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Year 4 Finals > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

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1
Q

Before treatment with rituximab, all patients should receive screening for what and why?

A

Hepatitis B, as rituximab can reactivate hep B in those with prior exposure

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2
Q

Auer rods on blood film are characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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3
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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4
Q

Alcohol induced lymph node pain is characteristic of which haematological malignancy?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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5
Q

Lymphadenopathy in lymphoma will have what character?

A

Non tender and asymmetrical

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6
Q

Eosinophilia is suggestive of which type of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkins

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7
Q

Lymphoma will typically present with what type of anaemia?

A

Normocytic

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8
Q

EBV and HIV are risk factors for which haematological malignancies?

A

Lymphomas - HL and NHL

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9
Q

What is the diagnostic method of choice for lymphomas?

A

Excisional nose biopsy

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10
Q

The Richter’s transformation describes what?

A

Change of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia to non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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11
Q

Confusion and constipation should raise concern of which electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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12
Q

Urinary Bence-Jones protein are suggestive of what?

A

Myeloma

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13
Q

The rouleaux formation on blood film is suggestive of what?

A

Myeloma

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14
Q

NICE recommend what type of scan for new myeloma patients?

A

Whole body MRI

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15
Q

To diagnose myeloma, what percentage of plasma cells in biopsy is required?
State minor and major criteria.

A

Minor - 10-30%
Major - over 30%

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16
Q

Suspected spinal cord compression should be treated how?

A

Dexamethasone plus urgent referral
** oncological emergency **

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17
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome carries the risk of progression to which haematological malignancy?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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18
Q

Pancytopenia with a hypercellular marrow is suggestive of what?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

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19
Q

Pancytopenia with a hypocellular marrow is suggestive of what?

A

Aplastic anaemia

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20
Q

The majority of aplastic anaemias have what aetiology?

A

Autoimmune

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21
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is what type of neoplasm?

A

High grade B cell

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22
Q

Endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma is most associated with what virus?

A

EBV

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23
Q

Sporadic Burkitt’s lymphoma is most associated with what virus?

A

HIV

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24
Q

Endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma most commonly involves which bodily area?

A

Mandible and maxilla

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25
Starry sky appearance in microscopy is suggestive of what?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
26
Cancer patients most often acquire an aplastic anaemia via what?
Chemotherapy
27
Infection in those with neutropenia is often managed with which antibiotic?
Tazocin
28
The c-myc gene translocation is most commonly implicated in which haematological malignancy?
Burkitt’s lymphoma
29
Myelodysplastic syndrome is most commonly secondary to what? After what time period does this develop?
Chemo or radiotherapy, around 5 years post treatment
30
Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with which haematological malignancy?
CLL
31
Positive Coombs testing is suggestive of what?
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
32
Paraproteinaemia in myeloma can cause what abnormality of the blood?
Hyperviscosity
33
Low haptoglobin is suggestive of what type of anaemia?
Haemolytic
34
Positive Coombs testing is suggestive of what type of anaemia?
Autoimmune haemolytic
35
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia can possibly transform to what?
Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
36
Which medication can be given in autoimmune cases of aplastic anaemia?
Ciclosporin
37
ATG infusion can be used in the treatment of what?
Aplastic anaemia
38
What 2 types of anaemia may phenytoin cause?
1. Megaloblastic Macrocytic 2. Aplastic
39
Fill in the 3 blanks: Phenytoin causes altered metabolism of ____, causing ____ ____ anaemia
1. Folate 2. Megaloblastic 3. Macrocytic
40
Parvovirus B19 can cause what type of anaemia?
Aplastic
41
Name 2 conditions in which platelet transfusion in the context of low platelets is not indicated
1. Chronic bone marrow failure 2. Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
42
What is the threshold for platelet transfusion in those with no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure?
10
43
What are the thresholds for platelet transfusion in those with: 1. Active mild-moderate bleeding 2. Active severe bleeding
1. 30 2. 100
44
What transfusion should be given first line to patients with CKD and low Hb?
EPO stimulating agent
45
Superior vena cava syndrome can be treated by what?
1. Endovascular stenting for symptom relief 2. Chemo or radio for definitive management
46
Superior vena cava syndrome is most commonly caused by what 2 malignancies?
Small cell lung cancer and lymphoma
47
What is the first line treatment for ITP in adults?
Oral prednisolone
48
What medication may be administered to reduce bleeding in Von Willebrand’s disease and haemophilia A?
Desmopressin
49
Which haematological malignancy may polycythaemia rubra vera transform into?
Acute myeloid leukaemia
50
In a non urgent scenario, over what time period should 1 unit of red blood cells be transfused?
90-120 minutes
51
Heinz bodies on blood film are suggestive of what?
G6PD deficiency
52
Rituximab acts against which class of receptors?
CD20
53
What is the universal donor for FFP?
AB-
54
What is the first line imaging modality in suspected myeloma?
Whole body MRI
55
Which virus can cause aplastic crises in patients with hereditary spherocytosis?
Parvovirus
56
Ileocaecal resection may lead to deficiency in what?
Vitamin B12
57
Which medication should be prescribed in polycythaemia vera to decrease incidence of thrombotic events?
Aspirin
58
SLE commonly causes which FBC defect?
Neutropenia
59
Low haptoglobin is suggestive of what?
Haemolytic anaemia
60
The EMA binding test is used to diagnose what?
Hereditary spherocytosis
61
What is the first line treatment for polycythaemia vera in order to keep Hb in range?
Venesection
62
What is the first line treatment for chronic myeloid leukaemia?
Imatinib
63
Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is implicated in which haematological malignancy?
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
64
Myeloma diagnosis is achieved through what 2 tests?
Serum protein electrophoresis then bone marrow biopsy
65
What are the 3 main components for dealing with a sickle cell crisis?
Oxygen, analgesia, fluids
66
Which leukaemia is most likely to present with massive splenomegaly?
Chronic myeloid leukaemia
67
Which leukaemia is most likely to be picked up incidentally?
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
68
Methotrexate can result in deficiency of what?
Folate
69
Macrocytic anaemia plus isolated rise in GGT is suggestive of what?
Alcohol excess
70
Tear drop poilkilocytes on blood film are associated with what?
Myelofibrosis
71
Hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes is suggestive of what disorder?
Myelofibrosis
72
What medication can be used as prophylaxis for neutropenic sepsis?
Fluoroquinolone
73
If a patient with neutropenic sepsis is still unwell after 48 hours of tazocin therapy, what should they be given instead?
Meropenem
74
Which blood product can be given in an emergency in haemophilia or Von Willebrand’s disease?
Cryoprecipitate
75
Which blood product is given in cases of low fibrinogen?
Cryoprecipitate
76
Pappenheimer bodies on blood film are suggestive of what?
Post splenectomy
77
Which prophylactic antibiotic should be given to patients who are post splenectomy?
Pen V
78
IgA deficiency increases the risk of what complication during blood transfusion?
Anaphylaxis
79
Which blood product holds the highest risk for bacterial contamination and why?
Platelets, stored at room temperature
80
Fever, abdominal pain and hypotension are characteristic of which blood transfusion reaction?
Acute haemolytic
81
Non haemolytic febrile reaction to blood transfusion should be managed how?
Paracetamol
82
DIC is associated with what finding on blood film?
Schistocytes
83
What is the major constituent in cryoprecipitate?
Factor VIII (8)
84
Coeliac disease is associated with what finding on blood film?
Howell-Jolly bodies
85
In patients with hereditary spherocytosis, what may trigger an aplastic crisis?
Parvovirus B19
86
State the levels of each of the following in Von Willebrand’s disease: 1. Bleeding time 2. Platelets 3. APTT
1. Prolonged 2. Normal 3. Prolonged
87
Bite and blister cells on blood film are characteristic of what?
G6PD deficiency
88
Administering irradiated blood products decreases the risk of what?
Graft versus host disease
89
What is the first line transfusion product in DIC?
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
90
State the levels of the following in tumour lysis syndrome: 1. Potassium 2. Phosphate 3. Calcium 4. Uric acid
1. High potassium 2. High phosphate 3. Low calcium 4. High uric acid
91
Raynaud’s phenomenon is suggestive of what type of anaemia?
Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

Year 4 Finals (15 decks)

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