Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is ALL?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of immature lymphoid precursor cells within bone marrow leading to bone marrow failure and presence of increased lymphoblasts in peripheral blood

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2
Q

Epidemiology of ALL?

A

Most common leukaemia in children
Peak incidence between 2 and 5 years
Second peak in older adults

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3
Q

Aetiology of ALL?

A

Genetic syndromes; Downs syndrome, klinefelter’s syndrome, fanconi anaemia

Exposure to ionising radiation

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4
Q

Classification of ALL?

A

B cell lineage
T cell lineage

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5
Q

Signs and symptoms of ALL?

A

Fatigue
Bleeding/ bruising
Infection

Painless lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
CNS involvement
Testicular infiltration

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6
Q

Differentials for ALL?

A

Aplastic anaemia
CLL
Non hodgkin lymphoma

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7
Q

Investigations to diagnose ALL?

A

FBC; leukocytosis
Blood film/ bone marrow; lymphoblast
Immunophenotyping; differentiate immunological subtype
Periodic acid- Schiff stains for carbohydrate in ALL

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8
Q

NICE guidance for urgent FBC?

A

Pallor
Persistent fatigue
Unexplained fever
Unexplained persistent or recurrent infection
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Unexplained bruising
Unexplained bleeding
Unexplained petechiae
Hepatosplenomegaly

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9
Q

Management of ALL?

A

Combination chemotherapy
CNS prophylactic agents
Maintenance therapy

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10
Q

Which sites are considered sanctuary sites in ALL?

A

Testes
Blood brain barrier

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11
Q

How is response to ALL treatment monitored?

A

Blast count should be below <5%
PCR
Immunoglobulin genes in B-cell ALL
T-cell receptor genes in T-cell ALL

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12
Q

Complications of ALL?

A

Infections
Bleeding
CNS
Chemotherapy related toxicities

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13
Q

Poor prognostic factors for ALL?

A

Age <1 year and >10 years
Male sex
WCC >50 × 109/l (higher pretreatment WCC predicts poor prognosis)
CNS disease
poor cytogenetic features, such as t(9;22)
T-ALL – prognosis is worse than for B-ALL
Incomplete response to therapy

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14
Q

What is AML?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid precursors in the bone marrow leading to bone marrow failure and accumulation of immature blast cells in peripheral blood

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15
Q

Epidemiology of AML?

A

Higher incidence in older adults
Exposure to ionising radiation, nuclear disaster increase risk

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16
Q

Signs and symptoms of AML?

A

Bone marrow failure – anaemia, bleeding, infections
Signs of tissue infiltration, including hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and gum hypertrophy
Central nervous system involvement is rare
Constitutional symptoms such as fever and unintentional weight loss

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17
Q

Differentials for AML?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome
ALL
Aplastic anaemia

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18
Q

Investigations to diagnose AML?

A

Bloods; leucocytosis
Blood film; blast cells
Bone marrow biopsy; hypercellular marrow, presence of blast cells, auer rods
Cytochemistry
Cytogenetics
Immunophenotyping

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19
Q

Management of AML?

A

Chemotherapy
Bone marrow transplant
Prophylactic antibiotics
Blood products

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20
Q

Treatment related toxicities for leukaemia?

A

Myelosuppression
Mucositis
Increased risk of secondary malignancies.
Cardiorespiratory complications
Endocrine dysfunction
Infertility
Avascular necrosis of the hip – due to prolonged steroid exposure
Neuropsychological effects

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21
Q

Complications of AML?

A

Infections
Bleeding
Organ infiltration; hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
Treatment related toxicities

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22
Q

Prognosis of AML?

A

Without treatment death in 2 months
3 year survival is 20%

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23
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

Deposition of extracellular insoluble fibrils composed of misfolded proteins in organs and blood vessels leading to organ dysfunction

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24
Q

Epidemiology of amyloidosis?

A

8-12 cases per million
More common in men
Presents in 5th to 7th decade of life

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25
Q

Pathophysiology of amyloidosis?

A

Systemic dissemination of protein deposits
Focal deposition such as cerebral deposition in alzheimers disease

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26
Q

Classification of amyloidosis?

A

Primary; AL amyloidosis due to deposition of monoclonal light chains in tissues

Secondary; AA amyloidosis due to underlying chronic inflammatory conditions such as malignancy, chronic microbial infection affecting any organ not the brain related to high density lipoprotein

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27
Q

Clinical features of amyloidosis?

A

Kidneys – nephrotic syndrome/renal failure
Gastrointestinal system – macroglossia, malabsorption or hepatosplenomegaly
Neurological system – neuropathies
Vasculature – periorbital purpura (“racoon eyes”)
Joints – painful asymmetrical large joint inflammation

Features of AA amyloidosis;
Nephrotic syndrome (one-third of patients)
Neuropathy (usually sensory and symmetrical)
Cardiomyopathy (usually restrictive in nature)
Hepatomegaly
Autonomic neuropathy

Features of AL amyloidosis;
Proteinuria with and without nephrotic syndrome, plus uraemia – 50% of patients die of renal failure if not treated with dialysis
Visceromegaly (spleen, liver and kidneys) is common

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28
Q

Investigations to diagnose amyloidosis?

A

Tissue biopsy; apple green bifringence when stained with congo red and viewed under polarised light

Radio labelled serum amyloid P scan

Echo, ECG, BNP, proteinuria, serum free light chains, monocloncal immunoglobulins, prothrombin time, APTT

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29
Q

Management of amyloidosis?

A

Guidance from national amyloid centre in London
Manage cardiac, gastrointestinal and renal complications
In AA amyloid; manage chronic infection and inflammation
In AL amyloid; dexamethasone and bortezomib
In hereditary amyloid consider hepatic transplantation

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30
Q

What is anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Low haemoglobin levels, decreased erythrocyte production and altered iron metabolism in response to chronic inflammatory/ infectious/ autoimmune or malignancy

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31
Q

Aetiology of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Inflammatory Conditions: Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and inflammatory bowel disease.
Chronic Infections: Tuberculosis, HIV, and osteomyelitis.
Malignancies: Leukaemia, lymphoma, and solid tumours.
Chronic Kidney Disease: Impaired erythropoietin production and iron metabolism.
Autoimmune Disorders: Systemic inflammation can lead to ACD.
Chronic Liver Disease: Hepcidin release is altered, impacting iron regulation.

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32
Q

Pathophysiology of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Chronic inflammation increases IL-1, IL-6.
IL-6 stimulates release of hepcidin from liver which inhibits iron absorption by reducing activity of ferroportin leading to decreased haemoglobin production

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33
Q

Where is ferroportin found?

A

Basolateral surface of gut enterocytes and plasma membrane of reticuloendothelial cells

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34
Q

Signs and symptoms of anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Weakness
Pallor
Shortness of breath
Rapid heartbeat
Anorexia and weight loss
Frequent infections due to increased susceptibility
Mild splenomegaly (rare)

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35
Q

Differentials for anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia
Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
Chronic kidney disease
Bone marrow disorders

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36
Q

Investigations to diagnose anaemia of chronic disease?

A

FBC; low Hb, low MCV
Blood film; normocytic normochromic
Iron studies
CRP
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

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37
Q

Management of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Treat underlying medical condition
Consider EPO agents

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38
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Bone marrow failure leading to a significant reduction in the production of all types of blood cells causing pancytopenia

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39
Q

Criteria to diagnose aplastic anaemia?

A

Atleast 2 of the following;

Anaemia: haemoglobin <10 g/dL
Thrombocytopenia: platelets <50 x 10^9/L
Neutropenia: absolute neutrophil count <1.5 x 10^8/L

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40
Q

Epidemiology of aplastic anaemia?

A

2-6 cases per million
More common in younger people
Acquired causes are toxins/ drugs/ virus induced

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41
Q

Aetiology of aplastic anaemia?

A

Acquired;
Immune mediated
Environmental; toxins, benzene, chloramphenicol, phenytoin, NSAIDs
Viral; EBV, hepatitis, parvovirus b19
Pregnancy

Inherited;
Fanconi anaemia
Dyskeratosis congenita
Shwachman diamond syndrome

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42
Q

Signs and symptoms of aplastic anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Infection
Bleeding/ bruising

Assess history;
Drug exposure in the last 6 months
Occupational exposure to chemicals
Recent infections
Co-morbidities
Genetic testing

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43
Q

Differentials for aplastic anaemia?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome
Leukaemia
Hypersplenism
Infection

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44
Q

Investigations to diagnose aplastic anaemia?

A

FBC
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
Cytogenetic testing
Haematopoetic stem cell studies
Immunological assays

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45
Q

Management of aplastic anaemia?

A

Supportive care
Haematopoetic stem cell transplant
Immunosuppressive therapy; antithymocyte therapy, cyclosporine, chemotherapy
Blood transfusion

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46
Q

Prognosis of aplastic anaemia?

A

Haematopoetic stem cell transplant offers best chance of cure

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47
Q

Lifespan of blood components?

A

RBCs, 90–120 days
platelets, 10 days
neutrophils, 4 days

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48
Q

Features of red blood cells for transfusion?

A

Generally stored at 4 °C for up to 35 days
In vivo, RBCs typically have a lifespan of about 120 days; however, it is important to note that transfused red cells last around 50–60 days

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49
Q

Features of FFP for transfusion?

A

Stored at –30 °C, with a shelf life of a year
Used in patients with coagulopathy (impaired blood coagulation) to replace clotting factors
The type of FFP used depends on the patient’s blood group

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50
Q

Features of cryoprecipitate?

