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CRAM CARDS > haematology > Flashcards

haematology Flashcards

1
Q

treatment for hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

chemotherapy

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2
Q

reed-sternberg cells

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

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3
Q

when to offer platelet transfusion in someone with clinically significant bleeding

A

platelet count of <30 x 10 9

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4
Q

when to offer platelet transfusion in someone with clinically significant bleeding at critical sites such as CNS

A

maximum < 100 x 10 9

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5
Q

what blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination

A

platelets

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6
Q

DOAC reversal agent

A

andexanet alfa

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7
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

hyposplenism (reduced spleen function)

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8
Q

hypersegmented neutrophils, oval macrocytes

A

megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia

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9
Q

h.pylori and lymphoma

A

MALToma

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10
Q

smear/smudge cells

A

CLL

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11
Q

philadelphia chromosome

A

t(9:22)
CML

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12
Q

treatment for CML

A

imatnib

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13
Q

aquagenic puritis

A

polycythaemia vera

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14
Q

auer rods

A

AML

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15
Q

BCR-ABL1 positive myeloproliferative neoplasms

A

CML

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16
Q

BCR-ABL1 negative myeloproliferative neoplasms

A

polycythaemia vera
essential thrombocytopenia
primary myelofibrosis

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17
Q

gene associated with polycythaemia vera

A

JAK2

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18
Q

treatment of polycythaemia vera

A

chemotherapy (hydroxycarbamide)
venesection
aspirin

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19
Q

what is essential thrombocythaemia

A

myeloproliferative neoplasm causing increased number of platelets

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20
Q

what is polycythaemia vera

A

myeloproliferative neoplasm causing increased number of RBCs

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21
Q

prognosis in myeloproliferative diseases

A

uncurable
PV: The 5 year survival rate for PV patients is 85%

ET: The 5 year survival is equivalent to matched, healthy people

Primary myelofibrosis: at 5 years, the survival rate is 55% (median survival is 4-5 years)

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22
Q

blood film in primary myelofibrosis

A

leucoerythroblastic

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23
Q

treatment of primary myelofibrosis

A

supportive
JAK2 inhibitors (ruxolitinib)
allogenic stem cell
chemotherapy

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24
Q

blast crisis in CML

A

transformation to AML

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25
Q

primary myelofibrosis carries a risk of transformation to…

A

acute leukaemia

26
Q

mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia
raised HbA2

A

beta-thalassaemia trait

27
Q

mildy elevated APTT

A

von willebrands disease

28
Q

itch without rash
lymph node pain

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

29
Q

typical age group for hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

30s

30
Q

B cell non-hodgkin’s lymphoma monoclonal antibody

A

rituximab CD20

31
Q

T cell non-hodgkin’s lymphoma monoclonal antibody

A

rentuximab CD30

32
Q

which types of NHL are curable

A

high grade are potentially curable

low grade are incurable but patients may not need treatment

33
Q

CLL can transform to…

A

high grade NHL

34
Q

types of low grade NHL

A

CLL
MALToma (mantel zone)
marginal zone
follicular

35
Q

follicular NHL is associated with what chromosome

A

t(14:18)

36
Q

types of high grade lymphoma

A

diffuse large b cell lymphoma
burkitt’s lymphoma

37
Q

virus associated with burkitt’s lymphoma

A

EBV

38
Q

chromosome associated with burkitt’s lymphoma

A

t(8:14) –> c-mcy

39
Q

what drug are an integral part of lymphoma management

A

steroids

40
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

low platelets

41
Q

thrombocytosis

A

high platelets

42
Q

first line management of immune thrombocytopenia

A

oral prednisolone

43
Q

full blood count: isolated thrombocytopenia

A

ITP

44
Q

definition of acute leukaemia

A

proliferation of abnormal progenitors WITH block in differentiation/maturation

45
Q

definition of chronic leukaemia

A

proliferation of abnormal progenitors WITHOUT block of differentiation/maturation

46
Q

diagnostic test for CML

A

FBC and immunophenotyping

47
Q

associations with AML

A

gum hypertrophy
auer rods
DIC

48
Q

associations with ALL

A

cranial nerve palsies
common in children
testicular enlargement

49
Q

in which conditions is APTT raised but as an artifact

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

50
Q

Microcytic hypochromic red cells with mild anaemia

A

alpha thalassaemia trait

51
Q

HbH inclusions

A

HbH disease (type of alpha thalassaemia)

Only one working alpha gene per cell

52
Q

Hb Barts hydrops fetalis features

A

incompatible with life (most die in-utero)

Excess B chains form tetramers (B4) = HbH
Excess y chains form tetramers (y4) = Hb Barts

53
Q

features of B thalassaemia major

A

can’t make adult haemoglobin

Presents age 6-24mnths as HbF falls

Extramedullary haematopoiesis causing: hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal changes (marrow expands), organ damage

lifelong transfusion dependency

54
Q

what transfusion reaction causes a positive direct antiglobulin test

A

delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction

55
Q

in a non-urgent scenario what time period should a unit of RBCs be transfused over

A

90-120 mins

56
Q

Factor V Leiden mutation causes…

A

activated protein C resistance

57
Q

most common inherited thrombophilia

A

Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden)`

58
Q

blood findings in anaemia of chronic disease

A

A normocytic anaemia with low serum iron, low TIBC but raised ferritin in a patient with a chronic illness

59
Q

Platelet transfusion for surgery if…

A

< 50×109/L for most patients
50-75×109/L if high risk of bleeding
>100×109/L if surgery at critical site

60
Q

when is irradiated blood required

A

severe immunodeficiency

61
Q

to diagnosis tumour lysis syndrome…

A

you require either increased serum creatinine, a cardiac arrhythmia or a seizure to have occurred

62
Q

Bite and blister cells

A

G6PD deficiency

CRAM CARDS (21 decks)

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