Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Kyla's Phase 2a Flashcards > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is leukaemia?

A
  • Cancer of a partivular line of STEM CELLS in the BONE MARROW
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does leukaemia cause the unregulation of?

A
  • Certain types of blood cells
  • Uncontrolled proliferation of IMMATURE BLAST CELLS (precursor of WBC, RBC, platelets) → build up in the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 types of leukaemia?

A
  • Acute myeloid leukaemia
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia
  • Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  • Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which blood cell does acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) start?

A

Myeloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which blood cell does chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) start?

A
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which blood cell does acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) start?

A

Lymphoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which blood cell does chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) start?

A

B lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mnemonic for the ages at which the different leukaemias start?

A

ALLCeLLmates haveCoMmonAMbitions

  • Under 5 and over 45 –acutelymphoblasticleukaemia (ALL)
  • Over 55 –chroniclymphocyticleukaemia (CeLLmates)
  • Over 65 –chronicmyeloid leukaemia (CoMmon)
  • Over 75 –acutemyeloid leukaemia (AMbitions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Leukaemia is cancer of what?

A

Cells in the bone marrow

(Genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells in the bone marrow → EXCESSIVE PRODUCTION of a single type of ABNORMAL WHITE BLOOD CELL )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is pancytopenia in leukaemia?

A

The excessive production of a single type of cell can lead to suppression of the other cell lines causing underproduction of other cell types → pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient has leukaemia, and have developed pancytopenia. What do their FBC look like?

A

Low:
* RBCs (aneamia)
* WBCs (leukopenia)
* Platelets (thrombocytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

General cytopenia puts the patinet at risk of what complications?

A

Infection + bleeding
(Progenitors cannot mature → too many blasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between the differentiation in acute and chronic leukaemia?

A
  • Acute → cells don’t differentiate at all
  • Chronic → cells partially differentiate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the signs to the skin that are present in leukaemia?

A
  • Bleeding under the skin → brusing + petechiae
    • = caused by thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
    • Petechiae = non-blanching rash
  • Pallor (due to anaemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of leukaemia?

A

Non-specific
* Fatigue
* Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs of leukaemia?

A
  • Failure to thrive (children)
  • Pallor (anaemia)
  • Petechiae + abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia)
  • Abnormal bleeding
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly

Children or young adults with ptechiae or hepatosplenomegaly = should be referred immediately to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the first line Ix for leukaemia?

A
  • URGENT FBC (within 48 hours)
  • Blood film
    • Look for abnormal cells + inclusions
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) (elevated) → non-specific
  • CXR
    • Show infection
    • Show mediastinal lymphadenopathy
  • Lymph node biopsy
    • Assess lymph node involvement
    • Investigate for lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the gold standard (diagnostic) Ix for leukaemia?

A
  • Bone marrow biopsy
    • Analyse the cells in the bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of bone marrow biopsy?

A
  • ****Bone marrow aspiration****
    • Taking a liquid sample full of cells within the bone marrow
  • Bone marrow trephine
    • Solid core sample of bone marrow
    • Better assesssment of the cells + structure
  • ********Bone marrow biopsy**********
    • Usually taken from iliac crest
    • Samples from bone marrow aspiration can be examined straight away
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What other Ix can you request for leukaemia?

A

CT, MRI, PET
* Staging + assessing for lymphoma and other tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is seen on a blood film for ALL?

A

Blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is seen on a blood film for CLL?

A

Smear/smudge cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is seen on a blood film for AML?

A

Blast cells with Auer rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is seen on a blood film for CML?

A

High proportion of blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which two leukaemias have the Philidelphia (9:22) translocation?

A

ALL and CML

‘CAM’ Loves Philidelphia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some complications of chemotherapy?

A
  • Failure to thrive
  • Stunted growth and development in children
  • Infections due to immunodeficiency
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Infertility
  • Secondary malignancy
  • Cardiotoxicity
  • Tumour lysis syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome caused by?

A

The release of uric acid from cells that are being destroyed by chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How can chemotherapy cause an AKI?

A

Tumour lysis syndrome
The uric acid = can form crystals in the intersitial tissue + tubules of the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What medications are given in tumour lysis syndrome to reduce the high levels of uric acid?

