Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

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2
Q

Causes of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune disease (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren’s syndrome)
Scorpion stings
Hypercalcaemia, hypertriglyceridemia, hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs (e.g. thiazides, azathioprine, sulphonamides)

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3
Q

How is Glasgow score of pancreatitis interpreted?

A

A score over 3 indicates severe, score 1 point for each of the following

PaO2 < 8kPa
Age > 55 years
Neutrophils > 15
Calcium < 2
Renal i.e. Urea > 16
Enzymes i.e. LDH > 600 or AST > 200
Albumin < 32
Sugar i.e. Glucose > 10

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4
Q

When should glasgow score for pancreatitis be calculated?

A

Within 48 hours of admission

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5
Q

Symptoms of pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain which radiates to the back
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhoea

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6
Q

Signs of pancreatitis?

A

Abdominal tenderness
Peritonism
Tachycardia/ hypotension
Grey- Turners sign; bruising in flank
Cullens sign; bruising around umbilicus
Fox sign; bruising around inguinal ligament

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7
Q

Differentials for pancreatitis?

A

ACS
Perforated peptic ulcer
Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Bowel obstruction
Cholecystitis

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8
Q

Investigations to diagnose pancreatitis?

A

ABG; pO2
ECG
Pregnancy test
Capillary glucose
FBC, CRP, LFT, U+E, amylase, lipase, LDH, lipid profile
autoimmune markers
Coagulation
Abdominal USS
CXR, MRCP, CT

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9
Q

Management of pancreatitis?

A

Catheterise and monitor urine input and output
NG tube
Enteral nutrition
IV fluids
Anti-emetics
Antibiotics
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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10
Q

Complications of pancreatitis?

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst
Pancreatic necrosis
Peripancreatic fluid collections
Haemorrhage
Pancreatic fistulae

Acute respiratory distress syndrome
AKI
DIC
Sepsis
Multi-organ failure
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia

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11
Q

What is porphyria?

A

Abnormalities in haem synthesis resulting in structural/ functional alterations in enzyme

Classified as acute or non-acute

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12
Q

Triggers for acute porphyria?

A

Antibiotics - Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Nitrofurantoin
Anaesthetic agents - Ketamine, Etomidate
Sulfonamides
Barbiturates
Antifungal agents

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13
Q

Symptoms of acute porphyria?

A

Abdominal pain
Nausea
Confusion
Hypertension
Seizures

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14
Q

Investigations to diagnose porphyria?

A

Urinary porphobilinogen; elevated
Urine appears red/ purple

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15
Q

Management of acute porphyria?

A

Supportive
Haem arginate

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16
Q

Risk factors for alcoholic liver disease?

A

Genetic predisposition
Concurrent liver disease
Nutritional status
High alcohol consumption

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17
Q

What does chronic alcohol consumption lead to?

A

Fatty liver
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis

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18
Q

Signs of Alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Jaundice
Fever
Hepatomegaly
Nausea
Vomiting
Malaise

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19
Q

Signs of cirrhosis?

A

Jaundice
Ascites
Hepatic encephalopathy
Bleeding
Spider naeviae
Palmar erythema

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20
Q

Differentials for alcoholic liver disease?

A

Non alcoholic liver disease
Viral hepatitis
Haemochromatosis
Wilsons disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis

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21
Q

Bloods to diagnose liver disease?

A

FBC, LFT, Coagulation, serum albumin, viral serology, autoimmune markers, serum iron, ferritin, transferrin, ceruloplasmin

Ultrasound scan
CT/ MRI
FibroScan

Liver biopsy

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22
Q

Management of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcohol withdrawal
1-3 months prednisolone in hepatitis
Coagulopathy; vit K or FFP
Manage complications

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23
Q

Complications of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Reversible;
Alcoholic fatty liver
Early alcoholic hepatitis

Irreversible;
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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24
Q

What is alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin is a serine protease inhibitor that inhibits neutrophil elastase. Deficiency leads to damage to alveoli and liver

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25
Q

Signs and symptoms of alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

COPD in young individuals
Neonatal jaundice
Deranged LFTs in those with no identifiable cause for cirrhosis

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26
Q

Differentials for alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

COPD
Hepatitis
Alcoholic liver disease
NAFLD
Viral hepatitis

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27
Q

Investigations to diagnose alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Spirometry; obstructive picture
Alpha 1 antitrypsin levels
Genotyping
Imaging; CXR, CT thorax (panacinar emphysema)
Liver fibroscan
Liver biopsy

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28
Q

Management of alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Smoking cessation
IV alpha 1 antitrypsin
Liver transplantation

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29
Q

Anti-emetics and their mechanism of action?

A

H1 receptor antagonists (cyclizine), indicated in vestibular disturbance
D2 receptor antagonists (domperidone, metoclopramide), indicated in post operative nausea, motion sickness
5HT3 receptor antagonist (ondansetron), indicated in acute gastroenteritis, post operative nausea, radiotherapy/ chemotherapy induced
Anti-muscarinic (hyoscine hydrobromide), indicated in vestibular disturbance, palliative care

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30
Q

Which anti-emetics should be avoided in parkinsons?

A

Prochlorperazine, clorpromazine, haloperidol

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31
Q

Antibodies in pernicious anaemia?

A

Intrinsic factor

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32
Q

Antibodies in coeliac disease?

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA
Anti- endomysial IgA
Anti- deaminated gliadin peptide IgG

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33
Q

Antibodies in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Antimitochondrial antibodies IgM

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34
Q

Antibodies in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Anti smooth muscle antibodies IgG

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35
Q

What is ascites?

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid within peritoneal cavity

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36
Q

Aetiology of ascites?

A

Liver disease; cirrhosis, acute liver failure, liver metastases

Cardiac disease; right heart failure

Budd- Chiari, Portal vein thrombosis

Nephrotic syndrome, kwashiorkor, peritoneal carcinomatosis, peritoneal metastases, infection

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37
Q

Signs and symptoms of ascites?

A

Abdominal distension
Abdominal discomfort or pain
Dyspnea
Reduced mobility
Anorexia and early satiety due to pressure on the stomach
Tense abdomen
Shifting dullness
Stigmata of the underlying cause (see below)

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38
Q

Investigations to find cause of ascites?

A

Ascitic tap
Bloods; FBC, U+E, LFT, CRP
Imaging; CT abdomen, CXR
Serum ascites albumin gradient SAAG; serum albumin concentration - ascites albumin concentration

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39
Q

Causes of high SAAG (>11g/ L)?

A

Cirrhosis
Heart failure
Budd Chiari syndrome
Constrictive pericarditis
Hepatic failure

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40
Q

Causes of low SAAG (<11g L)?

A

Cancer of the peritoneum, metastatic disease
Tuberculosis, peritonitis and other infections
Pancreatitis
Hypoalbuminaemia - nephrotic syndrome, Kwashiokor

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41
Q

Management of ascites?

A

High SAAG; salt and fluid restriction
Spironolactone
Therapeutic paracentesis
If ascitic tap shows neutrophils >250mm3 treat with IV piperacillin- tazobactam
Refractory ascites in portal hypertension consider TIPS

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42
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease of liver as a result of immune attack to hepatic cells

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43
Q

Epidemiology of autoimmune hepatitits?

A

More common in young middle aged women
Associated with other autoimmune conditions such as pernicious anaemia, ulcerative collitis, hashimotos/ graves, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, primary sclerosing cholangitis

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44
Q

Symptoms of acute hepatitis?

A

Acute hepatits; Fever, Jaundice, Malaise, Abdominal pain, Utricarial rash, Polyarthritis, Pulmonary infiltration, Glomerulonephritis

Chronic liver disease; ascites, jaundice, leuconychia, spider naevi

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45
Q

Signs of autoimmune hepatits?

A

Fatigue
Anorexia
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly

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46
Q

Differentials for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Acute; Hepatitis A/ E/ B, paracetamol poisoning, ischaemia

Chronic; alcohol, NAFLD, hepatitis B/ C

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47
Q

Investigations to diagnose autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Bloods; raised ALT, bilirubin, normal ALP

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48
Q

Management of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Prednisolone induction therapy
Maintenance therapy with azathioprine
Liver transplantation

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49
Q

What is barrett’s oesophagus?

