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Year 4 Placements > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Before treatment with rituximab, all patients should receive screening for what and why?

A

Hepatitis B, as rituximab can reactivate hep B in those with prior exposure

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2
Q

Auer rods on blood film are characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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3
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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4
Q

Alcohol induced lymph node pain is characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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5
Q

Lymphadenopathy in lymphoma will have what character?

A

Non tender and asymmetrical

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6
Q

Eosinophilia is suggestive of which type of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkins

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7
Q

Lymphoma will typically present with what type of anaemia?

A

Normocytic

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8
Q

EBV and HIV are risk factors for which haematological malignancies?

A

Lymphomas - HL and NHL

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9
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for lymphomas?

A

Excisional nose biopsy

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10
Q

The Richter’s transformation describes what?

A

Change of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia to non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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11
Q

Confusion and constipation should raise concern of which electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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12
Q

Urinary Bence-Jones protein are suggestive of what?

A

Myeloma

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13
Q

The rouleaux formation on blood film is suggestive of what?

A

Myeloma

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14
Q

NICE recommend what type of scan for new myeloma patients?

A

Whole body MRI

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15
Q

To diagnose myeloma, what percentage of plasma cells in biopsy is required?
State minor and major criteria.

A

Minor - 10-30%
Major - over 30%

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16
Q

Suspected spinal cord compression should be treated how?

A

Dexamethasone plus urgent referral
** oncological emergency **

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17
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome carries the risk of progression to which haematological malignancy?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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18
Q

Pancytopenia with a hypercellular marrow is suggestive of what?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

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19
Q

Pancytopenia with a hypocellular marrow is suggestive of what?

A

Aplastic anaemia

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20
Q

The majority of aplastic anaemias have what aetiology?

A

Autoimmune

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21
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is what type of neoplasm?

A

High grade B cell

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22
Q

Endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma is most associated with what virus?

A

EBV

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23
Q

Sporadic Burkitt’s lymphoma is most associated with what virus?

A

HIV

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24
Q

Endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma most commonly involves which bodily area?

A

Mandible and maxilla

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25
Q

Starry sky appearance in microscopy is suggestive of what?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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26
Q

Cancer patients most often acquire an aplastic anaemia via what?

A

Chemotherapy

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27
Q

Infection in those with neutropenia is often managed with which antibiotic?

A

Tazocin

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28
Q

The c-myc gene translocation is most commonly implicated in which haematological malignancy?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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29
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome is most commonly secondary to what? After what time period does this develop?

A

Chemo or radiotherapy, around 5 years post treatment

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30
Q

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with which haematological malignancy?

A

CLL

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31
Q

Positive Coombs testing is suggestive of what?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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32
Q

Paraproteinaemia in myeloma can cause what abnormality of the blood?

A

Hyperviscosity

33
Q

Low haptoglobin is suggestive of what type of anaemia?

A

Haemolytic

34
Q

Positive Coombs testing is suggestive of what type of anaemia?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic

35
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia can possibly transform to what?

A

Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

36
Q

Which medication can be given in autoimmune cases of aplastic anaemia?

A

Ciclosporin

37
Q

ATG infusion can be used in the treatment of what?

A

Aplastic anaemia

38
Q

What 2 types of anaemia may phenytoin cause?

A
  1. Megaloblastic Macrocytic
  2. Aplastic
39
Q

Fill in the 3 blanks:
Phenytoin causes altered metabolism of ____, causing ____ ____ anaemia

A
  1. Folate
  2. Megaloblastic
  3. Macrocytic
40
Q

Parvovirus B19 can cause what type of anaemia?

A

Aplastic

41
Q

Name 2 conditions in which platelet transfusion in the context of low platelets is not indicated

A
  1. Chronic bone marrow failure
  2. Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
42
Q

What is the threshold for platelet transfusion in those with no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure?

A

10

43
Q

What are the thresholds for platelet transfusion in those with:
1. Active mild-moderate bleeding
2. Active severe bleeding

A
  1. 30
  2. 100
44
Q

What transfusion should be given first line to patients with CKD and low Hb?

A

EPO stimulating agent

45
Q

Superior vena cava syndrome can be treated by what?

A
  1. Endovascular stenting for symptom relief
  2. Chemo or radio for definitive management
46
Q

Superior vena cava syndrome is most commonly caused by what 2 malignancies?

A

Small cell lung cancer and lymphoma

47
Q

What is the first line treatment for ITP in adults?

A

Oral prednisolone

48
Q

What medication may be administered to reduce bleeding in Von Willebrand’s disease and haemophilia A?

A

Desmopressin

49
Q

Which haematological malignancy may polycythaemia rubra vera transform into?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

50
Q

In a non urgent scenario, over what time period should 1 unit of red blood cells be transfused?

A

90-120 minutes

51
Q

Heinz bodies on blood film are suggestive of what?

A

G6PD deficiency

52
Q

Rituximab acts against which class of receptors?

A

CD20

53
Q

What is the universal donor for FFP?

A

AB-

54
Q

What is the first line imaging modality in suspected myeloma?

A

Whole body MRI

55
Q

Which virus can cause aplastic crises in patients with hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Parvovirus

56
Q

Ileocaecal resection may lead to deficiency in what?

A

Vitamin B12

57
Q

Which medication should be prescribed in polycythaemia vera to decrease incidence of thrombotic events?

A

Aspirin

58
Q

SLE commonly causes which FBC defect?

A

Neutropenia

59
Q

Low haptoglobin is suggestive of what?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

60
Q

The EMA binding test is used to diagnose what?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

61
Q

What is the first line treatment for polycythaemia vera in order to keep Hb in range?

A

Venesection

62
Q

What is the first line treatment for chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Imatinib

63
Q

Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is implicated in which haematological malignancy?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

64
Q

Myeloma diagnosis is achieved through what 2 tests?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis then bone marrow biopsy

65
Q

What are the 3 main components for dealing with a sickle cell crisis?

A

Oxygen, analgesia, fluids

66
Q

Which leukaemia is most likely to present with massive splenomegaly?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

67
Q

Which leukaemia is most likely to be picked up incidentally?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

68
Q

Methotrexate can result in deficiency of what?

A

Folate

69
Q

Macrocytic anaemia plus isolated rise in GGT is suggestive of what?

A

Alcohol excess

70
Q

Tear drop poilkilocytes on blood film are associated with what?

A

Myelofibrosis

71
Q

Hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes is suggestive of what disorder?

A

Myelofibrosis

72
Q

What medication can be used as prophylaxis for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Fluoroquinolone

73
Q

If a patient with neutropenic sepsis is still unwell after 48 hours of tazocin therapy, what should they be given instead?

A

Meropenem

74
Q

Which blood product can be given in an emergency in haemophilia or Von Willebrand’s disease?

A

Cryoprecipitate

75
Q

Which blood product is given in cases of low fibrinogen?

A

Cryoprecipitate

76
Q

Pappenheimer bodies on blood film are suggestive of what?

A

Post splenectomy

77
Q

Which prophylactic antibiotic should be given to patients who are post splenectomy?

A

Pen V

78
Q

IgA deficiency increases the risk of what complication during blood transfusion?

A

Anaphylaxis

Year 4 Placements (12 decks)

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