A
  • Allopurinol
    or
  • Rasburicase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common leukaemia in children?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What leukaemia is associated with Down’s syndrome?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) causes the excessive proliferation of which blood cell?

A

B lymphocytes (usually)
(Causes pancytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) cause the chronic proliferation of which blood cell?

A

Well differentiated B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How can CLL present?

A
  • Often asymptomatic
  • Infections
  • Anaemia
  • Bleeding
  • Weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) can transform into high-grade lymphoma, what is the transformation called?

A

Richter’s transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does CLL look like on a blood film?

A

Smear/smudge cells
(fragile WBCs = rupture when prepping the film)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which leukaemia is associated warm haemolytic anaemia?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 3 phases of CML?

A
  • Chronic (often asymptomatic)
  • Accelerated
    • Become more symptomatic
    • Develop anaemia + thrombocytopenia
    • Become immunocompromised
  • Blast
    • Even higher proportion of blast cells (>30%)
    • Severe symptoms
    • Pancytopenia
    • Often fatal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the Philidelphia chromosome?

A

Translocation of genes between chromosome 9 and 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common acute leukaemia in adults?

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What can cause AML?

A

Transformation from a myeloproliferative disorder
(e.g. polycythaemia ruby vera or myelofibrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does a blood film look like for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)?

A
  • High proportion of blast cells
  • Blast cells = have Auer rods in their cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A 5 y/o patient with Down’s presents with petechie, abnormal brusing and fatigue. Possible diagnossis?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the results of Ix for ALL?

A
  • FBC: Pancytopenia
  • Blood film: Increased lymphoblasts (blast cells)
  • BM biopsy (>20% lymphoblasts) = diagnostic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment options for ALL?

A

Chemotherapy
Allopurinol (for tumour lysis syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the general management of leukaemia?

A

First line:
* Chemotherapy
* Steroids

Other:
* Radiotherapy
* Bone marrow transplant
* Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Typical presentation: 70% men w/ general anaemia, with lymphadenopathy (non-tender) and hepatosplenomegaly. Which leukaemia is his most likely to have?

A

Chronic lymphocytic anaemia (CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A patient has chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). What do the Ix come back as?

A
  • FBC: Pancytopenia (except leukocytosis), elevated WBCs
  • Blood film: Smudge cells
  • Immunoglobulin levels: Hypogammaglobinaemia (patient has reccurrent infections)

Hypogammaglobinaemia as B cells dont prolif to plasma cells (no Igs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an additional treatment for CLL?

A

IV Igs for hypogammaglobinaemia

49
Q

What is a major complication of CLL?

A

Richter transformation (high-grade lymphoma)
* B cells = massively accumulate in lymph nodes → massive lymphadenopathy
* Transformation from CLL to aggressive lymphoma

50
Q

What are some specific Sx of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)?

A
  • Association with Down’s + radiation
  • Gum infiltration (gingival enlargement)
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
51
Q

A patient has AML what would their Ix return back as?

A
  • FBC: pancytopenia
  • Blood film: Myeloblast cells with Auer rods
  • BM biopsy: > 20% myeloblasts
52
Q

What is a slightly more specific Sx of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)?

A

General leukaemia Sx + MASSIVE HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY

53
Q

A patient with CML has Ix, when they return what would they look like?

A
  • FBC: Pancytopenia (but granulocytosis)
  • Blood film: Increases granulocytes (B.E.N)
  • Genetic testing: Philidelphia chromosome
54
Q

What is the treatment for CML?

A

Chemotherapy + imatinib

(Imatinib = tyrosine kinase inhibitor)

55
Q

What is a complication/risk of CML if left untreated?

A

Risk of progression to AML

56
Q

What type of cancer is lymphoma?

A

Cancer that affects the LYMPHOCYTES inside the LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

(The cancerous cells = PROLIFERATE INSIDE the LYMPH NODES → lymph nodes = become abnormally large → LYMPHADENOPATHY)

57
Q

Name 3 areas of lymphandenopathy in lymphoma

A
  • Cervical
  • Axillary
  • Inguinal
58
Q

Define Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Haematological malignancy arising from mature B cells

59
Q

What cells is Hodgkin’s lymphoma characterised by?