A

When any part of the distal squamous epithelium has undergone dysplasia and replaced with metaplastic columnar epithelium

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50
Q

Epidemiology of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Most commonly affecting males over 50 with longstanding GORD
Higher risk in obese people

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51
Q

Risk factors for Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

GORD- main risk factor
Obesity
Smoking
Hiatus hernia
Increasing age

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52
Q

Signs and symptoms of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Pain in the upper abdomen and chest
Heartburn
Acid taste in the mouth
Bloating
Belching
Anaemia
Weight loss
Anoerxia
Melaena

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53
Q

Investigations to diagnose Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

OGD- gold standard

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54
Q

What is the 2 week wait referral criteria for Barrett’s oeosphagus?

A

Dysphagia
>55 years with either weightloss, upper abdominal pain, reflux or dyspepsia
Non urgent direct access for upper GI endoscopy

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55
Q

Management for Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

If short segment (<3cm) without intestinal metaplasia no further surveillance
If longer segment (>3cm) repeat OGD every 2-3 years
Short segment with intestinal metaplasia OGD every 3-5 years
Indefinite dysplasia every 6 months

Visible high grade dysplasia; endoscopic ablation

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56
Q

Complications of Barrett’s oeosphagus?

A

Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

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57
Q

What is Budd- Chiari Syndrome?

A

Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow which impedes drainage of blood from liver leading to hepatomegaly, ascites and liver dysfunction

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58
Q

Causes of Budd- Chiari Syndrome?

A

Primary; Thrombosis
Polycythaemia
Essential thrombocytosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Factor V leiden mutation
Protein C, protein S or antithrombin deficiency

Secondary;
Compression of hepatic veins
Inflammatory conditions
Infections

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59
Q

Pathoph?ysiology of Budd- Chiari Syndrome

A

Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow leads to increased hepatic sinusoidal pressure causing congestion and ischaemia

Results in hepatocyte injury, fibrosis, cirrhosis

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60
Q

Symptoms of Budd- Chiari Syndrome?

A

Abdominal pain (RUQ)
Hepatomegaly
Jaundice
Ascites
Peripheral oedema
Splenomegaly
Variceal bleeding

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61
Q

Differentials for Budd Chiari Syndrome?

A

Cirrhosis
Right heart failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Portal vein thrombosis
Hepatic veno-occlusive disease

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62
Q

Investigations to diagnose Budd Chiari Syndrome?

A

LFT, FBC, coagulation, serum albumin
USS with doppler
CT/ MRI angiography
Hepatic venography
Liver biopsy

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63
Q

Management of Budd Chiari Syndrome?

A

Ascites; diuretics, sodium restriction
Nutritional support to avoid hepatotoxic substances
Anticoagulation
Thrombolytic therapy
Angioplasty and stenting
TIPS
Liver transplantation

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64
Q

Complications of Budd Chiari syndrome?

A

Chronic liver disease and cirrhosis
Portal hypertension -> variceal bleeding
Liver failure
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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65
Q

What is a carcinoid tumour?

A

Neuroendocrine tumour that secretes serotonin often originating from appendix or small intestine

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66
Q

Where do carcinoid tumours originate from?

A

Neuroendocine cells most commonly found in GI tract and lungs

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67
Q

Presentation of carcinoid tumour?

A

Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea
Flushing
Wheezing
Pulmonary stenosis

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68
Q

Differentials for carcinoid tumour?

A

IBS
IBD
Mastocytosis

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69
Q

Investigations to diagnose carcinoid tumours?

A

Hormone levels; 5-HIAA which is a breakdown of serotonin
CT/MRI
Octreotide scans
Tissue biopsy

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70
Q

Management of carcinoid tumour?

A

Octreotide
Surgery
Embolisation
Radiofrequency ablation

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71
Q

What is the cause of cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae O1 and O139 gram negative comma shaped bacteria with single polar flagellum

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72
Q

Symptoms of cholera?

A

Sudden onset of watery diarrhoea
Abdominal cramps
Nausea
Vomiting
Excessive thirst
Dry mouth
Dry skin
Oliguria
Drowsiness or lethargy
Irritability

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73
Q

Differentials for cholera?

A

Acute gastritis
Rotavirus
Traveler’s diarrhoea

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74
Q

Investigations for cholera?

A

Stool culture
Rapid diagnostic test
FBC, U+E

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75
Q

Management of cholera?

A

A-E
Aggressive fluid replacement
Antibiotics; doxycycline
Notifiable disease

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76
Q

What is alcohol dependance?

A

Primary chronic disease with genetic, psychological and environmental factors influencing its development and manifestation

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77
Q

Screening tools to identify chronic alcoholism?

A

AUDIT questionnaire
SADQ questionnaire

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78
Q

Indications for inpatient alcohol withdrawal?

A

Patients drinking >30 units per day
Scoring over 30 on the SADQ score
High risk of alcohol withdrawal seizures (previous alcohol withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens, or history of epilepsy)
Concurrent withdrawal from benzodiazepines
Significant medical or psychiatric comorbidity
Vulnerable patients
Patients under 18

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79
Q

When is assisted alcohol withdrawal required?

A

If drinking more than 15 units per day
If scoring over 20 points in AUDIT questionnaire

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80
Q

What medications can be used in medically assisted alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Acamprosate
Naltrexone/ disulfiram
Psychological intervention; CBT

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81
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Persistent inflammation and fibrosis of exocrine and endocrine components of the pancreas

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82
Q

Epidemiology of pancreatits?

A

80% of cases are due to chronic alcohol use

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83
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol excess
Genetics; cystic fibrosis
Obstructive causes; pancreatic cancer
Metabolic

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84
Q

Pathophysiology of pancreatitis?

A

Progressive inflammation and development of fibrotic tissue in pancreas results in loss of exocrine and endocrine function function

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85
Q

Presentation of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain exacerbated after eating fatty foods and relieved by leaning forward
Bloating
Weight loss
Exocrine dysfunction; Malabsorption and steatorrhoea, reduced absorption of fat soluble vitamins A/D/E/K
Diabetes

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86
Q

Differentials for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Acute pancreatitis
Pancreatic cancer
Peptic ulcer disease
Abdominal aortic aneurysm

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87
Q

Investigations to diagnose chronic pancreatitis?

A

Blood glucose
Faecal elastase
Abdominal Xray
CT scan- more sensitive to detect calcification

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88
Q

Management of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Abstinence from alcohol
Endocrine dysfunction; insulin
Exocrine dysfunction; creon containing mixture of amylase, lipase and protease
Coeliac plexus block, pancreatectomy

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89
Q

Complications from chronic pancreatitis?

A

Pseudocyst
Pancreatic cancer
Diabetes mellitus
Steatorrhoea

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90
Q

What type of bacteria is clostridium difficile?

A

Gram positive anaerobic bacteria which produces spores which release exotoxin causing intestinal damage

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91
Q

Classification of clostridium difficile infection?

A

Non severe;
WWC<15
Rise in creatinine <50% of baseline
Temperature <38.5

Severe;
WWC>15
Rise in creatinine >50% of baseline
Temperature >38.5

Fulminant;
Systemic; hypotension, septic shock, rapid deterioration in condition
Local; ileus, toxic megacolon or bowel perforation

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92
Q

Causes of clostridium difficile infection?

A

Recent treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics – nearly all antibiotics can cause C. difficile infection, with common culprits being:
Clindamycin
Ciprofloxacin
Third-generation cephalosporins (eg. Ceftriaxone)
Penicillins including Piperacillin-tazobactam (Tazocin)
Carbapenems (eg. Meropenem)
Increased length of stay in hospital
Age over 65 years
Predisposing conditions including inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), cancer or kidney disease, and immunosuppression (diabetes or HIV infection, or as side effect of chemotherapy or steroids)
Prolonged proton pump inhibitor (PPI) usage

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93
Q

Signs and symptoms of clostridium difficile?

A

Watery diarrhoea, which can be bloody
Painful abdominal cramps
Nausea
Signs of dehydration, such as dry mucous membranes, tachycardia and oliguria
Fever
Loss of appetite and weight loss
Confusion

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94
Q

Investigations to diagnose clostridium difficile?

A

Stool culture
Bloods; FBC, U+E, CRP
Abdominal Xray

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95
Q

Management of clostridium difficile?

A

A-E/ sepsis six
Evaluate antibiotics and stop unnecessary medications
Move to a side room and barrier nursing
Rehydration
Oral vancomycin
Second line fidaxomicin
Third line vancomycin and metronidazole
Surgical resection in life threatening toxic megacolon; subtotal colectomy

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96
Q

Management of clostridium difficile?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis
Toxic megacolon
Systemic toxicity

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97
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

T cell mediated autoimmune disorder affecting the small intestine

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98
Q

Epidemiology of coeliac disease?

A

Affects females more
More prevalent in Irish descent

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99
Q

Cause of coeliac disease?