A

Cryoprecipitate is made by thawing FFP overnight at 4–8 °C
It has a shelf life of 1 year stored at –30 °C
It contains fibrinogen, factor VIII and von Willebrand factor
It is generally used in patients with massive bleeding and low fibrinogen

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51
Q

Acute transfusion reactions?

A

Allergy
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction
Febrile non haemolytic transfusion reaction
Transfusion related acute lung injury
Transfusion associated circulatory overload

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52
Q

Late transfusion reactions?

A

Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
Transfusion associated graft vs host disease
Iron overload

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53
Q

What is acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Caused by giving an incompatible blood bag to a patient
Early signs include fever, abdominal pain, hypotension and anxiety
Late complications include generalised bleeding secondary to DIC

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54
Q

Management of acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Stop transfusion
Give saline
Treat DIC

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55
Q

Features of febrile non haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Mild;
A temperature rise of 1 - 2°C leading to pyrexia ≥38°C, but <39°C
And/or pruritus or a rash
WITHOUT other features

Moderate;
Temperature ≥39°C OR a rise of ≥2°C from baseline
AND/OR systemic symptoms such as chills, rigors, myalgia, nausea or vomiting)

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56
Q

What is TRALI?

A

Pulmonary oedema resulting in acute respiratory distress syndrome

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57
Q

Management of TRALI?

A

Stop transfusion
Give saline
Supplemental oxygen

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58
Q

Management of transfusion associated circulatory overload?

A

Stop transfusion
Furosemide
Supplemntal oxygen

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59
Q

What is basophilic stippling?

A

Blue staining of ribosomal precipitates within cytoplasm of red blood cells

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60
Q

In which conditions is basophilic stippling seen?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia
Thalassemia, in particular alpha
Sideroblastic anaemia
Lead poisoning
Alcohol abuse
Pyrimidine 5@- nucleotidase deficiency

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61
Q

What are Howell Jolly bodies?

A

Single peripheral bodies within red cells representing DNA material typically removed by spleen

Presence of these bodies can represent hyposplenism

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62
Q

What is schistocytes?

A

Fragments of red cells seen in microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

Irregularly shaped, jagged and have 2 end points

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63
Q

Causes of macroangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

A

Isolated syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
Disseminated intravascular coagulation

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64
Q

What is left shift?

A

Presence of immature cells including presence of band cells due to unlobed neutrophil nucleus present as a band

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65
Q

Causes of left shift?

A

Acute infection
Myeloproliferative disorder
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Myelofibrosis
Acute leukaemia

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66
Q

What is right shift?

A

Signifies neutrophil maturation and presence of hypermature neutrophils with more than 5 lobes

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67
Q

When is right shift seen?

A

Chronic infections
Use of granulocyte- colony stimulating factor therapy
Megaloblastic anaemia

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68
Q

What is reticulocytosis?

A

Presence of immature red blood cells indicating high red cell turnover and increased bone marrow production and released

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69
Q

Causes of reticulocytosis?

A

Haemolysis
Acute bleeding

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70
Q

What are target cells?

A

Non specific blood film finding

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71
Q

When are target cells seen?

A

Obstructive liver disease
Haemoglobinopathies; thalassaemia, sickle cell
Post splenectomy

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72
Q

What is rouleaux formation?

A

Stacks of aggregated red blood cells when plasma protein concentration is high

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73
Q

Causes of rouleaux formation?

A

Multiple myeloma
Waldenstorm’s macroglobulinaemia
Inflammatory disorders
Malignancies

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74
Q

What is leukoerythroblastosis?

A

Presence of immature red blood cells and left shift

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75
Q

Causes of leukoerythroblastosis?

A

Marrow fibrosis
Invasion
Primary myelofibrosis
Metastatic cancer
TB
Gaucher’s disease

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76
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

Variation in red blood cell size (MCV)

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77
Q

Causes of anisocytosis?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia; most common
Sickle cell anaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Thalassaemia

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78
Q

What are acanthocytes?

A

Red blood cells that appear irregularly spiked on a blood film due to altered lipid/ protein composition of the red blood cells plasma membrane

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79
Q

Causes of acanthocytes?

A

Liver disease
Neuroacanthocytosis, anorexia nervosa, hypothyridism, myelodysplasia

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80
Q

What is a cabot ring?

A

Round red blood cell inclusions, slender loops seen in cytoplasm of

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81
Q

Causes of cabot rings?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia
Lead poisoning
Leukaemia

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82
Q

What are burr cells?

A

Red cells with small irregularly distributed projections across cell surface

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83
Q

Causes of burr cells?

A

Liver disease
Vitamin E deficiency
End stage renal disease
Haemolytic enzyme disorder

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84
Q

What is CLL?

A

Accumulation of mature monoclonal B lymphocytes in blood, bone marrow and lymphoid tissue

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85
Q

Epidemiology of CLL?

A

Most common in men over age of 60 years
Most common leukaemia in western countries

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86
Q

Aetiology of CLL?

A

Genetic and environmental factors
Family history

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87
Q

Presentation of CLL?

A

Non-tender symmetrical lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
B symptoms – weight loss, night sweats and fever
Bone marrow failure; infection, anaemia, bleeding

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88
Q

Differentials for CLL?

A

Hairy cell leukemia
Small lymphocytic lymphoma
Infection

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89
Q

Investigations to diagnose CLL?

A

FBC
Blood film
Immunophenotyping; CD5/ CD23 positive, FMC negative
Direct antiglobulin test positive

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90
Q

System used to stage CLL?

A

Binet’s system

Based on lymphoid tissue enlargement, haemoglobin and platelets

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91
Q

Management of CLL?

A

Chemotherapy, rituximab
Allogenic stem cell transplant
Steroids
Antibiotics

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92
Q

Complications of CLL?

A

Infections
Transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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93
Q

Factors that affect prognosis of CLL?

A

Disease stage
Atypical lymphocyte morphology
Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
Bone marrow trephine showing diffuse involvement
Chromosomal/genetic abnormalities, in particular TP53
Unmutated immunoglobulin VH (IGVH) gene status
Male sex
High expression CD38

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94
Q

Prognosis of CLL?

A

CLL is a very variable disease: 1/3 of cases don’t progress, 1/3 of cases progress slowly, and 1/3 of cases progress actively.

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95
Q

What is CML?

A

Myeloproliferative neoplasm characterised by presence of Philadelphia chromosome resulting in uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid cells in bone marrow

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96
Q

What is the philadelphia chromosome?

A

Reciprocal translocation of genetic material between chromosomes 9 and 22, leading to the formation of the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene

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97
Q

Epidemiology of CML?

A

Middle aged patients 40-50 years
More common in men than women

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98
Q

Aetiology of CML?

A

BCR-ABL1 fusion gene
Previous high dose ionising radiation

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99
Q

Presentation of CML?

A

Weight loss
Tiredness
Fever
Sweating
Massive splenomegaly
Bleeding
Gout

Hyperleukocytosis;
Visual disturbance
Confusion
Priapism
Deafness

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100
Q

Differentials for CML?

A

Reactive leukocytosis
Polycytaemia vera
Essential thrombocythemia

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101
Q

Investigations for CML?

A

FBC; raised myeloid cells, anaemia
Blood film; blast cells, leucocytosis
Bone marrow analysis; hyperplasia, fibrosis, granulocyte predominance
High vitamin B12
Philadelphia chromosome

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102
Q

Management of CML?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor- imatinib
Hydroxycarbamide
Stem cell transplantation

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103
Q

Side effects of TKI?

A

Nausea
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia
Fluid retention

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104
Q

Complications of CML?

A

Blast crisis
Resistance to TKI
Secondary malignancies

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105
Q

Prognosis of CML?

A

Chronic phase lasts 2-5 years
Median survival of 5-6 years

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106
Q

What is a DVT?

A

A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blood clot or thrombus that blocks a deep vein, commonly in the legs or pelvis.

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107
Q

Risk factors for DVT?

A

Thrombophilia
Hormonal (COCP, pregnancy and the postpartum period, HRT)
Relatives (family history of VTE)
Older age (>60)
Malignancy
Bone fractures
Obesity
Smoking
Immobilisation (long-distance travel, recent surgery or trauma)
Sickness (e.g. acute infection, dehydration)

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108
Q

Epidemiology of DVT?

A

Affects 1-2 per 1000
Common in unwell patients in hospital and affects upto 37% of critically ill patients

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109
Q

Signs and symptoms of DVT?

A

Unilateral erythema, warmth, swelling and pain in the affected area
Pain on palpation of deep veins
Distention of superficial veins
Difference in calf circumference if the leg is affected
This should be measured 10cm below the tibial tuberosity
3cm difference between the legs is significant

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110
Q

Differentials for DVT?

A

Cellulitis
Calf muscle tear
Superficial thrombophlebitis
Compartment syndrome

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111
Q

Investigations to diagnose DVT?

A

If wells score under 1;
Order D-dimer and if positive order leg vein ultrasound

If wells score over 2; perform leg vein ultrasound scan

Baseline bloods; FBC, U+E, LFT, CRP, TFT, coagulation

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112
Q

Management of DVT?

A

DOAC; apixaban, rivaroxaban is first line, LMWH is second line

Anticoagulation for 3 months, 3-6 months in cancer patients

In provoked DVTs with risk factor identifiable treatment can be stopped in 3 months and reviewed with baseline bloods

If provoked consider testing for thrombophilia with antiphospholipid antibodies

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113
Q

Complications of DVT?

A

Pulmonary embolism
Post thrombotic syndrome
Anticoagulation complications

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114
Q

What is DIC?

A

Inappropriate activation of clotting cascade resulting in thrombus formation leading to depletion of clotting factors and platelets

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115
Q

Aetiology of DIC?

A

Major trauma or burns
Multi-organ failure
Severe sepsis or infection
Severe obstetric complications
Solid tumours or haematological malignancies
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an uncommon subtype of AML that is associated with DIC

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116
Q

Signs and symptoms of DIC?

A

Excessive bleeding e.g. epistaxis, gingival bleeding, haematuria, bleeding/oozing from cannula sites
Fever
Confusion
Potential coma

Petechiae
Bruising
Confusion
Hypotension

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117
Q

Differentials for DIC?

A

Coagulopathies
Sepsis
Multiorgan failure

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118
Q

Investigations to diagnose DIC?

A

Blood tests, including:
FBC (thrombocytopenia)
Blood film may show schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
Raised d-dimer (a fibrin degradation product)
Clotting profile - increased prothrombin time (due to consumption of clotting factors), increased APTT, decreased fibrinogen (consumed due to microvascular thrombi)

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119
Q

Management of DIC?

A

Treat cause
Transfusion of platelets, clotting factors
Anticoagulation

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120
Q

Mode of inheritance of G6PD deficiency?

A

X- linked recessive

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121
Q

Pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency?

A

G6PD enzyme generates NADP, NADPH and glutathione – important for maintaining the integrity of the RBC membrane
It also helps to protect the red cells against oxidative damage

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122
Q

Epidemiology of G6PD deficiency?

A

Males are affected and females tend to be carriers
More common in west african, southern europe, middle east and south east asia
Usually asymptomatic until significant intravascular haemolysis is triggered by oxidative stress

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123
Q

Triggers of G6PD deficiency?

A

Intercurrent illness or infection (often forgotten)
Fava beans – the disease was historically known as ‘favism’
Henna
Medications (eg. primaquine, sulpha-drugs, nitrofurantoin, dapsone, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs/aspirin)

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124
Q

Investigations to diagnose G6PD deficiency?

A

Blood film; Heinz bodies, red cell fragmentation, bite cells, spherocytosis, reticulocytosis

G6PD enzyme assay

Direct antiglobulin test is negative

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125
Q

Management of G6PD deficiency?

A

Avoidance of precipitants
Maintaining good hydration
Rarely blood transfusions may be required by some patients

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126
Q

Inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

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127
Q

Pathophysiology of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Mutation in red cell membrane protein resulting in abnormal red cell cytoskeleton due to deficiency in spectrin, ankyrin and band 3

This makes red cells more fragile and prone to osmotic fragility

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128
Q

Clinical presentation of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Jaundice
Gallstones
Anaemia
Splenomegaly

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129
Q

Investigations to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?

A

FBC
Blood film; spherocytes
Direct antiglobulin test

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130
Q

Management of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Folic acid supplementation
Splenectomy before age of 5 can be curative

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131
Q

Inheritance of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Autosomal recessive

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132
Q

Pathophysiology of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Deficiency of pyruvate kinase (involved in the glycolytic pathway) leads to unstable RBC enzymes, with reduced ATP production

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133
Q

Investigations to diagnose pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Blood film; echinocytes/ burr cells, reticulocytosis
LDH and haptoglobin elevated
Pyruvate kinase levels assay

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134
Q

Clinical features of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Jaundice
Gallstone
Bone marrow expansion

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135
Q

Management of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Supportive
Splenectomy

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136
Q

What is essential thrombocytosis?

A

Myeloproliferative disorder caused by dysregulated megakaryocyte proliferation

Often due to JAK2 or V617F mutation

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137
Q

Epidemiology of essential thrombocytosis?

A

The disease is most common in women aged 50–70 years.

Median survival is 10–15 years.

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138
Q

Signs and symptoms of essential thrombocytosis?

A

50% of patients are asymptomatic, with only an incidental FBC finding
Thrombosis (arterial or venous)
Bleeding (gastrointestinal or intracranial)
Hyperviscosity-related - dizziness/syncope, headache
Splenomegaly
Hyposplenism (caused by multiple splenic infarcts)
Erythromelalgia (a red/blue discolouration of the extremities, often accompanied by a burning pain)
Livedo reticularis (a net-like purple rash)

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139
Q

Differentials for essential thrombocytosis?

A

Transient thrombocytosis can be triggered by infection, bleeding, thrombosis, iron deficiency, hyposplenism or trauma

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140
Q

Investigations to diagnose essential thrombocytosis?

A

FBC; platelets over 450x10*9
JAK2 or V617F mutation
Trephine biopsy- hypercellular bone marrow and pathological megakaryocytic clumping

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141
Q

How are patients with essential thrombocytosis classified?

A

Low risk;
Age under 40 years AND
Platelet count <1500 × 109/l
No history of thrombosis or haemorrhage
No cardiovascular risk factors (diabetes, hypertension, obesity and smoking)

Intermediate risk;
In between high and low risk

High risk;
Age over 60
Platelet count >1500 × 109/l
Previous history of thrombosis or haemorrhage
Diabetes or hypertension

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142
Q

Management of essential thrombocytosis?

A

Low risk; aspirin alone

Intermediate risk; hydroxycarbamide and aspirin OR aspirin alone

High risk; hydroxycarbamide and aspirin

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143
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia

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144
Q

Causes of pancytopenia?

A

Chemotherapy, radiotherapy
Vitamin B12, folate deficiency
Marrow infiltration
Myelofibrosis
Multiple myeloma
Inherited causes; fanconi’s anaemia
Liver conditions; autoimmune hepatitis
Drug induced

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145
Q

What is neutrophilia?

A

High neutrophil count

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146
Q

Causes of neutrophilia?

A

Severe stress;
Trauma
Surgery
Necrosis
Burns
Haemorrhage
Seizures

Active inflammation;
Polyarteritis nodosa
Myocardial infarction
Disseminated malignancy

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147
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

Neutrophil count below 0.5 x10*9

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148
Q

Causes of neutropenia?

A

Severe sepsis
Viral infection
Drugs - such as chemotherapy
Marrow failure (due to malignancy or infiltration
Hypersplenism (less common)
Felty’s syndrome (less common)
SLE (less common)

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149
Q

What is agranulocytosis?

A

Associated with depleted levels of basophils and eosinophils

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150
Q

Drugs that cause agranulocytosis?

A

Carbamazepine
Carbimazole
Clozapine

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151
Q

What is lymphocytosis?

A

Raised lymphocytes

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152
Q

Causes of lymphocytosis?

A

Acute viral infection (especially EBV and CMV)
Chronic atypical infection (tuberculosis, brucella, toxoplasmosis)
Lymphoproliferative disorders (chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and lymphoma)

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153
Q

Causes of eosinophilia?

A

Infections e.g. parasitic worms
Allergy including drug reactions
Inflammatory diseases e.g. eosinophilic granulomatosis and polyangiitis

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154
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low platelet count caused by decreased production or increased consumption?

155
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Elevated platelet count over 450 x 10*9

156
Q

Causes of thrombocytosis?

A

Primary (essential) thrombocytosis is caused by dysregulated megakaryocyte (platelet precursor) proliferation. This is often due to a JAK2 V617F mutation, present in over half of patients with the condition.
Secondary thrombocytosis is triggered by a precipitant (eg. infection, bleeding, thrombosis, iron deficiency, hyposplenism or trauma)

157
Q

Triggers for G6PD deficiency?

A

Medications; antibiotics (trimethoprim and quinolones such as ciprofloxacin), antimalarials (primaquine, quinidine, chloroquine), aspirin, NSAIDs, dapsone
Infection
Fava beans
Chemical exposure
Mental/ physical stress
Tonic water, soy products

158
Q

Signs and symptoms of G6PD deficiency?

A

Most individuals with G6PD deficiency remain asymptomatic until exposed to triggers
Jaundice: Caused by increased bilirubin levels due to haemolysis. Babies may present with neonatal jaundice.
Pallor: Resulting from anaemia.
Dark Urine: Due to haemoglobinuria, a consequence of haemolysis.
Fatigue and weakness: May result from chronic, low-level haemolysis.
Gallstones (pigmented)

159
Q

Differentials for G6PD deficiency?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Thalassemia

160
Q

Complications of G6PD deficiency?

A

Acute haemolysis
Chronic anaemia
Infection susceptibility

161
Q

What is haemolytic anaemia?

A

Premature destruction of red blood cells leading to a decreased lifespan

162
Q

Classification of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Hereditary haemolytic anaemia; sickle cell, thalassemia, hereditary spherocytosis

Acquired haemolytic anaemia; malaria, medication, mechanical trauma

Intravascular haemolysis;
Intrinsic cellular injury (eg. G6PD deficiency)
Intravascular complement-mediated lysis (some autoimmune haemolytic anaemias)
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria and acute transfusion reactions
Mechanical injury – microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and cardiac valves
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA)

Extravascular haemolysis;
Abnormal red cells (e.g. sickle cell anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis)
Normal cells having been marked by antibodies for splenic phagocytosis

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia; SLE, lymphoproliferative neoplasm (CLL, lymphoma), methyldopa

Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia; post infection, lymphoproliferative disorders

Non autoimmune haemolytic anaemia;
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
Physical lysis of red cells (e.g. malaria, patients with mechanical heart valves)
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) – often caused by E. coli 0157:H7
Infectious causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) such as fulminant meningococcaemia

163
Q

Signs and symptoms of Haemolytic anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice - Haemolysis releases bilirubin into the bloodstream, causing yellowing of the skin and sclera
Splenomegaly - The spleen becomes enlarged as it works to remove and destroy the damaged red blood cells.
Dark Urine
Gallstones - Excess bilirubin can accumulate in the gallbladder, increasing the risk of gallstone formation.
Leg Ulcers - In severe cases, reduced blood flow and oxygen supply can lead to painful leg ulcers.
Shortness of Breath
Heart Palpitations

Sickle Cell Disease: Vaso-occlusive pain, acute chest syndrome, and strokes.
Thalassemias: Profound anaemia, skeletal deformities, and organ enlargement.
Hereditary Spherocytosis: Splenomegaly and fatigue due to haemolysis.
Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia: Variable symptoms linked to haemolysis extent and underlying autoimmune conditions.
Infections (e.g., Malaria): Fever, fatigue, and organ dysfunction.
Medication-Induced: Variable symptoms, jaundice, and specific drug-related effects.

164
Q

Investigations to diagnose autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

FBC
Blood film; reticulocytosis
LFT
Raised LDH
Raised urinary urobilinogen

165
Q

Management of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Supportive care
Immunosuppression; corticosteroids
Splenectomy

166
Q

Inheritance pattern of haemophilia?

A

X linked recessive

167
Q

What factor is deficient in haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII

168
Q

What factor is deficient in haemophilia B?

169
Q

Epidemiology of haemophilia?

A

1 in 5000 men in Haemophilia A

1 in 25000 men in haemophilia B

170
Q

Signs and symptoms of haemophilia?

A

Spontaneous deep and severe bleeding into soft tissue, joint and muscles
Excessive bleeding from trauma or surgical intervention
Cerebral haemorrhage can cause mortality

171
Q

Differentials for haemophilia?

A

Von willebrand disease
Factor V, VII, X, XI, XIII deficiency
Platelet disorder
Liver disease
Haematological malignancy
Trauma
Infectious disease
Vasculitis
Drug induced thrombocytopenia

172
Q

Investigations to diagnose haemophilia?

A

Factor VIII/ IX assay
Clotting profile - APTT is elevated
vWF antigen is normal in haemophilia A
Defective platelet function

173
Q

Management of haemophilia?

A

Recombinant factor VIII/ IX
Desmopressin in minor bleeds
Tranexamic acid

174
Q

Causes of high INR?

A

Overdose of anticoagulant medication
Drug interaction (e.g. antibiotics, antifungals, Aspirin, Amiodarone)
Herbal products
Increase in alcohol consumption
Decrease in consumption of foods containing vitamin K
Liver failure
Infection

175
Q

Assessment of high INR?

A

History;
Dosing history of anticoagulant
Concurrent illness
Change in medications
Change in diet/lifestyle (including alcohol and tobacco use)
History of any falls/injuries

History of blood loss;
Haemoptysis
Haematemesis
Melaena
Bleeding from the gums

Examination;
Evidence of bleeding
Overt blood loss
Bruising

Bloods;
Full blood count to check for concurrent anaemia, signs of infection
Clotting screen to check for other clotting abnormalities

176
Q

Management of high INR?

A

Consider CT head

Major bleeding;
Stop anticoagulants
Administer IV vitamin K
Administer prothrombin complex (preferred to FFP)

Minor bleeding;
Stop anticoagulants
Administer IV vitamin K
Repeat INR after 24 hours, may need further vitamin K

No bleeding with INR > 8;
Stop anticoagulants
Administer IV or oral vitamin K
Repeat INR after 24 hours

No bleeding with INR > 5;
Withhold 1-2 doses of anticoagulant
Review maintenance dose of anticoagulant

177
Q

What is Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma is malignant lymphoma characterised by the presence of Reed–Sternberg cells.

178
Q

Risk factors for hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Epstein–Barr virus
HIV
Immunosuppression
Cigarette smoking

179
Q

Clinical presentation of hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Cervical/ supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
B symptoms
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly

180
Q

Histological subtypes of hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Lymphocyte predominant (infiltration of T cells)
Nodular sclerosing (bands of fibrous tissue separate nodules of Hodgkin’s disease)
Mixed picture
Lymphocyte depleted (no infiltrating lymphocytes

181
Q

Ann arbor staging of hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Stage I – involvement of a single nodal group
Stage II – involvement of two or more nodal groups on the same side of the diaphragm
Stage III – involvement of nodal groups on both sides of the diaphragm
Stage IV – disseminated disease with involvement of extralymphatic organs (eg. the bones or lung)

Additional staging variables include:

(A) if the patient is asymptomatic or (B) if the patient presents with B symptoms (fever, night sweats or weight loss; often confers poorer prognosis)
X if there is bulky nodal disease (>10 cm or >1/3 of the intrathoracic diameter)
(S) if there is splenic involvement
(E) if there is extranodal disease

182
Q

Investigations to diagnose hodgkins lymphoma?

A

FBC, CRP, ESR
Lymph node biopsy
LDH
CT/ PET scan

183
Q

Management of hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Chemotherapy; ABVD (Adriamycin® (doxorubicin), bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine)

Second line therapy; ESHAP (etoposide, cytosine arabinoside, methylprednisolone (high dose steroids) and cisplatin)

Autologous transplant

184
Q

Prognosis of hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Variable

Depends on
Histopathological disease type – lymphocyte-predominant has the best prognosis; lymphocyte-depleted has the worst prognosis
Disease bulk
Clinical stage

185
Q

What is ITP?

A

Autoimmune condition characterised by reduction in number of circulating platelets

Type II hypersensitivity reaction where spleen produces antibodies to GP IIb/ IIIa

186
Q

Epidemiology of ITP?

A

More common in children following viral infection
More common in firls

187
Q

Aetiology of ITP?

A

Viral infection
Autoimmune conditions (i.e. systemic lupus erythematosus)
Infections (i.e. H pylori and CMV)
Medications
Lymphoproliferative disorders

188
Q

Signs and symptoms of ITP?

A

Easy/ excessive bleeding
Superficial bleeding petechiae
Prolonged bleeding from cuts
Spontaneous bleeding from gums/ nose
Blood in urine/ stools
Heavy menstrual flow

189
Q

Differentials for ITP?

A

Aplastic anaemia
Leukaemia
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

190
Q

Investigations to diagnose ITP?

A

FBC
Blood film
Inflammatory markers
Bone marrow biopsy

191
Q

Management of ITP?

A

Tranexamic acid
IVIG
Steroids
Splenectomy

192
Q

Complications of ITP?

A

Significant bleeds
Intracranial haemorrhage

193
Q

Prognosis of ITP?

A

Self limiting
1 in 5 children have chronic course

194
Q

What is Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Haematological disorder as a result of insufficient iron resulting in low haemoglobin and low oxygen carrying capacity

195
Q

Epidemiology of IDA?

A

More common in young children and women of child bearing age
More common in elderly

196
Q

Aetiology of IDA?

A

Dietary Insufficiency: Inadequate iron intake, especially in individuals with restrictive diets or limited access to iron-rich foods.
Chronic Blood Loss: Gastrointestinal bleeding, heavy menstrual periods, and other sources of chronic blood loss (e.g. angiodysplasia) can deplete iron stores.
Malabsorption Disorders: Conditions like coeliac disease, inflammatory bowel disease and atrophic gastritis can hinder iron absorption in the gut. Hookworms are a more prominent cause in tropical setting.
Increased Demand: During pregnancy and rapid growth phases, the body’s iron requirements can surpass the available supply. This can also occur if there is chronic haemolysis

197
Q

Signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Tiredness
Lethargy
Weakness
Palpitations: An increased heart rate may be noticeable, especially when at rest.
Cognitive Impairment: Some patients may exhibit difficulty concentrating or memory issues
Cold Intolerance
Headaches and dizziness
Brittle Nails: Changes in the nails, such as brittleness and spoon-shaped deformities (koilonychia), can be observed.
Angular stomatitis
Atrophic glossitis
Pica

198
Q

Differentials for IDA?

A

Colorectal malignancy
Tha;assaemias
Chronic inflammatory conditions; rheumatoid arthritis, IBD, anaemia of chronic disease

199
Q

Investigations to diagnose IDA?

A

FBC; low Hb, low MCV, hypochromic, microcytic red cells, on blood film pencil cells/ target cells
Reticulocyte count
TIBC; high
Ferritin; low, if low is diagnostic for IDA
FIT test

200
Q

Management of IDA?

A

Oral ferrous sulphate
Increase dietary intake
Address cause and treat it

201
Q

Complications of leukaemia treatment?

A

Secondary malignancy
Cardiorespiratory complications
Endocrine dysfunction
Infertility
Avascular necrosis of the hip – due to prolonged steroid exposure
Neuropsychological effects

202
Q

What is macrocytic anaemia?

A

Red cells are larger than normal, it can be wither megaloblastic or non-megaloblastic with presence of hyper segmented neutrophils

203
Q

Epidemiology of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia is more common in older people with folate or B12 deficiency being most common

Non-megaloblastic is more common in younger people and alcohol/ pregnancy is more common

204
Q

Causes of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

B12 deficiency; dietary, malabsorption
Folate deficiency
Drugs; hydroxycarbmide, azathioprine, cystosine arabinoside, azidothymidine

205
Q

Causes of non-megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Liver disease
Alcohol
Hypothyroidism
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy (usually a mild macrocytosis)

206
Q

Signs and symptoms of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Fatigue and Weakness
Pallor
Shortness of Breath
Glossitis
Neurological symptoms; paraesthesia, ataxia, cognitive impairment

207
Q

Differentials for macrocytic anaemia?

A

Haemolysis
Liver disease
Medications; chemotherapy, methotrexate, antiretroviral drugs
Myelodysplastic syndromes

208
Q

Investigations to diagnose macrocytic anaemia?

A

FBC
Haematinics
Blood film; macrocytosis, presence of hypersegmented neutrophils
TFT, LFT, antibodies for intrinsic factor
Markers for haemolysis; bilirubin, LDH

209
Q

Management of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Hydroxocobalamin and folate supplementation

Non megaloblastic anaemia; treat underlying cause, such as addressing alcohol consumption or providing support during pregnancy

210
Q

What is methaemoglobinaemia?

A

haematological disorder marked by the abnormal accumulation of methaemoglobin, a form of haemoglobin unable to bind oxygen efficiently

211
Q

Epidemiology of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Can affect all ages
More common in infants due to immature enzymes or those exposed to specific chemicals or medications

212
Q

Aetiology of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Congenital causes, enzyme deficiencies
Exposure to nitrates, local anaesthetics, benzene derivatives

213
Q

Signs and symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Cyanosis
Dyspnoea
Headache
Dizziness
Fatigue
Altered mental status
Seizures, coma or cardiac arrhythmia

214
Q

Differentials for methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Congenital heart disease
Respiratory disorders
Carbon monoxide poisoning

215
Q

Investigations to diagnose methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Measure methaemoglobin in blood using co-oximetry/ spectrophotometry

216
Q

Management of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Oxygen therapy
Methylene blue, ascorbic acid supplementation
Supportive care

217
Q

Complications of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Hypoxic tissue injury
Metabolic acidosis
Seizures
Coma
Cardiovascular collapse

218
Q

Prognosis of methaemoglobinaemia?

A

Depends on cause and severity

219
Q

What is methotrexate?

A

DMARD that inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting enzyme dihydrofolate reductase resulting in immunosuppressive and cytotoxic effects

220
Q

Side effects of methotrexate?

A

Gastrointestinal upset (e.g. nausea, diarrhoea, abdominal pain)
Stomatitis and mucosal ulcers
Anorexia
Headache
Hair loss
Fatigue
Increased risk of infection; may reactivate latent infections
Teratogenicity
Myelosuppression with subsequent anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
Hepatotoxicity including liver cirrhosis
Renal toxicity
Pulmonary toxicity especially pneumonitis; increased risk in rheumatoid arthritis
Photosensitivity reactions - may present with blistering or papular rashes and swelling of affected skin

221
Q

Investigations to perform prior to starting methotrexate treatment?

A

Blood pressure
Weight and height
Pregnancy testing if appropriate
Full blood count (FBC)
U&Es for renal function (dose reduction may be needed; avoid methotrexate in severe impairment)
Liver function tests (avoid if baseline hepatic impairment)
Hepatitis B and C and HIV serology
Consider screening for tuberculosis and other lung disease e.g. with a chest X-ray

222
Q

Monitoring whilst on methotrexate treatment?

A

FBC, U&Es and LFTs should be checked every 2 weeks until the dose of methotrexate is stable
They should then be checked monthly for 3 months, then at least every 3 months thereafter
More frequent monitoring may be required in patients at increased risk of toxicity

223
Q

Contraindications to methotrexate?

A

Active infection - methotrexate should be paused during acute infections
Immunodeficiency syndromes
Ascites or significant pleural effusion (increases the risk of methotrexate accumulation unless drained)
Significant hepatic or renal impairment
Current peptic ulceration
Pregnancy or breast-feeding
Co-administration of another anti-folate medication e.g. co-trimoxazole

224
Q

Cautions for methotrexate use?

A

Excess alcohol intake (increases hepatotoxicity risk)
Renal impairment (may need to reduce dose)
Pre-existing haematological abnormalities e.g. anaemia, thrombocytopenia
Chronic respiratory disease
History of recurrent infections (e.g. urinary tract infections, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations)
Frail or elderly patients (may require dose reduction)
Dehydration - may need to pause treatment e.g. if the patient develops diarrhoea or vomiting

225
Q

Interactions with mehtotrexate?

A

NSAIDs
Trimethoprim/ co-trimoxazole
Anti-epileptic medications
Theophylline

226
Q

Advice to women when taking methotrexate?

A

Contraception is recommended
Methotrexate should be stopped 6 months prior to conception
Breast feeding is contraindicated

227
Q

What agent is used in methotrexate toxicity?

A

Folinic acid- e.g calcium folinate

228
Q

Guidance surrounding vaccination while taking methotrexate?

A

Annual influenza
One off pneumpococcal vaccine prior to starting treatment
Covid vaccination
If over 50 years, shingles vaccine
Avoid live vaccines

229
Q

What is microcytic anaemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia is defined by the presence of RBCs that are smaller than normal, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) typically below the reference range (around <76 fl).

230
Q

Signs specific for Iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Nail changes such as koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails)
Atrophic glossitis
Angular stomatitis
Pica: Iron-deficiency anaemia may manifest as pica, with cravings for non-food substances like ice (pagophagia) or clay (geophagia).

231
Q

Signs and symptoms of microcytic anaemia?

A

Fatigue and Weakness
Pallor
Shortness of Breath
Palpitations
Cold intolerance

232
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency of anaemia
Thalassaemias
Lead poisoning
Anaemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anaemia

233
Q

Investigations to diagnose Microcytic anaemia?

A

FBC, MCV
Blood film; microcytic, hypochromic red cells
Iron studies; low serum iron, low ferritin
low transferrin saturation

Hb electrophoresis
Lead levels
Bone marrow biopsy

234
Q

Management of microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron supplementation
Blood transfusion
Treat cause; Thalassaemia, lead poisoning

235
Q

Advice to patients taking levothyroxine and iron supplementation?

A

Take both medications 4 hours apart and iron reduces levothyroxine absorption

236
Q

What is myelodysplasia?

A

Spectrum of disorders where the bone marrow fails to produce normal and functional blood cells. It is often a precursor to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and is characterized by dysplastic changes in blood cell precursors.

237
Q

Epidemiology of myelodysplasia?

A

Disease of elderly, median age at diagnosis 75 years
2-5 cases per 100,000

238
Q

Pathophysiology of myelodysplasia?

A

Combination of genetic mutations, microenvironment and exposure to environmental toxins contributes to clonal proliferation of aberrant haematopoetic stem cells resulting in impaired differentiation, maturation and increased apoptosis leading to cytopenia and anaemia

239
Q

Risk factors for myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Age: Advanced age is the most significant risk factor for MDS.
Genetic Predisposition: Specific genetic mutations increase the risk.
Chemotherapy and Radiation Therapy: Previous cancer treatments can lead to secondary MDS.
Environmental Exposures: Prolonged exposure to toxins, such as benzene, may contribute.

240
Q

Aetiology of myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Idiopathic
Genetic mutations; TP53, SF3B1
Radiotherapy

241
Q

Signs and symptoms of myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Fatigue
Anaemia
Easy bruising
Recurrent infections
Bleeding tendencies
Petechiae
Paleness
Enlarged spleen (splenomegaly)

242
Q

Differentials for myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Aplastic anaemia
Leukaemia
Nutritional deficiency
Autoimmune disease

243
Q

Investigations to diagnose myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

FBC
Blood smear; nucleated RBC, howell- jolly bodies, large agranular platelets, basophilic stippling
Bone marrow biopsy
Cytogenetic studies
MRI/ CT scan

244
Q

Management of myelodyspalstic syndrome?

A

Supportive care
Haematopoetic stem cell transplant
Azacitidine and decitabine can help slow progression to AML
Lenalidomide can also be used depending on mutation

245
Q

What condition is myelodysplasia a pre-cursor to?

246
Q

Complications of myelodysplasia?

A

Transformation to acute leukaemia (AML)
Severe infections due to neutropaenia
Progression to more advanced MDS subtypes
Reduced quality of life due to anaemia and transfusion dependency.

247
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

Chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm characterised by gradual replacement of normal bone marrow tissue with fibrous tissue resulting in bone marrow scarring, peripheral blood abnormalities and splenomegaly

248
Q

Epidemiology of myelofibrosis?

A

Rare with incidence of 2 per 100,000
Affects older adults over the age of 65
No significant geographical variation

249
Q

Aetiology of myelofibrosis?

A

Genetic mutations; JAK2, CALR, myeloproliferative leukaemia virus oncogene (MPL)

250
Q

Signs and symptoms of myelofibrosis?

A

Constitutional symptoms – weight loss, fever, night sweats
Marrow failure – anaemia, recurrent infection, and abnormal bleeding/bruising
Bone pain
Haemorrhage and thrombosis (less common in myelofibrosis than in other myeloproliferative disorders)

Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly

251
Q

Differentials for myelofibrosis?

A

Primary vs secondary myelofibrosis
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Leukaemia

252
Q

Investigations to diagnose myelofibrosis?

A

FBC
Blood film; tear shaped poikilocytes
Trephine biopsy; hypercellular tissue, reduced fat space, increased reticulin staining
Urate and LDH is high
JK2 V517F positive in 50% of cases

253
Q

Management of myelofibrosis?

A

Allogenic stem cell transplant; in under 70 years with good performance status and high risk disease
JAK-2 inhibitors; ruxolitinib
Cytotoxic agents; thalidomide, splenic irradiation

254
Q

Complications of myelofibrosis?

A

Transformation to acute leukaemia
Splenomegaly related complication; abdominal discomfort, early satiety, infection
CVD and thrombotic events; MI, DVT, PE

255
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Plasma cell dyscrasia characterised by abnormal clonal proliferation of post germinal B cells

256
Q

Epidemiology of multiple myeloma?

A

Second most common haematological malignancy accounting for 1% of malignancies
More common in older people
More common in men
Afro- caribbean twice as affected as caucasian

257
Q

Aetiology of multiple myeloma?

A

Genetic
Exposure to radiation
Immunosuppressive conditions
Exposure to chemicals

258
Q

Features of multiple myeloma?

A

Hypercalcaemia; renal stones, GI symptoms, fatigue, memory loss, psychosis
Renal impairment due o light chain deposition in kidney
Anaemia
Osteolytic lesions
Hyperviscosity; VTE
Amyloidosis
Infections

259
Q

Differentials for myeloma?

A

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined insignificance
Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia
Amyloidosis

260
Q

Investigations to diagnose myeloma?

A

FBC; anaemia
U+E; renal impairment
ESR
Skeletal survey; X-ray, CT, MRI
Serum/ urine electrophoresis
Serum free light chain assay (bence jones proteins); kappa/ lambda proteins
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy; >10% plasma cells in bone marrow

261
Q

What is diagnostic for multiple myeloma?

A

> 10% plasma cells in bone marrow

262
Q

Management of multiple myeloma?

A

Acute presentations;
Acute renal failure – swift treatment of volume depletion is critical, as well as early involvement of renal physicians
Hypercalcaemia – fluid and bisphosphonates needed
Hyperviscosity – requires plasmapheresis
Spinal cord compression – should be treated as a radiotherapy emergency

Induction therapy; bortezomib, thalidomide, dexamethasone
Daratumumab- monoclonal antibody binding to CD38
Autologous stem cell transplant

263
Q

Complication of multiple myeloma?

A

Bone disease; bone distuction, pathological fractures
Renal dysfunction
Infections
Anaemia

264
Q

Markers which can be used to inform prognosis of multiple myeloma?

A

B2 microglobulin
LDH
CRP
FISH
Cytogenetics

265
Q

What is agranulocytosis?

A

Depleted levels of basophils and eosinophils

266
Q

What is neutropenic sepsis?

A

Reduced absolute neutrophil count below 0.5x10^9 and a temperature over 38 degrees

267
Q

Aetiology of neutropenia?

A

Chemotherapy; most common cause
Gram positive bacteria; staph aureus, strep pneumoniae, strep epidermididis
Gram negative bacteria; E.coli, pseudomonas
Fungal pathogens

268
Q

Signs and symptoms of neutropenia?

A

Fever
Rigors
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Respiratory distress
Altered mental status

269
Q

Differentials for neutropenia?

A

Benign ethnic neutrpenia; african and middle eastern
Aplastic anaemia
Viral infections
Drug induced neutropenia
Autoimmune neutropenia
Inflammatory disorders
Malignancy
B12 and folate deficiency
Congenital; schwachman- Diamond syndrome

270
Q

Investigations to diagnose neutropenia?

A

Bedside observations
FBC, CRP
CXR, CT
LP
Bronchoscopy

271
Q

Management of neutropenia?

A

Empirical antibiotics; piperacillin- tazobactam
Fluid resuscitation
Supportive care
Haematopoetic growth factors
Fungal prophylaxis

272
Q

What is non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Malignancy affecting lymphoid system with the absence of reed sternberg cells

273
Q

Epidemiology of non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Most common haematological malignancy
More common in males

274
Q

Aetiology of non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Helicobacter pylori – gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoma tissue) lymphoma

Epstein–Barr virus/HIV – Burkitt lymphoma (high-grade NHL) and AIDS-related CNS lymphoma

hepatitis C virus – diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and splenic marginal zone lymphoma

human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV1) – T-cell lymphoma

immunodeficiency states (eg. HIV/AIDS and post-organ transplant)
autoimmune disorders (eg. Sjögren’s disease and coeliac disease)
inherited disorders affecting DNA repair (eg. ataxia telangiectasia and Fanconi anaemia)

275
Q

Classification of non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Over 30 types
Classified as B or T cell origin
High grade is aggressive, low grade is indolent

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma and follicular lymphoma are most common

276
Q

What is DLBCL?

A

High grade lymphoma with 60-70% cure rate

277
Q

What is follicular lymphoma?

A

Low grade lymphoma of B cell germinal centre

278
Q

Signs and symptoms of non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Painless lymphadenopathy
B symptoms
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly

279
Q

Common sites of extra nodal disease in Non hodgkins lymphoma?

280
Q

Investigations to diagnose non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

LDH
FBC- normocytic anaemia
Blood film; nucleated red blood cells, left shift
Biopsy
CT/ PET scan for staging
Cytogenetics

281
Q

Cytogenetic results for mantle cell lymphoma?

282
Q

Management of non hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Low grade indolent non hodgkins lymphoma;
Stage 1; local radiotherapy
Advanced systemic disease consider rituximab

High grade;
Gold standard; R-CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine and prednisolone + rituximab)
Burton tyrosine kinase inhibitors; ibrutinib
Autologous and allogenic transplant

283
Q

Complications of non hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Infection
Neurological complications; peripheral neuropathy
Paraneoplastic syndrome
Bleeding and coagulopathy
Secondary malignancy

284
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Recent bleeding
Anaemia of chronic disease
Combined iron & B12/folate deficiency
Most non-haematinic-deficiency causes

285
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency
α-thalassaemia, β-thalassaemia, HbE, HbC
Anaemia of chronic disease (this more often causes normochromic normocytic anaemia)
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemias (rare)

286
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Normoblastic;
Liver disease
Alcohol
Hypothyroidism
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy (usually a mild macrocytosis)

Megaloblastic;
B12 deficiency; reduced intake, pernicious anaemia, IBD, gastrectomy
Folate deficiency
Drugs; hydroxycarbamide, azathioprine, cytosine arabinoside, azidothymidine

287
Q

Management principles of anaemia?

A

Nutritional deficiency coorrection
Erythropoiesis stimulating agents
Treat underlying condition
Blood transfusions
Bone marrow stimulants; G-CSF
Supportive care
Regular monitoring

289
Q

What is primary paraproteinaemia?

A

Build up of monoclonal protein in the serum or urine

Monoclonal plasma cells may be present in marrow, soft tissue and circulation

290
Q

Classification of primary paraproteinaemia?

A

Premalignant; MGUS
Malignant; multiple myeloma, waldenstorm macroglobulinaemia, solitary plasmacytoma

291
Q

What is MGUS?

A

Presence of monoclonal proteins on electrophoresis, 1% undergo malignant transformation to multiple myeloma

Monoclonal protein levels under 30 g/l and marrow biopsy is <10% monoclonal plasma proteins

292
Q

What is waldenstorms macroglobulinaemia?

A

Low grade lymphoma with monoclonal plasmacytoid lymphocytes that secrete monoclonal IgM

293
Q

Clinical features of waldenstorms macroglobulinaemia?

A

IgM deposition – hyperviscosity, polyneuropathy
organ infiltration – hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
bone marrow infiltration – pancytopenia

294
Q

What is solitary plasmacytoma?

A

Tender swelling affecting bone or soft tissue (Extramedullary; most commonly occuring in head/ neck)

295
Q

What is secondary paraproteinaemia?

A

Paraproteinaemia in association with lymphoma (particularly NHL) or leukaemia (particularly CLL)

296
Q

What is cryoglobulinaemia?

A

Col sensitive paraproteinaemia that precipitates in reduced temperatures

297
Q

Type of cryoglobulinaemia?

A

Type 1 – monoclonal IgM cryoglobulin
seen in Waldenström macroglobulinaemia
clinical features are primarily hyperviscosity
Type 2 – mixed monoclonal/polyclonal cryoglobulin
seen in chronic infections (eg. hepatitis)
Type 3 – polyclonal cryoglobulin
seen in connective tissue disease (e.g. Sjögren’s disease or SLE).

298
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)?

A

Defective red cells membranes makes RBC more suscpetible to haemolysis

299
Q

Pathophysiology of PNH?

A

Somatic mutation in PIGA gene in haematopoetic stem cells leading to absence in GPI anchored proteins on the cell surface making RBC, WBC and platelets more susceptible to complement mediated haemolysis

300
Q

What is responsible for PNH?

A

Deficiency in GPI anchored proteins

301
Q

Signs and symptoms of PNH?

A

Nocturnal episodes of intravascular haemolysis – it is not known why this occurs at night
Dark/coca-cola-coloured urine (haemoglobinuria) in the morning due to nocturnal haemolysis
Repeated urinary infections (leukopenia)
Mucocutaneous bleeding (thrombocytopenia)
Fatigue (occasionally can have a pancytopaenic picture)
Symptoms of thrombosis depending on site - headache and visual disturbances (cerebral vessels), abdominal pain (abdominal vessels), chest pain (PE), leg/calf pain (DVT)

302
Q

Investigations to diagnose PNH?

A

FBC; haemolysis, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia
USS/ CT/ MRI to look for thrombosis
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
Ham’s test; diagnostic test for PNH
Flow cytometry

303
Q

Management of PNH?

A

Red cell transfusion
Anticoagulation; warfarin is given is platelet count is below 50x10*9
Eculizumab; monoclonal antibody directed against complement C5
Folic acid and iron supplementation
Bone marrow supplementation if progression to AML

304
Q

Complications of PNH?

A

Thrombosis
Bone marrow failure
Anaemia
Infections
Progression to AML

305
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells resulting in reduced intrinsic factor and hence B12 resulting in macrocytic anaemia

306
Q

Pathophysiological changes in pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune attack
Intrinsic factor deficiency
B12 deficiency
Megaloblastic changes
Haemolysis

307
Q

Epidemiology of pernicious anaemia?

A

More common in northern european, scandivianian and african descent
More common in adults over the age of 60
More common if history of other autoimmune disease

308
Q

Signs and symptoms of pernicious anaemia

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Glossitis - inflammation of the tongue, leading to a smooth, beefy-red appearance.
Neurological Symptoms and subacute combined degeneration of the cord: Pernicious anaemia may cause neuropathy, affecting balance, sensation, and coordination.
Jaundice - due to haemolysis
Cognitive Impairment - memory problems, confusion, and mood changes may occur

309
Q

Differentials for pernicious anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Folate deficiency
Myelodysplastic syndrome

310
Q

Investigations to diagnose pernicious anaemia?

A

FBC; low Hb, high MCV, High MCH, normal MCHC, low reticulocyte count

Blood film; oval shaped RBC
Haematinics
Parietal cell antibodies
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

311
Q

Management of pernicious anaemia?

A

Lifelong hydroxycobalamin replacement
Concurrent folate replacement

312
Q

Complications of pernicious anaemia?

A

Gastric cancer
Peripheral neuropathy
Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Optic atrophy
Dementia
Other autoimmune disorder

313
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

Increase in haematocrit, red cell count and haemoglobin concentration

314
Q

Classification of polycythaemia?

A

Relative is due o low plasma volume and can be caused by;
Dehydration
Chronic alcohol intake
Excess diuretic use
Pyrexia
Diarrhoea and vomiting
Gaisbock syndrome

Absolute polycythaemia is when plasma volume is normal and red cell mass if higher
Primary causes; polychythaemia ruby vera is due to JAK2 gene mutations leading to uncontrolled red blood cell production

Secondary is due to excess EPO secretion casued by chronic hypoxia, anabolic steroid use, renal neoplasms, CKD, cyanotic heart disease

315
Q

Signs and symptoms of polycythaemia?

A

Fatigue
Headache
Visual disturbances (secondary to hyperviscosity)
Pruritus (typically after a hot bath)
Erythromelalgia (a painful burning sensation in the fingers and toes)
Arterial thrombosis (eg. myocardial infarction or stroke)
Venous thrombosis (eg. pulmonary embolus or deep vein thrombosis)
Haemorrhage (intracranial or gastrointestinal)- paradoxical increased bleeding risk (due to impaired platelet function)
Increased risk of gout (caused by hyperuricaemia secondary to increased cell turnover).
Facial redness on examination (plethora)
Splenomegaly
Hypertension
Peptic ulceration
Hyperviscosity symptoms; chest pain, myalgia, weakness, headache, blurred vision
Ruddy complexion
Splenomegaly

316
Q

Investigations to diagnose polycythaemia?

A

Pulse oximetry
FBC; raised Hb, raised haematocrit, raised red cell mass
U+E
Vitamin B12
JAK2 V617F mutation
Bone marroe biopsy
USS

317
Q

Management of polycythaemia?

A

Venesection
Aspirin 75mg daily
Cryoreductive hterapy; hydroxycarbamide, interferon (JAK-2 inhibitors such as ruxolitinib) and busulfan

Allopurinol
Antihistamines

318
Q

Aims for haematocrit in polycythaemia treatment?

A

Haematocrit <45% in primary polycythaemia

Haematocrit <55% in secondary polycythaemia

319
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Inherited genetic condition where HbS is present resulting in deoxygenation and distortion of RBC

320
Q

Epidemiology of sickle cell anaemia?

A

More common in central and western african descent

321
Q

Pathophysiology of sickle cell disease?

A

The 6th amino acid glutamic acid (GAA) is replaced by valine (GTA) on the beta globin chain
In its deoxygenated state HbS undergoes polymerisation forming crystals that cause polymers to form leading to sickling of RBC
Abnormal shape RBC thrombose in microvasculture

322
Q

Inheritance of sickle cell anaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

323
Q

Pathophysiology of hyposplenism in sickle cell disease?

A

Sequestration of red blood cells in spleen leads to extravascular haemolysis leading to splenic congestion and splenomegaly
Followed by splenic infarction leading to hyposplenism
This leads to reduced immune function

324
Q

Complications of sickle cell disease?

A

Vaso-occlusive crises; microvascular obstruction due to RBC sickling
Acute chest crisis
Splenic infarction and subsequent immunocompromise
Sequestration crisis
Osteomyelitis
Stroke
Dactylitis
Poor growth
Chronic renal disease
Gallstones
Retinal disorders
Priapism
Pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary hypertension
Iron overload from repeated blood transfusions
Red cell aplasia (due to parvovirus B19 infection in the presence of chronic haemolytic anaemia)

325
Q

Investigations to diagnose sickle cell anaemia?

A

FBC; microcytic anaemia, reticulocytosis
Blood film; target cells, polychromasia, howell- jolly bodies, nucleated red cells, reticulocytosis
Hb electrophoresis

326
Q

Management of sickle cell disease?

A

Acute cell crises;
High-flow oxygen
IV fluids and analgesia
Top-up transfusions – required in some severe cases

Chronic disease;
Hydroxycarbamide
Exchange transfusion
Vaccination and antibiotic prophylaxis
Crizaniluzumab (p-selectin inhibitor) for treatment of pain crises
Bone marrow transplantation

327
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Group of blood disorders characterised by impaired ability of bone marrow to produce normal red blood cells
Defective sideroblast cells have ringed pattern with iron loaded mitochondria

328
Q

Epidemiology of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

More common in elderly

329
Q

Pathophysiology of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Ineffective erythropoiesis leading to increased iron absorption and deposition within bone marrow and other organs

330
Q

Aetiology of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Congenital; X linked recessive or dominant
Acquired; drug toxicity, myelodysplastic syndrome, alcohol abuse, lead poisoning, isoniazid use

331
Q

Sigs and symptoms of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Weakness
Pallor
Tachycardia

332
Q

Differentials for sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease

333
Q

Investigations to diagnose sideroblastic anaemia?

A

FBC
Ferritin and iron levels; elevated
Blood film; red cell cytoplasm inclusions (target cells)
Bone marrow biopsy; iron deposition and ringed sideroblasts

334
Q

Management of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Chelation therapy
B6 supplementation
Blood transfusion
Stem cell transplant

335
Q

Indications for splenectomy?

A

Indications for emergency splenectomy include trauma and rupture (e.g. in EBV infection).
An elective splenectomy may need to be done in cases of hypersplenism, where the spleen has a preference for platelets resulting in increased uptake, which leads to sequestration of cells in the spleen
Indications for elective splenectomy include haemolytic anaemia (hereditary or immune) and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.

336
Q

What is seen on blood film post splenectomy?

A

Howell- Jolly bodies
Pappenheimer bodies

337
Q

Vaccination in patients post splenectomy?

A

Pneumococcal vaccination (with regular boosters every 5 years).
Seasonal influenza vaccination (yearly, typically every autumn).
Haemophilus influenza type B vaccination (one-off).
Meningitis C vaccination (one-off).

338
Q

Antibiotic of choice post splenectomy?

A

Low dose prophylaxis typically for life of phenoxymethylpenicillin V

If allergic then clarithromycin/ erythromycin

339
Q

Target INRs

A

For patients with atrial fibrillation: 2-3
For patients with metallic valve replacements: 2-3 (aortic valve); 2.5-3.5 (mitral valve)
Following venous thromboembolism (VTE): 2-3 (if recurrent then 3-4)

340
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

Inherited disorders characterised by abnormal haemoglobin production as a result in a defect in either the alpha or beta globin chain leading to a reduction in haemoglobin quantity

341
Q

Epidemiology of thalassemia?

A

More prevalent in mediterranean european, central africa, middle east and indian subcontinent

342
Q

Inheritance of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

343
Q

Pathophysiology of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Spectrum of disease caused by non functioning copies of the 4 alpha globin genes on chromosome 16

Symptomatic disease occurs when 2 or more copies of the gene are lost

344
Q

Presentation of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Patients with two defective copies have a mild asymptomatic anaemia – so-called α-thalassaemia trait

Those with three defective copies have symptomatic haemoglobin H disease
Microcytic anaemia (Hb approximately 70 g/l)
Haemolysis
Splenomegaly
Normal survival is to be expected

Inheritance of four defective copies (hydrops fetalis) is incompatible with life

The lack of α-globin chains results in excess γ-chains (creating Hb Barts), which are poor carriers of oxygen owing to their high affinity for oxygen

It may affect the fetus in utero

Signs and Symptoms;
Jaundice
Fatigue
Facial bone deformities

345
Q

Investigations to diagnose alpha thalassaemia?

A

FBC will reveal a microcytic anaemia.
Hb electrophoresis – can be normal, so DNA analysis is required to make the diagnosis

346
Q

Management of alpha thalassaemia?

A

Blood transfusion
Stem cell transplantation
Splenectomy
Folic acid supplementation

347
Q

Pathophysiology of beta thalassaemia?

A

Spectrum of disease caused by non functioning copies of the two beta globin genes

348
Q

Variants of beta thalassaemia?

A

The mildest variant of β-thalassaemia is β-thalassaemia minor (also known as thalassaemia trait)

Patients typically have one functioning and one dysfunctional copy of the β-globin gene

The most severe form of β-thalassaemia (known as β-thalassaemia major) is caused by a complete absence of β-globin synthesis (null mutations in both copies of the β-globin gene)

349
Q

Signs and symptoms of beta thalassaemia?

A

β-thalassaemia minor - patients are typically asymptomatic

β-thalassaemia major:
Severe symptomatic anaemia at 3–9 months of age
Becomes evident when levels of HbF, which does not contain β-globin, fall and should be replaced by HbA (made up of two α- and two β-globin chains), which is lacking in β-thalassaemia major
Ineffective haematopoiesis results in extramedullary haematopoesis, which results in
Frontal bossing (hair-on-end appearance on Skull XR)
Maxillary overgrowth and prominent frontal/parietal bones (hypertrophy of ineffective marrow) - “Chipmunk facies”
Hepatosplenomegaly
Failure to thrive in infancy

350
Q

Investigations to diagnose beta thalassaemia?

A

β-thalassaemia minor
Isolated microcytosis (MCV approximately 63–77 fl) and mild anaemia (Hb typically not <100 g/l)
The degree of anaemia is often less severe than would be expected for the degree of microcytosis
Blood film - target cells and basophilic stippling
Increased red cell count
Hb electrophoresis (diagnostic) shows raised HbA2 (>3.5%) – can be lowered by the presence of iron deficiency
Can be confused with iron deficiency – ferritin in β-thalassaemia minor is usually normal or high

β-thalassaemia major
Profound microcytic anaemia; reduced MCV and reduced MCHC
Increased reticulocytes
Blood film – marked anisopoikilocytosis, target cells and nucleated RBCs. Teardrop cells from extramedullary haematopoeisis may also be present
Methyl blue stains – RBC inclusions with precipitated α-globin
High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) or electrophoresis (diagnostic) – mainly shows HbF
HbA2 may be normal or mildly elevated
Haemolysis

351
Q

Management of beta thalassaemia?

A

Regular blood transfusions
Hydroxycarbamide
Allogenic bone marrow transplant

Iron chelation

352
Q

Iron chelating agents?

A

Desferrioxamine;
Used for decompensated organ dysfunction
Given via subcutaneous pump over 2–5 days each week
Compliance may be an issue

Deferiprone’
Oral, given in three divided doses
Particularly good for cardiac iron overload
Side effects include: Nausea, Arthralgia, Agranulocytosis – weekly FBC needed, LFT disturbance, Zinc deficiency

Deferasirox;
A newer oral iron chelator
Removes iron in the bile and faeces
Once daily suspension with similar efficacy to desferrioxamine
Side effects include: Gastrointestinal upset. Cytopenias, Increased creatinine

353
Q

Monitoring requirements for patients on iron chelation?

A

Cardiac/liver T2* MRI
Endocrine tests
Audiology and ophthalmology

354
Q

Complications of beta thalassaemia?

A

Cardiomyopathy/ cardiac arrhythmia/ cardiac failure
Acute sepsis
Liver failure/ cirrhosis
Hypocalcaemia Hypoparathyroidism
Iron overload

355
Q

What is thrombophilia?

A

Increased risk of VTE and can be due to genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden, prothrombin gene mutation, antiphospholipid syndrome

356
Q

Epidemiology of thrombophilia?

A

Varies based on specific condition
Factor V leiden and prothrombin gene mutation have prevalence of 5-7%
Antiphospholipid syndrome is more common in those with autoimmune conditions
Acquired thrombophilias are associated with cancer/ hormones

357
Q

Aetiology of thrombophilia?

A

Deficiency in protein C, protein S, antithrombin III
Genetic mutation in Factor V Leiden or prothrombin gene

Acquired;
Lupus anticoagulant/antiphospholipid antibodies
Polycythaemia
Essential thrombocythaemia

358
Q

Signs and symptoms of thrombophilia?

A

DVT
PE
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
Pregnancy related complications; recurrent miscarriage

359
Q

Investigations to diagnose thrombophilia?

A

Coagulation studies; aPTT, PT
Genetic testing; Factor V Leiden mutation, prothrombin gene mutation
Antithrombin, protein C and protein S deficiency
Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase; elevated homocysteine levels
Antiphospholipid antibody testing; lupus anticoagulant , anticardiolipin, Anti- beta-2 glycoprotein I antibodies
Imaging; doppler USS, CTPA, MRI
Homocysteine levels; hyperhomocysteinaemia
Cancer testing/ hormonal assessments

360
Q

What is the most common inherited thrombophilia?

A

Factor V Leiden

361
Q

Pathophysiology of protein C and S deficiency?

A

Protein C, together with its cofactor protein S, inactivates clotting factors V and VIII
Inactivating mutations in protein C or S increase the risk of thrombosis

362
Q

Epidemiology of Protein C and Protein S deficiency?

A

The prevalence is higher in Southeast Asian patients
Homozygosity for protein C deficiency is fatal in neonates unless it is rapidly treated

363
Q

What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Abnormally cleaved vWF due to abnormal ADAMST13 activity leading to platelet aggregation, thrombus formation and systemic microangiopathy

364
Q

Causes of TTP?

A

Hereditary: Congenital mutation of ADAMST13
Auto-immune: AI inhibition of ADAMST13

365
Q

Features of TTP?

A

Fever
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)
Thrombocytopaenic purpura
CNS involvement: headache, confusion, seizures
AKI

366
Q

Investigations to diagnose TTP?

A

Urine dipstick; haematuria, non nephrotic range proteinuria
FBC; normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia
U&E shows a raised urea and creatinine
Clotting is typically normal
The blood film will reveal reticulocytes (secondary to haemolysis) and schistocytes (fragmented red cells)
LFT, LDH, D-dimer will be raised and haptopglobins will be low consistent with haemolysis
Low ADAMST13 activity is diagnostic

367
Q

Management of TTP?

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) – contains vWF-cleaving protease and complement components
Plasma exchange – removes antibodies and toxins associated with the pathogenesis of the disease
High-dose steroids, low-dose aspirin and rituximab can also be given

368
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Metabolic disorder caused by rapid death of tumour cells in response to chemotherapy resulting in massive release of intracellular contents into blood stream leading to significant electrolyte imbalances

369
Q

Electrolyte disturbance in TLS?

A

Hyperuricaemia
Hyperphosphataemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hypocalcaemia

370
Q

Aetiology of TLS?

A

Aggressive rapidly proliferating tumours such as leukaemia, high grade lymphoma
More likely following initiation of cytotoxic therapy

371
Q

Signs and symptoms of TLS?

A

Dysuria or oliguria
Abdominal pain
Weakness
Nausea or vomiting
Muscle cramps
Seizures
Cardiac arrhythmias
Gout/joint swelling

372
Q

Differentials for TLS?

A

AKI
Isolated hyperkalaemia
Isolated hyperphosphataemia
Isolated hypocalcaemia

373
Q

Investigations to diagnose TLS?

A

Basic observations
U&E: Potassium and phosphate are usually raised, raised Cr suggestive of AKI/renal failure.
Calcium: Typically low in tumour lysis syndrome.
Uric acid: Usually elevated.
ECG: To assess risk of arrhythmias caused by electrolyte abnormalities.
Hyperkalaemia may cause tented T waves, broad QRS, flattened P-wave and a prolonged PR interval.
Hypocalcaemia may cause a prolonged QT interval

374
Q

Management of TLS?

A

Correct electrolyte abnormality
Sever hyperkalaemia; calcium gluconate followed by insulin- dextrose infusion
Parenteral replacement of hypocalcaemia
IV fluids
Dialysis
Rasburicase; urate oxidase enzyme

Prevention;
Low/intermediate risk patients can be managed with a combination of adequate hydration and allopurinol.
Rasburicase (a recombinant form of the urate oxidase enzyme) can be used as a prophylactic agent in adults with hyperuricaemia that is inadequately managed by allopurinol or febuxostat.

375
Q

What is von willebrand disease?

A

Inherited bleeding disorder characterised by reduced quantity or function of vWF

376
Q

Epidemiology of VWD?

A

Most common inherited bleeding disorder
Affects 1% of population
Equally common in men and women but women are more likely to experience symptoms

377
Q

Aetiology of VWD?

A

Genetic mutation resulting in deficiency or dysfunction of VWF

378
Q

Classification of VWD?

A

Type 1 VWD: Partial quantitative deficiency in VWF
Type 2 VWD: Qualitative defects in VWF (e.g. decreased adhesion to platelets or factor VIII)
Type 3 VWD: Almost complete deficiency of VWF

379
Q

Signs and symptoms of VWD?

A

Excess or prolonged bleeding from minor wounds
Excess or prolonged bleeding post-operatively
Easy bruising
Menorrhagia
Epistaxis
GI bleeding

380
Q

Differentials for VWD?

A

Haemophilia
Inherited bleeding disorders

381
Q

Investigations for VWD?

A

Clotting tests reveal normal PT, TT and prolonged APTT
Normal platelet count
vWF level and activity assay

382
Q

Management of VWD?

A

Medication/ blood transfusion to replace VWF; desmopressin