A

Presence of Hodgkin’s cells + Reed-Sternberg cells

60
Q

What age group is primarily affected by Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

BIMODAL AGE DISTRIBUTION
Peaks: 20 and 70 years
(Teens and elderly)

61
Q

What are some Rx for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • HIV
  • Epstein-Barr virus (50%) immunodeficiency/suppression
  • Autoimmune conditions (RA, sarcoidosis)
  • Family history
62
Q

Describe the lymphadenopathy with Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(Location, characteristics)

A
  • Neck, axilla (armpit) inguinal (groin)
  • Non-tender + rubbery
63
Q

What happens to the lymphadenopathy in Hogdkin’s after drinking alcohol?

A

PAINFUL after drinking alcohol

64
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • B symptoms
  • Lymphadenopathy (painful after drinking alcohol)
  • (Reccurent infection)
65
Q

What are the B symptoms?

A
  • Night sweats
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Fever
66
Q

What are the first line and gold-standard investigations for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • First line: ↑LDH, ↑ESR ↓Hb
  • Gold standard: Lymph node biopsy (diagnostic)
    • Reed-Sternberg cells present
    • (Excisional lymph node biopsy or core biopsy)
67
Q

What are Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Present in Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Abnormally large B cells
(Have multiple nuclei - that have nucleoli inside of them)
Face of an OWL with eyes

68
Q

What Ix can you perform to stage Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Contrast-enhanced CT (neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis) → enlarged lymph nodes and other sites of disease
(Or MRI, PET)
* To see the extent of the disease
* Biopsy = used to confirm the diagnosis

69
Q

What staging system is used in Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Ann Arbor Staging

Importance on whether the affected nodes are above or below diaphragm

70
Q

Give the stages of Ann Arbor staging system

A
  • Stage 1: One region of lymph nodes
  • Stage 2: 2 or more regions - on the same side of the diphragm
  • Stage 3: Lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm
  • Stage 4: Extranodal organ spread (spread to non-lymphatic organs e.g. lungs or liver)

Prefixed with A or B:
* A - absence of B symptoms
* B - presence of B symptoms

71
Q

What is the treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • Chemotherapy + ABVD
  • A - Adriamycin
  • B - Bleomycin
  • V - Vinblastine
  • D - Dacarbazine
72
Q

What are some complications of chemotherapy anf radiotherapy?

A
  • Chemotherapy: Risk of leukaemia + infertility
    • Alopecia, N+V, myelosuppression + BM failure, INFECTION
  • Radiotherapy: Risk of cancer, damage to tissues, hypothyroidism
73
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma typically presents to clinic like what?

A
  • Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) most commonly presents with painless cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy in a young adult.
  • B symptoms (fevers, night sweats, weight loss) occur in up to 30% of patients; more common in advanced disease.
74
Q

What is Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Heterogenous group og malignancies of the lymphoid system

75
Q

Name a few types of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Burkitt lymphoma (associated with EBV, malaria, HIV)
  • MALT lymphoma (associated with H. pylori infection)
  • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (presents as a rapidly growing painless mass in patients over 65 years) - (80%)
75
Q

Name a few types of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Burkitt lymphoma (associated with EBV, malaria, HIV)
  • MALT lymphoma (associated with H. pylori infection)
  • Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (presents as a rapidly growing painless mass in patients over 65 years) - (80%)
76
Q

Pathophysiology of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Malignant cloncal expansion of lymphocytes at different stages of lymphocyte development
  • Majority are B-cell origin (80%)
  • ABSENCE OF REED-STERNBERG CELLS
77
Q

What is an occupational risk factor for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Exposure to pesticides with trichloroethylene

78
Q

Sx of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • B symptoms + PAINLESS RUBBERY LYMPHADENOPATHY (NOT affected by alcohol), splenomegaly
  • (Sx similar to Hodgkin’s - only biopsy will differentiate)
  • (More varied than Hodgkin’s as more subtypes)
79
Q

Ix for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • First line: FBC (anaemia, ↑WBC or thrombocytopenia, ↑ESR)
    • ↑WBC or thrombocytopenia = suggests B cell involvement
  • Diagnostic: Lymph node biopsy (no RS cells/popcorn cell)
    • Confirms subtype (e.g. Burkitt’s = ‘starry sky’ biopsy)
  • Staging: CT/MRI chest, abdomen, pelvis (Ann Arbour staging 1-4)
80
Q

What is the Tx for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP Chemotherapy:
* R - Rituximab
* C - Cyclophosphamide
* Hydroxy-daunorubicin
* O-Vincristine
* Prednisolone

Rituximab = monoclonal antibody (targets CD20 on B cell)

81
Q

Myeloma is a cancer of what?