A

Positive family history
HLA-DQ2
History of other autoimmune disease

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100
Q

Symptoms of clostridium difficile?

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms; abdominal pain, distension, nausea and vomiting, diarrhoea, steatorrhoea
Systemic symptoms; fatigue, weight loss, failure to thrive

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101
Q

Signs of coeliac disease?

A

Pallor
Short stature
Signs of malabsorption such as bruising
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Abdominal distention

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102
Q

Differentials for coeliac disease?

A

IBS
IBD
Food intolerance
Gastroenteritis
Malabsorption

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103
Q

Investigations to diagnose coeliac disease?

A

Stool culture
Bloods; FBC, U+E, Bone profile, LFT, Iron, B12, Folate
anti-TTG, anti- endomysial, anti-gliadin
OGD; villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia intraepithelial lymphovytes

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104
Q

Management of coeliac disease?

A

Lifelong gluten free diet
Dermatitis herpetiformis managed with dapsone

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105
Q

Complications of coeliac disease?

A

Mixed anaemia
Hyposplenism
Osteoporosis
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma

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106
Q

What is the Rome IV criteria for constipation?

A

Fewer than three bowel movements per week
Hard stool in more than 25% of bowel movements
Tenesmus (sense of incomplete evacuation) in more than 25% of bowel movements
Excessive straining in more than 25% of bowel movements
A need for manual evacuation of bowel movements

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107
Q

Classification of constipation?

A

Primary; no organic cause due to dysregulation of the function of colon
Secondary; diet, medication, metabolic, endocrine or neurological

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108
Q

Risk factors for constipation?

A

Advanced age
Inactivity
Low calorie intake
Low fibre diet
Certain medications
Female sex

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109
Q

Aetiology of constipation?

A

Dietary factors
Behavioral; inactivity, avoid defecation
Electrolyte disturbance; hypercalcaemia
Medications; opiates, CCB, antipsychotics
Neurological disorder; spinal cord lesion, parkinsons disease, diabetic neuropathy
Endocrine; hypothyroidism
Colon; malignancy, strictures
Anal fissures, proctitis

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110
Q

Signs and symptoms of constipation

A

Infrequent bowel movements (less than 3 per week)
Difficulty passing bowel motions
Tenesmus
Excessive straining
Abdominal distension
Abdominal mass felt at the left or right lower quadrants (stool)
Rectal bleeding
Anal fissures
Haemorrhoids
Presence of hard stool or impaction on digital rectal examination

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111
Q

Red flags of constipation?

A

Anaemia
Weight loss
Anorexia
Recent onset
Melaena
Haematemesis
PR bleeding
Swallowing difficulties

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112
Q

Investigations to diagnose constipation?

A

2WW; constipation with weight loss in anyone over 60
PR exam
Stool culture; MC&S
FIT test
FBC, U+E, TFT, calcium
Abdominal Xray
Barium enema
Colonoscopy

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113
Q

Management of constipation?

A

Lifestyle intervention
Bulking agents; ispaghula husk
Stimulant; senna
Stool softeners; sodium docusate, macrogol
Osmotic laxative; lactulose
Phosphate enema

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114
Q

Properties of bulk forming laxative?

A

Increases faecal mass and stimulate peristalsis

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115
Q

Features of stimulant laxative?

A

Increases intestinal motility
Used for short term relief

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116
Q

Features of stool softeners?

A

Softens stool to make passage of bowel movement easier
Used in anal fissures with anticipatory withholding

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117
Q

Features of osmotic laxatives?

A

Retains fluid in bowel and discourage ammonia producing microorganisms
First line for hepatic encephalopathy

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118
Q

Features of phosphate enema?

A

Used for rapid bowel evacuation before medical procedures

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119
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

Chronic relapsing inflammatory bowel disease characterised by transmural granulomatous inflammation affecting any part of the GI tract

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120
Q

Aetiology of crohn’s disease?

A

Family history
Smoking
Diet high in refined carbohydrates and fats

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121
Q

Epidemiology of Crohn’s disease?

A

More common in northern climates
Increased incidence in Europe in Northern America
More common in 15-40 year olds and 60-80 year olds

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122
Q

Signs and symptoms of Crohn’s?

A

Crampy abdominal pain
Non bloody diarrhoea
Systemic symptoms; weight loss, fever
Aphthous ulcers in mouth
Right lower quadrant tenderness
Right iliac fossa mass
Perianal tags
Fistulae
Perianal abscess
Erythema nodosum; painful erythematous nodules/ plaques
Pyoderma gangrenosum; well defined ulcer with a purple overhanging edge
Anterior uveitis
Episcleritis
Enteropathic arthropathy
Axial spondyloarthropathy
Gallstones
AA amyloidosis

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123
Q

Investigations to diagnose Crohn’s?

A

Stool culture
Faecal calprotectin
Bloods; raised WCC, raised ESR/ CRP, thrombocytosis, anaemia, low albumin, haematinics
Endoscopy
MRI- upper GI series shows string of Kantour
Colonoscopy + biopsy; intermittent inflammation, cobblestone appearance, rose thorn ulcers, non caseating granuloma

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124
Q

Management of Crohn’s?

A

Induce remission;
Glucocorticoids; oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone

Maintaining remission;
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
Methotrexate
Biological; infliximab, adalimumab

Surgical;
If severe disease consider surgery to control fistulae, resection of strictures, rest/ defunctioning of bowel

Management of peri-anal fistulae;
Drainage seton
Fistulotomy
Sphincter saving

Management of peri-anal abscess;
Ceftriaxone + Metronidazole
Examination under anaesthesia, incision and drainage

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125
Q

What should be considered when starting patients on Azathioprine or mercaptopurine?

A

Assess for thiopurine methyltransferase activity, underactivity increases risk of bone marrow suppression

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126
Q

Complications of Crohns?

A

Fistulas
Strictures
Abscesses
Malabsorption
Perforation
Nutritional deficiency
Increased risk of colon cancer
Osteoporosis
Intestinal obstruction
Toxic megacolon

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127
Q
A
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128
Q

Medications which induce CYP450 enzyme?

A

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas

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129
Q

Medications which inhibit CYP450 enzymes?

A

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & Grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

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130
Q

Effect of CYP450 inducers on contraceptives?

A

COCP and POP are hepatically metabolised so inducers will reduce their effectiveness

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131
Q

What is dyspepsia?

A

Group of gastrointestinal symptoms such as epigastric pain, bloating, early satiety and nausea

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132
Q

Causes of dyspepsia?

A

Multifactorial
Dietary habits
Lifestyle choices
Psychological stressors
Helicobacter pylori infection
GORD
Medication uses
Underlying gastrointestinal disorders

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133
Q

Signs and symptoms of dyspepsia?

A

Epigastric pain or discomfort
Bloating
Belching
Nausea and early satiety
Patients may also report heartburn, regurgitation, or sour taste in the mouth if associated with GORD.

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134
Q

Differentials for dyspepsia?

A

GORD
Peptic ulcer disease
Gastritis
Gallbladder disease
Pancreatic disorders
Inferior MI

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135
Q

Investigations to identify cause of dyspepsia?

A

FBC
H.pylori; urea breath test, stool helicobacter antigen test
OGD
2WW; if dysphagia over 55 years with weight loss and any of the following; upper abdominal pain, reflux, dyspepsia

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136
Q

Management of dyspepsia?

A

Lifestyle; stop smoking, weight loss, avoid trigger foods, eat smaller meals, reduce alcohol
Medication review; exacerbating medications include aspirin, alpha blockers, anticholinergic, benzodiazepines, calcium channel blockers, corticosteroids, nitrates, NSAIDs, TCA

Medical management;
PPI
Treat H.pylori infection

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137
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Swallowing difficulty which involves problems in oral, pharyngeal or oesophageal stages of swallowing

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138
Q

Aetiology of dysphagia?

A

Neurological: Conditions like cerebrovascular disease, Parkinson’s disease, motor neurone disease, myasthenia gravis, and bulbar palsy.

Motility disorders: Including achalasia, diffuse oesophageal spasm, and systemic sclerosis.

Mechanical/obstructive causes: Such as benign strictures, malignancy, pharyngeal pouch, and extrinsic pressure from lung cancer, mediastinal lymph nodes, or retrosternal goitre.

Other: Causes such as oesophagitis, globus (psychological causes), and Plummer-Vinson syndrome.

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139
Q

How to differentiate presentation of dysphagia in relation to cause?

A

Motility disorders; liquids and solids equally affected from the start
Benign or malignant stricture; progressive dysphagia of solids and then liquids
Neurological; Difficulty in swallowing motion
Candida; painful dysphagia
Pharyngeal pouch; bulging neck on swallowing, gurgling or halitosis
Plummer- Vinson syndrome; upper oesophageal web, post cricoid dysphagia,
Diffuse oesophageal spasm; intermittent dysphagia

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140
Q

Investigations to identify cause of dysphagia?

A

2WW; dysphagia over 55 years with weight loss and any of upper abdominal pain/ reflux or dyspepsia
FBC
Iron studies
Barium swallow
Manometry
24 hour pH

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141
Q

Management of dysphagia?

A

SALT assessment
PPI
Iron supplementation
Dilation in achalasia, removal of malignancy

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142
Q

What is enteric fever?

A

Typhoid or paratyphoid
Infection caused by salmonella typhi and salmonella paratyphi

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143
Q

Epidemiology of enteric fever?

A

Paratyphoid A,B and C are prevalent in inadequate sanitation and poor water supply
Paratyphoid fever is less common
Highest incidence in south asia, southeast asia, sub saharan africa
Primarily affect children and young adults

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144
Q

Risk factors for contracting typhoid?

A

Poor sanitation
Poor hygiene

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145
Q

How is typhoid spread?

A

Ingestion of food or water contaminated with faeces of infected infividual

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146
Q

Signs and symptoms of enteric fever?

A

Generally well 6-30 days post exposure
Gradual onset with high fever developing over several days
Paratyphoid is a milder illness with shorter incubation period

Weakness & myalgia
Relative bradycardia
Abdominal pain
Constipation (more common than diarrhoea)
Headaches
Vomiting (not usually severe)
Skin rash with rose-colored spots (uncommon, but common in exams!)
Confusion (if severe)

without treatment symptoms persist for weeks

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147
Q

Investigations to diagnose enteric fever?

A

Measure urine output
ECG
FBC, U+E, CRP, ABG, VBG (lactate), LFT, Group and Save, clotting
Blood culture, stool culture
Bone marrow aspirate- gold standard
MRI if ?osteomyelitis

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148
Q

Management of enteric fever?

A

Sepsis 6
Azithromycin/ ceftriaxone, some are sensitive to ciprofloxacin
Notifiable disease

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149
Q

Complications of typhoid?

A

Osteomyelitis
GI bleed/ perforation
Meningitis

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150
Q

What is GORD?

A

Reflux of gastric contents into oesophagus due to defective lower oesophageal sphincter leading to dyspepsia

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151
Q

Epidemiology of GORD?

A

10% of UK adults experience GORD
More common in over 50

152
Q

Pathophysiology of GORD?

A

Defective LOS enabling reflux of gastric contents into oesophagus

153
Q

Risk factors for GORD?

A

Obesity
Alcohol use
Smoking
Intake of coffee, citrus foods, spicy food, fat

154
Q

Signs and symptoms of GORD?

A

Typical symptoms; dyspepsia, sensation of acid regurgitation

Atypical symptoms; epigastric/ chest pain, nausea, bloating, belching, blobus, laryngitis, tooth erosion

Alarm symptoms; weight loss, anaemia, dysphagia, haematemesis, melaena, persistent vomiting

155
Q

Differentials for GORD?

A

Gastric ulcers
Oesophageal cancers
Functional dyspepsia
Hiatus hernia

156
Q

Investigations to diagnose GORD?

A

H.pylori; Urea breath test, stool antigen test
OGD
Oesophageal manometry

157
Q

Referral criteria for OGD in reflux?

A

2WW; over 55 years with weight loss and dyspepsia/ reflux

Non urgent;
55 and above with treatment resistant dyspepsia
Raised platelet count
Nausea and vomiting

158
Q

Management of GORD?

A

Lifestyle; weight loss, dietary changes, elevation of head at night, avoid late night eating
PPI therapy
H.pylori eradication therapy

159
Q

Complications of GORD?

A

Oesophageal ulcer
Oesophageal stricture
Barrett’s oesophagus
Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

160
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Enteric infection causing acute-onset diarrhoea +/- associated symptoms

161
Q

What is dysentery?

A

Is acute infectious diarrhoea with blood & mucus, often with associated symptoms

162
Q

Causes of diarrhoeal illness?

A

Norovirus
Rotavirus
Adenovirus

Campylobacter
E.coli
Salmonella
Shigella
Bacillus cereus
Staphylococcus aureus

Cryptosporidium
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia

163
Q

Signs and symptoms of gastroenteritis?

A

Sudden-onset diarrhoea, with or without blood
Faecal urgency
Nausea & vomiting
Fever, malaise
Abdominal pain
Associated symptoms specific to the cause

164
Q

Investigations to diagnose gastroenteritis?

A

Stool culture
Bloods; FBC, U+E, CRP, LFT, TFT
VBG
Monitor urine output

165
Q

Management of gastroenteritis?

A

A-E
Sepsis 6
Fluids
Anti-emetic
Anti-biotics;
Campylobacter; clarithromycin
Amoeba, giardia; metronidazole
Cholera; tetracycline
Notifiable disease

166
Q

Complications of gastroenteritis?

A

Dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, acute kidney injury
Haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Reactive arthritis
Toxic megacolon
Sepsis
Faltering growth
IBS
Lactose intolerance

167
Q

What is gastroparesis?

A

Chronic medical condition characterised by delayed gastric emptying without mechanical obstruction due to impaired activity of stomach muscles which delays gastric emptying

168
Q

Epidemiology of gastroparesis?

A

Commonly associated with diabetes mellitus

169
Q

Pathophysiology of gastroparesis?

A

Autonomic neuropathy
More likely in diabetes, parkinsons, certain medications, multiple sclerosis

170
Q

Signs and symptoms of gastroparesis?

A

Nausea
Vomiting
Early satiety (feeling of fullness after a few bites)
Abdominal pain
Bloating
Diabetics; poor glucose level

171
Q

Differentials for gastroparesis?

A

Peptic ulcer disease
Gastric outlet obstruction
GORD

172
Q

Investigations to diagnose gastroparesis?

A

Solid meal gastric scintigraphy allowing visualisation of rate of gastric emptying

173
Q

Management of gastroparesis?

A

Dietary modifications; low fibre, smaller frequent meals, pureed or mashed food
Pharmacological; metoclopramide

174
Q

What is Giardiasis?

A

Infectious gastroenteritis cause by protozoan parasite giardia lamblia

175
Q

Risk factors for giardiasis?

A

Exposure to contaminated water
Spread via faecal- oral route
Consumption of uncooked fruit or vegetables
Poor hand hygiene

176
Q

Signs and symptoms of giardiasis?

A

Explosive, watery, non-bloody diarrhoea
Bloating
Flatulence
Nausea
Weight loss
Anorexia

177
Q

Differentials for giardiasis?

A

Parasitic infections; cryptosporidium, entamoeba histolytica
Bacterial gastroenteritis
Viral gastroenteritis

178
Q

Investigations for giardiasis?

A

Stool microscopy; repeat 3 times on separate days
Stool antigen test, stool PCR
Duodenal aspirates ad biopsy

179
Q

Management of giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

180
Q

What is gilberts syndrome?

A

Inherited autosomal recessive disorder where liver does not process bilirubin due to mutation in UGT1A1 gene resulting in reduced activity of UGT enzyme which conjugates bilirubin with glucuronic acid

181
Q

Signs and symptoms of gilberts syndrome?

A

Asymptomatic
Intermittent mild jaundice triggered by stress, fasting, infection, exercise

182
Q

Differentials for gilberts syndrome?

A

Hepatitis
Haemolytic anaemia
Cholestasis

183
Q

Investigations to diagnose gilberts syndrome?

A

Elevated bilirubin
LFT- otherwise normal
FBC

184
Q

Management of gilberts syndrome?

A

No treatment
Monitor condition

185
Q

What is H.pylori?

A

Gram negative spiral shaped bacterium

186
Q

Signs and symptoms of H.pylori infection?

A

Dyspepsia symptoms
Abdominal discomfort or pain, typically in the upper abdomen
Bloating
Nausea
Loss of appetite
Weight loss

187
Q

Differentials for H.pylori?

A

Gastritis
GORD
Gastric cancer

188
Q

Investigations to diagnose H.pylori?

A

Stool antigen test
Carbon 13 urea breath test
OGD

189
Q

Management of H.pylori infection?

A

First line; amoxicillin + clarithromycin + PPI
Metronidazole if penicillin allergy

After 4-8 weeks retest for H.pylori if still present commence another course of triple therapy with Metronidazole/ clarithromycin + amoxicillin +PPI

If after 2nd course consider PPI+ amoxicillin + tetracycline/ quinolone

If after 2 courses refer to gastroenterologist

190
Q

Complications of H.pylori?

A

Duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer
Gastric cancer
B cell MALT lymphoma
Atrophic gastritis

191
Q

Causative agents of hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E
EBV
CMV
Leptospirosis
Malaria
Alcohol
Drugs
Toxins
Autoimmune

192
Q

Signs and symptoms of hepatitis?

A

Acute liver failure;
Hepatitis A and E
Fever, malaise, anorexia, Nausea and vomiting

Acute hepatitis;
RUQ pain, jaundice, tender hepatosplenomegaly

Chronic liver failure;
Hepatic encephalopathy, jaundice, ascites, coagulopathy

193
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis A?

A

RNA picornavirus transmitted by faecal oral route

194
Q

Epidemiology of hepatitis A?

A

High in developing countries
Greatest mortality and morbidity in over 50 years

195
Q

Presentation of hepatitis A infection?

A

Flu like symptoms
Jaundice
Pale stools
Dark urine
Abdominal pain

196
Q

Investigations to diagnose hepatitis A infection?

A

LFT; raised ALT/ AST
Serology

197
Q

Management of hepatitis A infection?

A

Supportive management
Fluid intake
Electrolyte replacement

198
Q

In which situation is hepatitis E infection associated with higher mortality?

A

Pregnancy, upto 20% mortality

199
Q

What type of virus is hepatitis B?

A

dsDNA virus of hepadenaviridae family
60-90 day incubation period

200
Q

Epidemiology of hepatitis B?

A

Most common cause of hepatitis globally
High prevalence in sub saharan africa, asia and pacific islands
Decline in incidence due to vaccination

201
Q

Transmission of hepatitis B?

A

Vaginal/ anal intercourse
Transfusion
Vertical transmission
Needle stick injury

202
Q

Serology results in hepatitis B?

A

HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen); Indicates current infection; persists >6 months

Anti-HBs (Hepatitis B Surface Antibody); Indicates immunity from past infection or vaccination

HBeAg (Hepatitis B e Antigen); Indicates active viral replication; higher infectivity

Anti-HBe (Hepatitis B e Antibody); Indicates lower infectivity; seroconversion is associated with reduced viral replication

HBcAb (Hepatitis B Core Antibody); IgM indicates acute infection; IgG indicates past infection or vaccination

HBV DNA (Hepatitis B Virus DNA); Quantifies viral load; used to monitor response to treatment

203
Q

Management of hepatitis B infection?

A

Pegylated interferon can prevent liver disease
Antiviral therapy in adults over 30 years with HBV DNA greater than 2000 and abnormal ALT on 2 consecutive tests 3 months apart

If sudden deterioration in hepatitis B patients consider co-infection with hepatitis D

204
Q

What is hepatitis C?

A

RNA virus of flaviviridae family

205
Q

Complications of hepatitis C infection?

A

15-25% clear virus
70% go on to develop chronic hepatitis
1-4% develop hepatocellular carcinoma
2-5% develop liver failure
Arthralgia/ arthritis
Sjorgen’s syndrome
Cryoglobulinaemia
Porphyria cutanea tarda
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

206
Q

Management of hepatitis C?

A

Nucleoside analogues; sofobuvir, daclatsavir

207
Q

What is hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Primary malignancy of liver predominantly in patients with underlying chronic liver disease and cirrhosis

208
Q

Epidemiology of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

6th most common cancer
Leading cause is chronic hepatitis B infection

209
Q

Aetiology of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Chronic viral hepatitis (Hepatitis B or C)
Cirrhosis
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Inherited metabolic diseases
Alcohol misuse
Obesity
Type 2 Diabetes
Rare diseases: Wilson’s disease, porphyria cutanea tarda, alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

210
Q

Signs and symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Can present with decompensated liver disease or liver failure

Abdominal pain
Weight loss
Jaundice
Ascites
Hepatomegaly, with a ‘craggy’ liver edge on examination
Encephalopathy

211
Q

Differentials for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Metastatic liver disease
Cirrhosis
Hemangioma
Pancreatic cancer
Cholangiocarcinoma

212
Q

Investigations to diagnose hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Bloods; FBC, U+E, CRP, LFT, coagulation, viral serology, AFP
Abdominal USS
Liver biopsy with CT of chest, abdomen and pelvis

213
Q

Monitoring of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

6 monthly liver ultrasound and AFP measurement

214
Q

Management of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Surgical resection of early stage tumour
Liver transplant
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Biologicals
Palliative care

215
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of iron metabolism characterised by accumulation of iron in body

216
Q

Epidemiology of haemochromatosis?

A

Common in northern european descent
Affects 1 in 200 people
C282Y homozygous mutation is more common in celtic heritage

217
Q

Aetiology of haemochromatosis?

A

Most common genotype is homozygosity for HFE C282Y on chromosome 6

This disrupts control of iron absorption leading to excessive accumulation in the body

218
Q

Signs and symptoms of haemochromatosis?

A

Bronze skin
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Fatigue
Joint pain
Sequalae of chronic liver disease/cirrhosis
Adrenal insufficiency
Testicular Atrophy

219
Q

Differentials for haemochromatosis?

A

Wilson’s disease
Alpha- 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Porphyria cutanea tarda
Addisons disease

220
Q

Investigations to diagnose haemochromatosis?

A

Transferrin saturation >55%
Raised iron
Low TIBC
Genetic testing for HFE gene mutation
MRI brain to identify higher iron deposition
Liver biopsy to confirm iron stores

221
Q

Management of haemochromatosis?

A

Venesection
Desferrioxamine; iron chelating agents
Avoid undercooked seafood, high risk of listeria which thrive on iron

222
Q

Complications of haemochromatosis?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy
Bronze skin
Cirrhosis
Diabetes mellitus
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
Arthropathy

223
Q

What is a hiatus hernia?

A

Abdominal contents protrude through enlarged oesophageal hiatus in diaphragm

224
Q

Risk factors for hiatus hernia?

A

Obesity
Prior hiatal surgery
Increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as from chronic cough, multiparity, or ascites
Increasing age

225
Q

Types of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia; GOJ slides up into chest resulting in less competent sphincter and consequent acid reflux

Rolling hiatal hernia; GOJ stays in abdomen but part of stomach protrudes into chest alongside oeshphagus

226
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia is more common?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia, 80%

227
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia requires more urgent treatment?

A

Rolling due to risk of volvulus

228
Q

Signs and symptoms of hiatal hernia?

A

Heartburn
Dysphagia
Regurgitation
Odynophagia
Shortness of breath
Chronic cough
Chest pain

229
Q

Differentials for hiatal hernia?

A

GORD
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer
Gallstones

230
Q

Investigations to diagnose hiatal hernia?

A

Barium swallows
Endoscopy
Oesophageal manometry

231
Q

Management of hiatal hernia?

A

Conservative;
Weight loss
Elevating head of bed
Avoid large meals 3-4 hours before bedtime
Avoid alcohol and spicy food
Smoking cessation
Caffeine, fatty foods , chocolate, peppermint, CCB, nitrates and beta blockers should be avoided

Medical;
PPI trial for 4-8 weeks

Surgical;
Nissen’s fundoplication

232
Q

Complications of hiatal hernia?

A

Haemorrhage
Volvulus
Ischaemia
Necrosis
Obstruction

234
Q

Medications which can cause diarrhoea?

A

Magnesium
Antibiotics, specifically penicillins
Chemotherapy agents
Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole
H2 blockers like cimetidine and ranitidine
Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
Metformin

235
Q

Medications which can cause constipation?

A

Anti-depressants
Anti-psychotics
Levodopa
Aluminium-based antacids
Iron supplements
Opiates

236
Q

Management of iatrogenic constipation/ diarrhoea?

A

Review and adjust dosage of offending drugs
Consider alternate medications
Anti-diarrhoeal/ laxative for short term use
Encourage hydration and dietary modification

237
Q

What is IBS?

A

Chronic GI disorder of abdominal pain/ discomfort associated with altered bowel habits without identifiable structural or biochemical abnormalities

238
Q

Epidemiology of IBS?

A

10-20% of adults affected worldwide

239
Q

Aetiology of IBS?

A

Genetic predisposition, altered gut microbiota, low grade inflammation and abnormalities in gut-brain axis

240
Q

Signs and symptoms of IBS?

A

Abdominal pain or discomfort relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency or stool form
Altered stool passage
Abdominal bloating
Symptoms worsened by eating
Passage of mucus
Lethargy, nausea, backache

241
Q

Differentials for IBS?

A

IBD
Coeliac disease
Colorectal cancer

242
Q

Investigations to diagnose IBS?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion, investigations to rule out other causes

Faecal calprotectin
FBC
ESR
CRP
Coeliac serology
Consider abdominal USS, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy, TFT, FIT test, faecal ova and parasite test, hydrogen breath test

243
Q

Management of IBS?

A

Regular exercise, stress management
Low FODMAP diet
Low dose TCA
Psychotherapy, CBT, hypnotherapy

244
Q

Aetiology of jaundice?

A

Pre-hepatic; gilberts disease, crigler-naajjar, haemolysis, rifampicin

Hepatic;
Viruses (hepatitis, CMV, EBV)
Drugs, including paracetamol overdose, nitrofurantoin, halothane, valproate, statins, tuberculosis antibiotics
Alcohol
Cirrhosis
Liver mass (abscess or malignancy)
Haemochromatosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Budd-Chiari
Wilson’s disease
Failure to excrete conjugated bilirubin (Rotor and Dubin-Johnson syndromes)

Post hepatic;
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Common bile duct gallstones or Mirrizi’s syndrome (CBD compression from a gallstone in the cystic duct)
Drugs, including coamoxiclav, flucloxacillin, steroids, sulfonylureas
Malignancy, such as head of the pancreas adenocarcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma
Caroli’s disease
Biliary atresia

245
Q

Signs and symptoms of jaundice?

A

Pre-hepatic: haemolysis, anaemia (fatigue, chest pain, palpitations, lightheadedness)

Hepatic: RUQ pain, fever, viral illness, risk factors include: IVDU/tattoo, UPSI

Post-hepatic: dark urine, pale stools, itch

246
Q

What is courvoisier’s law?

A

Jaundice and palpable painless gallbladder not due to gallstones. Painless jaundice – red flag for pancreatic cancer or cholangiocarcinoma

247
Q

What is liver cirrhosis?

A

Irreversible scarring of the liver with loss of normal hepatic architecture

248
Q

Causes of liver cirrhosis?

A

Commonest causes:
Alcohol
Hepatitis B and C
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

Less common causes:
Autoimmune: Autoimmune hepatitis, Primary biliary cirrhosis, Primary sclerosis cholangitis, Sarcoid

Genetic: Haemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

Drugs: Methotrexate, Amiodarone, Isoniazid

Others: Budd-Chiari Syndrome, Heart failure, Tertiary syphilis

249
Q

Signs and symptoms of liver cirrhosis?

A

Compensated;
Fatigue and anergia
Anorexia and cachexia
Nausea or abdominal pain
Spider naevi
Gynaecomastia
Finger clubbing
Leuconychia
Dupuytren’s contracture
Caput medusae
Splenomegaly

Decompensated;
Ascites and oedema
Jaundice
Pruritus
Palmar erythema
Gynaecomastia and testicular atrophy
Easy bruising
Encephalopathy/confusion
Liver ‘flap’

250
Q

Differentials for Liver cirrhosis?

A

Hepatic steatosis
Chronic hepatitis
Congestive heart failure

251
Q

Investigations to diagnose cirrhosis?

A

LFT; AST, ALT, ALP, GGT, albumin, bilirubin
FBC; leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anaemia
U+E
INR
Hepatitis serology
Peritoneal tap
Doppler USS
Fibroscan
Liver biopsy

252
Q

What is the child pugh score?

A

Assess severity of liver cirrhosis

Takes into account bilirubin, albumin, PT, encephalopathy, ascites

A; <7 points
B; 7-9 points
c; >9 points

253
Q

Interpretation of MELD score?

A

6-9; Low risk of mortality; Class I (less than 10%)
10-19; Intermediate risk of mortality; Class II (19%)
20-29; High risk of mortality; Class III (52%)
30-39; Severe risk of mortality; Class IV (71%)
≥40; Very severe risk of mortality; Class V (95%)

254
Q

Management of liver cirrhosis?

A

Nutrition and no alcohol
Avoid NSAIDs, sedatives and opiates
6 month scans and serum AFP
Upper GI endoscopy

Cholestyramine for pruritus
Ascites; fluid restriction, low salt diet, spironolactone, furosemide, therapeutic paracentesis, albumin infusion

Liver transplant

255
Q

Complications of liver cirrhosis?

A

Ascites
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Liver failure
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Oesophageal varices +/- haemorrhage
Renal failure

256
Q

What is liver failure?

A

Loss of liver function and development of complications including coagulopathy, jaundice, encephalopathy

257
Q

Aetiology of liver failure?

A

Acute liver failure; viral hepatitis, drug induced liver injury (paracetamol halothane, isoniazid), toxic exposure, vascular disorder (budd- chiari syndrome, hepatic vein obstruction)

Chronic liver failure; alcohol misuse, chronic viral hepatitis, non alcoholic fatty liver disease, autoimmune liver disease (autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cholangitis), wilson’s disease, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

258
Q

Signs and symptoms of liver failure?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy
Abnormal bleeding
Jaundice

259
Q

Pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Ammonia accumulates in blood and crosses blood brain barrier and is metabolised by astrocytes to form glutamine.
Glutamine disrupts osmotic balance and astrocytes begin to swell resulting in cerebral oedema

260
Q

Stages of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Altered mood and behaviour, disturbance of sleep pattern and dyspraxia

Drowsiness, confusion, slurring of speech and personality change

Incoherency, restlessness, asterixis

Coma

261
Q

Investigations to diagnose liver failure?

A

INR, coagulation studies
LFT, albumin
FBC, U+E, haematinics
Viral serology
Ascitic drain
Abdominal ultrasound scan
Doppler ultrasound scan
OGD

262
Q

Management of liver failure?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy; lactulose, rifaximin, mannitol

Coagulopathy; vitamin K, FFP

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis; IV piperacillin- tazobactam

TIPSS

Liver transplant

263
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Cirrhosis
Ascites
Renal failure

264
Q

Criteria for liver transplant if paracetamol induced?

A

Arterial pH <7.3 24h after ingestion OR
Pro-thrombin time >100s

AND creatinine >300µmol/L
AND grade III or IV encephalopathy.

265
Q

Non paracetamol induced liver transplant criteria?

A

Prothrombin time >100s OR

Any three of:
Drug-induced liver failure
Age under 10 or over 40 years
1 week from 1st jaundice to encephalopathy
Prothrombin time >50s
Bilirubin ≥300µmol/L.

266
Q

What is malabsorption?

A

Clinical syndrome characterised by impaired absorption of nutrients, vitamins or minerals from diet resulting in nutritional deficiencies

267
Q

Aetiology of malabsorption?

A

Gastric causes; post gastrectomy

Small bowel causes; coeliac, crohns, small bowel resection

Pancreatic causes; chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer, cystic fibrosis

Hepatobiliary causes; primary biliary cirrhosis, ileal resection, post cholecystectomy

Infective; giardasis, whipple’s disease, bacterial overgrowth

268
Q

Signs and symptoms of malabsorption?

A

Diarrhoea
Steatorrhoea
Weight loss
Nutritional deficiency leading to anaemia, osteoporosis, peripheral neuropathy

269
Q

What is malnourishment?

A

A body mass index (BMI) of less than 18.5 kg/m2.
Unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3–6 months.
A BMI of less than 20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3–6 months.

271
Q

What is melanosis coli?

A

Histological condition due to laxative abuse characterised by presence of dark brown pigmentation of the macrophages in the lamina propria of the colon

272
Q

Epidemiology of melanosis coli?

A

Prolonged laxative use
Higher in elderly and young females

273
Q

Aetiology of melanosis coli?

A

Laxative use, especially senns

274
Q

Signs and symptoms of melanosis coli?

A

Chronic constipation
Abdominal discomfort
Anorexia nervosa/Bulimia - patients may be young and underweight with a history of purging.
Nausea

275
Q

Differentials for melanosis coli?

A

IBD
Colorectal cancer
Ishcaemic colitis

276
Q

Investigations to diagnose melanosis coli?

A

Colonoscopy
Histology; presence of pigmented macrophages in lamina propria

277
Q

Management of melanosis coli?

A

Cessation of laxatives

278
Q

What is MALT lymphoma?

A

Low grade non hodgkins lymphoma that originates from B lymphocytes in the marginal zone

279
Q

Aetiology of MALT lymphoma?

A

H.pylori infection
Chronic inflammation

280
Q

Signs and symptoms of MALT lymphoma?

A

Abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Symptoms of anaemia
Weight loss

281
Q

Differentials for MALT lymphoma?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer disease

282
Q

Investigations to diagnose MALT lymphoma?

A

Endoscopy and biopsy
Immunohistochemistry
CT/ PET scan

283
Q

Management of MALT lymphoma?

A

H. pylori eradication therapy
Chemotherapy/ radiotherapy

284
Q

What is NAFLD?

A

Excessive fat accumulation in the liver in the absence of significant alcohol consumption

285
Q

Epidemiology of NAFLD?

A

Affects 23-30%

286
Q

Risk factors for NAFLD?

A

Obesity
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Hyperlipidaemia (high triglycerides and low HDL)
Hypertension
Jejunal bypass surgery
Rapid weight loss or prolonged starvation
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Hypothyroidism
Obstructive sleep apnoea

287
Q

Pathophysiology of NAFLD?

A

Steatosis; fat accumulates in the hepatocytes
Non alcoholic steatohepatitis; inflammation and hepatocellular injury in addition to fat accumulation leading to fibrosis
Fibrosis and cirrhosis; progressive scarring of the liver tissue leading to liver failure and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

288
Q

Signs and symptoms of NAFLD?

A

Fatigue
Right upper quadrant discomfort
Hepatomegaly

Jaundice
Ascites
Peripheral oedema
Hepatic encephalopathy

289
Q

Differentials for NAFLD?

A

Alcoholic liver disease
Chronic hepatitis B and C
Autoimmune hepatitis
Wilson’s disease
Haemochromatosis
Drug induced liver injury

290
Q

Investigations to diagnose NAFLD?

A

Bedside; History and examination

ALT, AST, GGT, ALP, albumin, clotting, FBC, lipid profile, viral serology

Ultrasound scan, fibroscan

Liver biopsy

291
Q

Management of NAFLD?

A

Lifestyle modification, abstain from alcohol, vaccination against hepatitis A and B, avoid hepatotoxic medications

Control diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension
Vitamin E, pioglitazone

292
Q

Complications of NAFLD?

A

Steatosis
Progression to cirrhosis
Liver failure
Hepatocellular carinoma
CVD due to metabolic syndrome

293
Q

What is varices?

A

Dilated veins which are formed due to portal hypertension

294
Q

Epidemiology of varices?

A

Common in patients with advanced liver disease
Occur in 50% of patients with cirrhosis
Variceal bleeding is leading cause of mortality
Gastric varices are less common than oesophageal

295
Q

Causes of oesophageal varices?

A

Result of portal hypertension which can be due to cirrhosis, portal vein thrombosis, schistosomiasis, hepatic fibrosis

296
Q

Signs and symptoms of a variceal bleed?

A

Haematemesis (vomiting of blood)
Melena (black, tarry stools)
Palpitations
Syncope (fainting)
Hypotension (low blood pressure)

297
Q

Differentials for oesophageal varices?

A

Gastric ulcers
Duodenal ulcers
Mallory- weiss tears

298
Q

Investigations to diagnose oesophageal varices?

A

Endoscopy
OGD

299
Q

Management of oesophageal varices?

A

In acute bleed; correct clotting abnormalities, FFP and platelet transfusion

Trelipressin
Broad spectrum antibiotics to reduce risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Variceal band ligation
Sengstaken- Blakemore
Thiamine

Prevention; beta blocker, variceal band ligation, TIPSS

300
Q

What is oesophagitis?

A

Inflammation of the oesophagus commonly due to reflux of gastric contents

301
Q

Aetiology of oesphagitis?

A

Reflux of gastric contents, the most common cause
Medications e.g. NSAIDs
Infections
Allergens, as seen in eosinophilic oesophagitis

302
Q

Presentation of oesophagitis?

A

‘Heartburn’ or retrosternal burning pain
Nausea with or without vomiting
Odynophagia, or painful swallowing

303
Q

Differentials for oeosphagitis?

A

GORD
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer disease

304
Q

Investigations to diagnose oesophagitis?

A

Endoscopy
Oesophageal pH monitoring

305
Q

Management of oeosphagitis?

A

Lifestyle changes; weight loss, cessation of smoking, reduce alcohol intake

Pharmacological treatment; PPI for 1 month

306
Q

What is oral candida?

A

White patches in mouth due to fungal infection, patches can be scraped off with friable mucosa underneath satellite lesions

307
Q

Risk factors for oral candida?

A

Old age
Diabetes mellitus
Immunosuppression
Long term corticosteroids
Malignancy
Antibiotics

308
Q

Treatment of oral candida?

A

Nystatin
Fluconazole

309
Q

Aetiology of hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV and is a sign of underlying HIV

310
Q

Difference between candida and hairy leukoplakia?

A

Candida can be scrapped of but hairy leukoplakia cannot

312
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

Painful sores/ ulcers in the lining of the stomach/ duodenum

313
Q

Epidemiology of peptic ulcer disease?

A

Duodenal ulcers are 4 times as common as gastric ulcers
H.pylori accounts for 90% of duodenal ulcers

314
Q

Risk factors for duodenal ulcers?

A

H.pylori infection
NSAIDs
Chronic use of steroids
SSRIs
Increased secretion of gastric acid
Smoking
Blood group O
Accelerated gastric emptying

315
Q

Risk factors for gastric ulcers?

A

NSAIDs
H. Pylori infection
Smoking
Delayed gastric emptying
Severe stress

316
Q

Presentation of gastric ulcer?

A

Abdominal pain exacerbated by eating
Nausea
Vomiting
Loss of appetite
Unexplained weight loss

Duodenal ulcer causes epigastric abdominal pain relieved by eating

317
Q

Differentials for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Gastritis
GORD
Stomach cancer

318
Q

Investigations to diagnose peptic ulcer disease?

A

Over 55 with dyspepsia and weight loss should ave 2WW
C-13 urea breath test
Endoscopy + biopsy

319
Q

Management of peptic ulcer disease

A

Smoking cessation

Reducing alcohol intake

Regular, small meals and avoiding eating 4 hours before bedtime

Avoidance of acidic, fatty or spicy foods, and coffee

Weight loss if overweight

Stress management

Avoidance of NSAIDs, steroids, bisphosphonates, potassium supplements, SSRIs, and crack cocaine

Over-the-counter antacids

H.pylori eradication;
If associated with NSAID use; 8 week PPI then eradication therapy of amoxicillin + clarythromycin/ metronidazole
if not associated with NSAID then start PPI with eradication therapy

320
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in the gastric mucosa resulting in an intrinsic factor deficiency and hence vitamin B12

321
Q

Pathological processes in pernicious anaemia?

A

Autoimmune attack
Intrinsic factor deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Megaloblastic changes
Haemolysis

322
Q

Epidemiology of pernicious anaemia?

A

More common in Northern European, Scandinavian and African descent affecting adults aged 60

More common in those with other autoimmune disease

323
Q

Signs and symptoms of pernicious anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Glossitis - inflammation of the tongue, leading to a smooth, beefy-red appearance.
Neurological Symptoms and subacute combined degeneration of the cord: Pernicious anaemia may cause neuropathy, affecting balance, sensation, and coordination.
Jaundice - due to haemolysis
Cognitive Impairment - memory problems, confusion, and mood changes may occur

324
Q

Differentials for pernicious anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Folate deficiency anaemia
Myelodysplastic syndromes

325
Q

Investigations to diagnose pernicious anaemia?

A

FBC; low Hb, high MCV, high MCH, normal MCHC, low reticulocyte count

Blood smear; abnormally large oval shaped RBC

Haematinics, B12 assay

Parietal cell antibodies

Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

326
Q

Management of pernicious anaemia?

A

Lifelong hydroxycobalamin replacement
Consider folate replacement

327
Q

Complications of pernicious anaemia?

A

Gastric cancer
Peripheral neuropathy
Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Optic atrophy
Dementia
Hypothyroidism
Vitiligo

328
Q

What is a Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Pharyngeal pouch characterised by herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa through a point of weakness between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscle in the inferior constrictor of the pharynx

329
Q

Epidemiology of pharyngeal pouch?

A

Affects older adults over the age of 70 years
More common in males with ratio of 2:1

330
Q

Signs and symptoms of pharyngeal pouch?

A

Dysphagia
Regurgitation of undigested food, resulting in halitosis
Aspiration
Chronic cough
Weight loss

331
Q

Management of pharyngeal pouch?

A

If small and asymptomatic; watch and wait
Surgical; resection of the diverticulum, incision of the circopharyngeus

332
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Autoimmune disease of the bile ducts that leads to scarring and inflammation leading to eventual liver cirrhosis

333
Q

Epidemiology of primary biliary cholangitis?

A

More commonly affects women
25% of patients are under 40 years
10% of patients are male

334
Q

Risk factors for PBC?

A

Previous family history of PBC
Female
Smoking
Predisposition to other autoimmune conditions (80% have Sjogren’s)

335
Q

Signs and symptoms of PBC?

A

Extreme fatigue
Pruritus (itching)
Xerosis (dry skin)
Sicca syndrome (dry eyes)
RUQ pain
Xanthelasma
Clubbing
Jaundice
Late signs include sequalae of chronic liver disease
Increased risk of HCC

336
Q

Differentials for PBC?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis
Chronic viral hepatitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Alcoholic liver disease

337
Q

Investigations to diagnose PBC?

A

Deranged LFTs
Positive AMA
Raised serum IgM
Abdominal USS
MRCP- Gold standard for visualising liver and bile duct
Liver biopsy

338
Q

Management of PBC?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression by promoting bile flow
Cholestyramine for relief of pruritus
Vitamin supplements to manage deficiencies
Liver transplantation in advanced cases, often once bilirubin is >100 this is considered (Note: PBC may recur after transplantation)

339
Q

Complications of PBC?

A

Chronic liver disease
Osteomalacia

340
Q

What is primary sclerosing colangitis?

A

Chronic cholestatic disorder characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts leading to multifocal biliary strictures

341
Q

Epidemiology of PSC?

A

More common in those with IBD, especially UC, 80% of PSC patients have UC
Associated with increased risk of colorectal and hepatobiliary cancers

342
Q

Aetiology of PSC?

A

Autoimmune disease associated with positive anti- smooth muscle, antinuclear and p-ANCA antibodies

343
Q

Signs and symptoms of PSC?

A

Hepatomegaly
Jaundice
Right upper quadrant pain
Fatigue, weight loss, fevers, and sweats
Associated with ulcerative colitis

344
Q

Differentials of PSC?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis
Cholangiocarcinoma
Primary biliary cholangitis

345
Q

Investigations to diagnose PSC?

A

Deranged LFT
Positive anti-smooth muscle , antinuclear and p-ANCA antibodies
Hypergammaglobulinaemia
MRCP/ ERCP
Liver biopsy

346
Q

Management of PSC?

A

Lifestyle changes such as alcohol avoidance
Symptomatic management such as cholestyramine for pruritus
Supplementation of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K)
Strictures may be dilated via ERCP
Liver transplantation may be indicated in cases complicated by chronic liver disease and/or hepatobiliary malignancies.

347
Q

Complications of PSC?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma
Colorectal cancer

348
Q

What is Ulcerative collitis?

A

Chronic relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease affecting large bowel typically starting at the rectum which spreads proximally upto the ileocaecal valve

349
Q

Epidemiology of ulcerative collitis?

A

More prevalent in those 15-25 years and 55-65 years

350
Q

Signs and symptoms of UC?

A

Diarrhoea often containing blood and/or mucus
Tenesmus or urgency
Generalised crampy abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa
Weight loss
Fever
Malaise
Anorexia

Extra-intestinal manifestations;
Dermatological; erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
Ocular; anterior uveitis, episcleritis, conjunctivitis
Musculoskeletal; clubbing, non- deforming asymmetrical arthritis , sacroiliitis
Hepatobiliary; jaundice
AA amyloidosis

351
Q

Differentials for Ulcerative collitis?

A

Crohns disease
Infective collitis
Ischaemic collitis

352
Q

Investigations to diagnose ulcerative collitis?

A

Stool microscopy
Faecal calprotectin
FBC
CRP/ ESR
LFT
Abdominal xray to rule out to toxic megacolon/ perforation
Endoscopy/ colonoscopy
Biopsy
Barium enema

353
Q

System to determine severity of ulcerative collitis?

A

Truelove and Witt’s criteria

354
Q

Management of ulcerative collitis?

A

Mild to moderate disease;
Proctitis/ proctosigmoiditis; aminosalicylate, oral prednisolone, consider tacrolimus
Left sided/ extensive disease; high dose oral aminosalicylate, oral prednisolone

Acute severe disease;
IV corticosteroids
If no improvement in 72 hours IV ciclosporin
Surgery

355
Q

Complications of ulcerative collitis?

A

Toxic megacolon
Massive lower GI haemorrhage
Colorectal cancer
Cholangiocarcinoma
Colonic strictures
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Inflammatory pseudopolyps
Increased risk of VTE

356
Q

What is whipples disease?

A

Rare systemic infectious disorder caused by bacterium tropheryma whipplei and affects GI system, joints and nervous system

357
Q

Aetiology of whipples disease?

A

Tropheryma whipplei

358
Q

Signs and symptoms of whipples disease?

A

Chronic diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Joint pain
Weight loss
Heart failure
Neurological disturbance

359
Q

Differentials for whipples disease?

A

IBD
Rheumatoid arthritis
Malabsorption syndrome

360
Q

Investigations to diagnose whipples disease?

A

Small bowel biopsy; presence of acid- schiff positive macrophages
Electron microscopy shows macrophages containing causative bacterium

361
Q

Management of whipples disease?

A

Long term co- trimoxazole

362
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive hereditary disorder characterised by impaired copper metabolism

363
Q

Aetiology of wilsons disease?

A

Mutation in ATP7B gene which encodes a protein vital for copper transportation and elimination in the body resulting in copper accumulation in the liver and brain

364
Q

Signs and symptoms of wilsons disease?

A

Hepatic manifestations: These range from asymptomatic disease with minor transaminase elevation, acute hepatitis, acute-on-chronic liver failure, to cirrhosis. Copper release into the bloodstream may cause Coomb’s negative haemolytic anaemia, characterized by transient low-grade haemolysis and jaundice.

Neurological manifestations: These include akinetic-rigid syndrome similar to Parkinson’s disease, pseudosclerosis dominated by tremor, ataxia, and a dystonic syndrome leading to severe contractures. Additional neurological findings may include drooling, spasticity, chorea, athetosis, myoclonus, micrographia, dyslalia, hypomimia, and dysarthria.

Psychiatric manifestations: These may precede hepatic or neurological signs in up to a third of patients and may include decreased academic performance, personality changes, sexual exhibitionism, impulsiveness, labile mood, inappropriate behaviour, depression, paranoia, schizophrenia, and, in rare cases, suicide.

Ocular manifestations: Include the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings and sunflower cataracts, which are attributed to copper deposition in the Descemet’s membrane and the anterior and posterior capsule of the lens in the former and latter, respectively.

365
Q

Differentials for wilsons disease?

A

Hepatitis; viral, autoimmune
Parkinsons disease
Cirrhosis
Psychiatric disorder; schizophrenia, paranoia, depression

366
Q

Management of wilsons disease?

A

The first line blood test is serum caeruloplasmin - <140mg/L i.e. low, is pathogonomic. Can also measure total serum copper (low).
A 24-hour urine collection for measuring urinary copper excretion, which is typically high.
Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene to confirm the diagnosis.
Imaging: MRI brain – may show basal ganglia degeneration
Invasive: Liver biopsy – increased hepatic copper

367
Q

Management of wilsons disease?

A

Avoid chocolate, nuts, liver
Chelators; D-penicillamine, trientine
Zinc salts
For severe disease liver transplantatin

368
Q

Prognosis of wilsons disease?

A

Good prognosis with early diagnosis
Untreated disease can lead to liver failure

369
Q

What is zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

Tumour that sits in the pancreas or duodenum. There is uncontrolled release of gastrin from gastrinoma resulting in development of ulcerations in the stomach and duodenum

370
Q

Epidemiology of zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

0.5-2 per million

371
Q

Aetiology of Zollinger Ellison syndrome?

A

MEN type 1

372
Q

Signs and symptoms of zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

Abdominal pain, particularly in the epigastric region
Diarrhoea
Ulceration of the duodenum, which can often lead to gastrointestinal bleeding
Non-responsiveness to simple Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)

373
Q

Differentials for zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

Peptic ulcer disease
Gastritis
GORD

374
Q

Investigations to diagnose zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrin levels
Secretin stimulation test
Somatostain receptor scintigraphy
Endoscopy

375
Q

Management of zollinger ellison syndrome?

A

Surgical resection
PPI
Chemotherapy, somatostatin analogues