillary overgrowth Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Need for repeated transfusions ```
106
What are the complications of long term blood transfusion in children?
Iron deposition - cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, diabetes, delayed growth, hyperpigmentation Alloantibodies makes finding compatible blood hard Infection - rare HIV, Hep A B C, prions Venous access difficult, device may be needed Could then cause infection
107
What is Fanconi anaemia?
Inherited form of aplastic anaemia Congenital abnormalities - short stature, abnormal thumbs, renal malformations At high risk of death from bone marrow failure or transformation to acute leukaemia
108
What is aplastic anaemia?
Pancytopenia | Hypocellular bone marrow in absence of abnormal infiltrate or marrow fibrosis
109
What is the inheritance of haemophilia A and B?
X linked recessive
110
Features of haemophilia?
Spontaneous bleeding into joints and muscles Can lead to crippling arthritis In neonatal period, risk of intracranial haemorrhage Haem A - prophylactic FVIII Haem B - FIX
111
What are the features of vWD?
Autosomal dominant Carriers can still have some deficiency Defective platelet plug Bruising Excessive prolonged bleeding after surgery Mucosal bleeding e.g. epistaxis, menorrhagia
112
What are examples of acquired disorders of coagulation?
Haemorrhagic disease of newborn due to Vit K deficiency Liver disease Immune thrombocytopenia DIC
113
How might a child be deficient in Vit K?
Inadequate intake Malabsorption - coeliac, CF, obstructive jaundice Vit K antagonists e.g. warfarin
114
What is ITP?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Characterised by idiopathic thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) causing a purpuric non-blanching rash Type II hypersensitivity reaction Produces antibodies which destroy platelets
115
What is the presentation of ITP?
Usually <10s Hx recent viral illness Onset of symptoms over 24-48 hrs Bleeding - gums, epistaxis, menorrhagia Bruising Petechial, purpuric rash - bleeding under skin
116
What is ecchymoses?
Large area of blood collected under the skin more than 10 mm | Non bllanching lesion
117
What is the management of ITP?
FBC, platelet count Exclude other causes of low platelet count - e.g. heparin induced, or leukaemia Tx only needed if severe thrombocytopenia - below 10, or patient actively bleeding Prednisolone IV immunoglobulins Blood transfusions Platelet transfusions work temporarily as antibodies will attack again
118
What is some advice given withITP?
Avoid contact sports Avoid IM injections, procedures such as LPs Avoid NSAIDs, blood thinners Advice on managing nosebleeds Seek help after any injury that could have caused internal bleeding
119
What are the complications of ITP?
Chronic ITP Anaemia Intracranial and subarachnoid haemorrhage GI bleeding