A

Neoplastic monoclonal proliferation of a plasma cell
* Cancer in a specific type of plasma cell results in large quantities of a single type of antibody being produced

82
Q

In more than 50% of myelomas, which immunoglobulin (monoclonal paraprotein) is significantly produced?

A

IgG

83
Q

In myeloma, what are the abnormally produced antibodies called?

A

Monoclonal paraproteins

84
Q

What are ‘Bence Jones proteins’?

A

Light chains of an antibody found in the urine of patients with myeloma

85
Q

Bone marrow infiltration of cancerous plasma cells in myeloma can cause what?

A

Pancytopenia
* Anaemia (low RBCs)
* Neutropenia (low neutrophils)
* Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

86
Q

Myeloma bone disease causes increased activity of oestoblast or osteoclast?
What does it result in?

A
  • Oestoclast (+ suppresses osteoblast activity)
  • Results in osteolytic lesions → pathological fractures
  • Calcium = reabsorbed in to the blood → hypercalcaemia
87
Q

What is the ‘typical’ patient with myeloma?

A

70 y/o Afro-carribean male

88
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of myeloma?

A

Old CRAB:
* Old → 70+
* C - Hypercalcaemia (↑osteoclast bone reabsorption)
* R - Renal failure
- Hypercalcaemia → calcium oxalate renal stones
- Immunoglobulin light chain kappa deposition → Bence Jones protein in urine
* A - Anaemia (BM failure)
* B - Bone lesions (BM failure = painful. New onset back pain in elderly)

89
Q

Myeloma can result in hyercalcaemia. What is the mnemonic for the presentation of hypercalcaemia?

A
  • Bones (weak bones)
  • Stones (kidney stones)
  • Abdo moans
  • Psychiatric groans
90
Q

Ix for myeloma?

A
  • FBC (anaemia, low WBC)
  • U&Es (hypercalcaemia), urea/creatinine → renal failure
  • ESR (raised)
  • Blood film: Normocytic normochromic, rouleaux fomration
  • ** Urine electrophoresis: Bence Jones protein**
  • Serum electrophoresis: Ig ‘paraprotein M spike’; hypergammagobulin for that specific IgG

Imaging:
* Skeletal survey (x-ray of ull skeleton) → ‘raindrop skull’, punched out/lytic lesions
* Whole body MRI/CT

BM biopsy → >10% plasma cells

91
Q

Management of myeloma?

A
  • Chemotherapy (bortezomid, thalidomide, dexamethasone)
  • Bisphosphonates (alendronate) - (suppress osteoclast activity)
  • Stem cell transplant
92
Q

What type of virus is HIV?

A

RNA Retrovirus

93
Q

Which cells does HIV enter and destroy?

A

CD4 T helper cells

94
Q

How does HIV cause immunodeficiency?

A

HIV replicates with CD4 cells → over time dicimates theor population → causing immunodeficiency

95
Q

What are the two markers used to monitor HIV infection?
(important in prognosis)

A
  • CD4 cell count
  • HIV viral load
96
Q

How does acute HIV present ?
(Symptoms usually start within 2-4 weeks of infection)

A

Similar to glandular fever/flu

Non-specific symptoms:
* Fever
* Sore throat
* Myalgia
* Rash
(Others: Vomiting + diarrhoea, headache, lymphadenopathy, wt loss)

97
Q

If a patient presents with fever, rash and non-specific symptoms, what should you ask/think about?

A
  • Ask about sexual history
  • Think about HIV seroconversion
98
Q

In the clinical latency period of HIV, what S may the patient present with?

A

No symptoms!
Persistant generalised lymphadenoapathy
(enlarged lymph nodes, involving at least 2 areas of the body for at least 3 months)

Clinical latency periods can be about 8 years

99
Q

Name some conditions that someone with early symptomatic HIV (immunocompromised) might present with?

A
  • Shingles (in HIV more severe and can be multidermatomal)
  • Candida (thrush) - oral or genital
  • Oral hairy leucoplakia
  • Molluscum contagiosum (strain of poxvirus)
100
Q

When should you think about doing a HIV test?

A

When a common problem:
* In an unexpected patient
* Is recurring
* Has no clear underlying cause

101
Q

Define AIDS

A

AcquiredImmune Deficiency Syndrome
AIDS = CD4 <200 or ‘AIDS defining illness’ present

102
Q

What fungal pneumonia is common in HIV/AIDS?
How does it present?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) = most common AIDS defining illness
* Fevers
* SOB
* Dry cough
* Pleuritic chest pain
* Exertional drop in oxygen saturations

103
Q

What do you treat pneumocytis pneumonia with?

A

Co-trimoxazole
+/- predisolone (if hypoxic)

104
Q

What do you treat pneumocytis pneumonia with?

A

Co-trimoxazole
+/- predisolone (if hypoxic)

105
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

106
Q

Name some AIDS-defining illnesses

A
  • PCP
  • Oesophageal candida (oral is not)
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • TB
  • CMV
107
Q

What does a late diagnosis of HIV lead to?

A
  • Increased transmission
  • Increased morbidity
  • Increased mortality
108
Q

TB in HIV at any CD4 count is what?

A

AIDS-defining

109
Q

All patients with TB require which test?

A

HIV test

110
Q

The is a low threshold for which investigation for a patient with HIV and a headache?

A

Lumbar puncture
(Cryptococcal Meningitis)

111
Q

HIV increased the risk of which cancers?

A

Any cances that is a associated with a virus:
* Kaposi’s sarcoma (Human Herpesvirus 8)
* Lymphomas Epstein Barr Virus)
* Cervical (Human Papilomavirus)

(These are all AIDS-defining cancers)

112
Q

What is the treatment regime for HIV?

A

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy
* Usually 3+ antiretroviral drugs

NRTI + NRTI + Other

NRTI = Neucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

113
Q

HIV treatment: Good adherence + avoidace to drug interactions are key to what?

A
  • Suppress HIV replication
  • Avoid drug resistance
114
Q

Read: General facts about HIV

A
  • HIV = causes progressive immunoprogression
  • Early symptomatic HIV = may present with a range of conditions seen in normal hosts, but more frequently + more severity
  • As the CD4 count drops below 200, a range of opportunistic infections and cancers can occur
  • HAART = very effective in suppressing viral replication - resulting in a good prognosis
115
Q

What are the types of HIV?

A
  • HIV-1 (majority) - most virulent
  • HIV-1 - less virulent
116
Q

Rx for HIV

A
  • MSM
  • Sharing needles
  • Needle stick injury
  • Unprotected anal sex
117
Q

What is the pathology of HIV infection?

A
  • HIV gp120 binds to CD4 on Th cells
  • ENDOCYTOSIS RNA + ENZYMES
  • Reverse transcriptase; RNA → DNA
  • Integrase; viral DNA integrated into host’s
  • PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
  • VIRAL PROTEINS + RNA EXOCYTOSE + take part of CD4
    • ↑viral copies
    • ↓CD4+ (Th) cells
118
Q

What are the stages of HIV (?natural history)?

A
  • Infection: CD4+ dip then ‘set point’
  • Clinical latency (YEARS!)
  • Sx: Constitutional Sx (fever, diarrhoea, night sweats, minor opportunistic infections e.g. oral candida, shingles)
  • AIDS: CD4+ <200/mm3
    • AIDS-defining conditions:
    • CMV (e.g. colitis → owl eyes)
    • PCP
    • TB
    • Kaposi sarcoma
    • Lymphomas
119
Q

Ix for HIV

A
  • History
  • Serum HIV enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
    • p24 Antibody
  • Monitor progression
    • Serum viral load (HIV RNA)
    • CD4 count

Kyla's Phase 2a Flashcards (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions