Haematological Malignancy Genetic Testing Flashcards

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1
Q

Outline haematological malignancies.

A

Complex group of neoplastic conditions occurring in bone marrow derived cells:
- Disruption of normal cellular processes in the bone marrow and immune system.

Clonal diseases:
- Changes occur in a cell that confers a selective advantage, the cell divides and becomes a clone.

Diversity due to:

  • The cell that is affected
  • The genetic changes that have occurred
  • The point in the cells maturation process that the malignant changes have occurred

Make up approximately 7% of all malignancies (approximately 61 per 100,000):
- 5th most common cancer in the UK.

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2
Q

What factors contribute to the heterogeneity of haematological malignancies?

A

Diversity due to:

  • The cell that is affected
  • The genetic changes that have occurred
  • The point in the cells maturation process that the malignant changes have occurred
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3
Q

What % of all malignancies in the UK do haematological malignancies make up?

A

Make up approximately 7% of all malignancies (approximately 61 per 100,000):

  • 5th most common cancer in the UK.
  • Median age around 70 years - haematological malignancies on the whole particularly affect the elderly.
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4
Q

How may haematological malignancies present?

A

Depending on the cell lineage(s) affected may present in different ways:

  • Lymphoma = lumps
  • Myeloma = bone fractures and kidney problems
  • Leukaemia = fatigue, vulnerability to infection.
  • Will get fatigue and vulnerability to infection with all malignancies but is particularly severe in leukaemia.
  • Lethargy due to reduced RBC count, susceptibility to infection due to reduced white blood cell count, bruising tendencies due to reduced platelet counts.
  • Some are aggressive whilst others are benign and usually picked up as incidental findings.
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5
Q

What treatment regimens may be given for haematological malignancies?

A

Treatment regimens often complex:

  • Traditional chemotherapeutic agents, radiotherapy, monoclonal antibodies, small molecule inhibitors.
  • UK is one of the leading countries in clinical trials and many patients are entered into these.
  • Clinical trials do not only test new drugs/treatments but also assess whether biomarker monitoring may play a role in the decision of when to treat (increase in biomarker can preceded relapse).
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6
Q

What are the different types of haematological malignancies?

A

Can be subdivided into 3 main diseases:

1). Leukaemia

2) . Lymphoma
- Chronic Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (CLL)
- Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)
- Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (HL)
- Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)
- Multiple Myeloma (MM)

3) . Myeloma
- Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
- Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
- Myelo-proliferative disorders

In leukaemias the cancer replaces the cells that would normally develop into red cells, white cells, and platelets.

Leukaemic cells usually proliferate rapidly in this setting and migrate into the periphery.

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7
Q

What % of blood stem cells does normal BM contain? How is this affected in aplastic anaemia?

A
  • 30-70% depending on age.

- In aplastic anaemia these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat cells.

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8
Q

What happens in myelodysplasia?

A
  • Myelodysplasia is the accumulation of dysplastic cells in the bone marrow.
  • In Myelofibrosis fibrous tissue expands within the bone marrow cavity to displace the normal cells.
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9
Q

Outline where changes occur for different types of haematological malignancies.

A

Leukaemia - changes occur in cells in the bone marrow.

Lymphoma - changes occur in cells in the lymph nodes or other parts of the immune system.

Myeloma - changes occur in plasma cells which have returned to the BM following antigen activation in lymph nodes or spleen.

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10
Q

What causes myeloma?

A

Myeloma - changes occur in plasma cells which have returned to the BM following antigen activation in lymph nodes or spleen.

  • As lymphocytes mature they migrate from the bone marrow and settle and continue to develop in in lymph nodes or other parts of the immune system such as the lining of the intestine. Transformation of the cell or expansion of the malignant clone can occur within these regions.
  • Plasma cells are derived from B-cells which have been activated by antigens in the lymph nodes and spleen and eventually migrate back to the bone marrow where they segrete Ig’s.
  • Expansion of this clonal plasma cell population can destroy surrounding BM causing bone pain and fractures in myeloma.
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11
Q

What conditions are linked with an increased risk of developing leukaemias (genetic risk factors)?

A

Genetic risk factors:

  • Downs syndrome
  • Blooms syndrome
  • Fanconi anaemia
  • Ataxia telangiectasia
  • Neurofibromatosis
  • Klinefelters
  • Familial tendency for AML, CLL, HL, and NHL.
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12
Q

Outline the known environmental risk factors of developing haematological malignancies.

A
  • Lymphomas are much more common in individuals who have been exposed to radiation.
  • Development of AML and MDS have been linked to the use of benzene.
  • Secondary leukaemias may be caused by chemotherapy and radiotherapy used to treat a primary cancer (therapy related).
  • In some countries viruses are linked to the development of leukaemia (e.g. EBV and Burkitt lymphoma).
  • In the majority of cases there is no direct evidence for the involvement of a genetic or environmental factor.
  • Very difficult to attribute a direct association as multiple factors are usually involved.
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13
Q

Outline the diagnosis and monitoring of haematological malignancies.

A

Complex and requires a systematic, multi-disciplinary approach.

Clinical features and assessment.

Full blood count and BM/LN biopsy:

  • Morphology
  • Cell phenotyping - assessment of the cell surface expression of CD is very important in determining the type of disease (myeloid/lymphoid) and the stage of cell development that is blocked.
  • Cytogenetics/FISH
  • Genetic testing
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14
Q

Outline how the detection of PCR products may be used in genetic testing for haematological disorders.
What it FLT3?

A
  • Genetic aberrations in cancer cells may consist of insertions or deletions of genetic material. When such indels are small simple PCR of the DNA region followed by fragment separation in sufficient to identify the mutated region.
  • The FLT3 internal tandem duplication which can vary in size can be present in AML.
  • The presence of FLT3 predicts and aggressive disease.
  • Simple fragment analysis on an agarose gel highlight the DNA fragment with the internal fragment duplication. Such mutations are predominantly heterozygous and therefore the WT gene is also amplified. This acts as a good control for the experiment. Alternatively the DNA fragments can be separated using capillary electrophoresis.
  • The ARMS PCR is a method of detecting point mutations using fragment analysis. Outer PCR primers will amplify the DNA region of choice as in a normal PCR. Within the ARMS PCR an inner primer is designed to complement the mutated DNA with a non complimentary base at the end of the primer. With the correct PCR conditions this single overhanging base will not inhibit the DNAP from extending the fragment. In the case of the WT fragment there are 2 non complimentary bases at the end of the primer. The DNAP is not able to extend this fragment with this amount of overhang. Where the mutant is present the PCR generates the larger outer fragment and a small fragment derived from the ARMS primer. In the case of the WT DNA only the larger fragment is generated.
  • QFPCR - measures the amount of DNA after every extension phase of the cycle - uses tags that fluoresce when bound to double stranded DNA. By following the progression of a PCR we can look at when a product is first detected and calculate how much template was there initially. Used in minimal residual disease monitoring.
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15
Q

What is ARMS PCR?

A
  • The ARMS PCR is a method of detecting point mutations using fragment analysis. Outer PCR primers will amplify the DNA region of choice as in a normal PCR. Within the ARMS PCR an inner primer is designed to complement the mutated DNA with a non complimentary base at the end of the primer. With the correct PCR conditions this single overhanging base will not inhibit the DNAP from extending the fragment. In the case of the WT fragment there are 2 non complimentary bases at the end of the primer. The DNAP is not able to extend this fragment with this amount of overhang. Where the mutant is present the PCR generates the larger outer fragment and a small fragment derived from the ARMS primer. In the case of the WT DNA only the larger fragment is generated.
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16
Q

What molecular techniques can be used for monitoring minimal residual disease?

A

QFPCR can be used for quantifying gene expression in the detection of minimal residual disease using reverse transcription PCR.

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17
Q

Outline pyrosequencing.

A
  • Pyrosequencing is a sequencing technique used for detecting known point mutations or small insertion deletion polymorphisms in short fragments of DNA.
  • Useful when there is a low tumour load as it is able to detect low level mutated DNA of around 2-3%.
  • New NGS tech as sensitive - but take longer, more costly (at time of lecture).
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18
Q

Outline Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

A
  • AML varies considerably in its presentation and development.
  • The malignant cells are characterised by morphological differences usually associated with the cells stage of maturation.
  • The different sub types of AML are associated with the presence of major genetic aberrations including translocations and mutations, a plethora of which may be identified in the molecular lab and used for MRD monitoring and prognostic assessment.
  • The different types of AML are diagnosed according to WHO criteria and take into account morphology, immunophenotype, cytogenetics and molecular findings.
  • The majority of newly diagnosed AML patients in the UK get entered into nationally run NCRI AML trials.
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19
Q

Outline the WHO classifications of AML.

A

1) . AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities:
- t(15;17) - acute promyelocytic lekaemia (good prog)
- t(8;21) - CBF AML (good prog)
- inv 16 - CBF AML (good prog)
- 11q23 AML (MLL rearrangement) (good prog)

2) . AML with multi lineage dysplasia:
- Following MDS or MPD or with dysplasia in >50% cells in 2 lineages

3) . AML - NOS
- Classified morphologically

The leukaemic cells karyotype allows categorisation according to the risk of relapse.

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20
Q

Outline the genes affected by the chromosome translocations in leukaemia.

A
  • Balanced translocations tend to confer a favourable prognosis.
  • t(8;21)(RUNXT1/RUNX1) and inv16 (CBFB/MYH11) generate chimeric proteins of the core binding factor family which orchestrate cellular transcription.
  • t(15;17) is the cause of acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) and the chimeric fusion PMLRARa protein is responsible for blocking cell differentiation.
  • APML is treated very successfully with ATRA (retinoic acid) and arsenic.
  • Both cytogenetics and PCR techniques are used to identify translocations in AML.
  • Quantitative Reverse Transcription PCR is used to monitor MRD post therapy.
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21
Q

What translocation is related to the RUNXT1/RUNX1 chimeric protein formation in AML?

A
  • t(8;21)(RUNXT1/RUNX1) generates chimeric protein of the core binding factor family which orchestrate cellular transcription.
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22
Q

What cytogenetic abnormality is related to the CBFB/MYH11 chimeric protein formation in AML?

A
  • inv16 (CBFB/MYH11) generates chimeric protein of the core binding factor family which orchestrate cellular transcription.
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23
Q

What translocation is associated with APML?

A
  • t(15;17) is the cause of acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) and the chimeric fusion PMLRARa protein is responsible for blocking cell differentiation.
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24
Q

How is APML successfully treated?

A
  • APML is treated very successfully with ATRA (retinoic acid) and arsenic.
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25
Q

Where do translocations tend to occur in AML? How can we use PCR to identify breakpoints?

A
  • Genetic translocations can occur at multiple breakpoint regions along one or both of the chromosomes and may be intronic or exonic.
  • In the nested PCR primer sets which span all of the possible breakpoint regions are utilised. The size of the PCR product may be determined from the PCR gel and from this the specific breakpoint region involved in the translocation can be established.
  • Identification of exact break points is becoming more important as small molecule inhibitors are being developed to inhibit the chimeric proteins generated from the translocated genes.
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26
Q

What testing might we carry out in AML patients with a normal karyotype.

A

Further refinement of prognostic groups in AML:

  • 50-60% of AML patients have abnormal karyotypes, the remaining ‘cytogenetically normal’ CN patients have an ‘intermediate prognosis’.
  • Information based on molecular genetics has recently led to the stratification of CN-AML.
  • Mutations that are routinely assayed for include FTL3 and NPM.
  • FTL3 - RTK - internal tandem duplications confer a poor prognosis (frequency in CN-AML approximately 20-30%). Point mutations in FTL3 (D835) also occur but their clinical impact is less clear (approximately 7% of AML).
  • NPM - Nucleophosmin shuttling protein. Mutations in this gene result in the encoded protein being re-localised from the nucleolus to the cytoplasm and confer a favourable prognosis (frequency in CN-AML approximately 50-60%).
27
Q

How can FLT3 and NPM CN-AML mutations be tested for?

A
  • Single round PCR and fragment analysis by agarose gel or capillary electrophoresis are used to identify the FLT3 and NPM1 indels.
  • It is important to determine the FLT3 and NMP1 mutation status for the patient because it has an impact on prognosis.
28
Q

What can MRD monitoring in AML be used for?

A
  • Can be used to predict relapse before the disease becomes clinically apparent.
  • MRD data may also be used to show that a patient is in molecular remission prior to stem cell transplantation.
29
Q

What may pyrosequencing be used for in the diagnostic lab in relation to AML?

A

Identification of IDH mutations in AML using pyrosequencing:

  • Pyrosequencing may be used in the diagnostic lab to identify point mutations in IDH1/2.
  • Isocitrate Dehydrogenase (IDH) is a metabolic enzyme which mediates the epigenetic modification of DNA. Mutations in IDH generate a novel protein which enhanced effect on global methylation.
  • IDH1 and 2 mutations have been shown in AML patients.
  • IDH inhibitors are currently being trialled in AML patients and the IDH mutation status is important in predicting response to therapy.
30
Q

What disease is IDH important in?

A

Identification of IDH mutations in AML using pyrosequencing:

  • Pyrosequencing may be used in the diagnostic lab to identify point mutations in IDH1/2.
  • Isocitrate Dehydrogenase (IDH) is a metabolic enzyme which mediates the epigenetic modification of DNA. Mutations in IDH generate a novel protein which enhanced effect on global methylation.
  • IDH1 and 2 mutations have been shown in AML patients.
  • IDH inhibitors are currently being trialled in AML patients and the IDH mutation status is important in predicting response to therapy.
31
Q

What effect has NGS had on diagnosing AML?

A
  • NGS has enabled a comprehensive mutational screen of the entire genome.
  • A number of mutations have been identified which occur heterogeneously within AML.
  • Still a lot of work to do to determine the relevance of the mutations and determine the impact of the mutations within the leukaemic cell.
  • Novel techniques such as NGS allow a large number of genes to be sequenced at the same time.
  • NGS gene chips are available which are designed to sequence a number of genes relevant to the disease.
32
Q

Outline Myelodysplastic Syndromes.

A
  • A heterogeneous group of clonal haematopoietic stem cell disorders.
  • Dysplasia in one or more myeloid precursors.
  • Ineffective haematopoiesis.
  • Increased apoptosis.
  • Peripheral cytopenia(s) - anaemia, neutropenia, thrombicytopenia.
  • May be indolent or aggressive.
  • Has variable tendency to transform into AML.
33
Q

Outline the mutations seen in MDS.

A
  • NGS methods have led to the discovery of a large number of mutated genes in patients with MDS - very heterogenous.
  • > 40 genes are known to recurrently carry somatic mutations.
  • > 80% of patients will have at least one such genetic abnormality.
  • The mutated genes are involved in a wide range of oncogenic and biologically important pathways including epigenetic regulation, RNA splicing, growth factor signalling, transcriptional regulation, apoptosis, and genomic stability.
  • Some of the mutations are also found in AML - e.g. TET2, DNMT3a.
  • Others seem to be particularly prevalent in MDS e.g. SF3BP1.
  • Mutations are not routinely assayed for in diagnostic labs although this may change very soon and MDS mutation panels are currently being designed.
34
Q

Outline the WHO classifications of Myeloproliferative Neoplasms.

A
  • Myeloproliferative Neoplasms are a group of chronic proliferations affecting the myeloid lineage.
  • Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
  • Polycythaemia Vera (PV)
  • Essential Thrombocythaemia (ET)
  • Primary Myelofibrosis (MF)
  • Molecular techniques are important for diagnosis and providing prognostic information.
35
Q

Outline Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.

A
  • CML affects the production of normal erythrocytes, thrombocytes and the leucocyte sub sets; basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes.
  • Increased basophil count is a good indicator of CML. Clonal expansion of an aggressive clone occurs when the disease enters accelerated phase (or blast crisis) and this clone tends to be lineage specific (can be myeloid or less commonly lymphoid).
  • In CML the ubiqitously expressed ABL1 gene on chromosome 9 translocates to the BCR gene on chromosome 22 resulting in the generation of a chimeric protein which drives proliferation in the abnormal cell.
  • The BCR/ABL1 translocation is found in almost all cases of CML and is thought to be the only ‘hit’ required to cause this disease.
36
Q

What translocation is found in nearly all cases of CML.

A
  • The BCR/ABL1 translocation is found in almost all cases of CML and is thought to be the only ‘hit’ required to cause this disease.
37
Q

Describe the Philadelphia chromosome.

A
  • The BCR-ABL translocation generates a chimeric protein with enhanced tyrosine kinase activity. This leads to increased proliferation and a characteristic high white cell count which is seen in this disease.
  • The kinase inhibitor imatinib is used to block the activity of the novel kinase.
  • Imatinib was one of the first synthetic small molecules to be generated in the lab. It was specifically designed to block the ATP binding site of the TK and has been so successful in treating CML that it has replaced conventional chemotherapy in the first line treatment of CML.
38
Q

What is Imatinib and what is it used to treat?

A
  • The BCR-ABL translocation generates a chimeric protein with enhanced tyrosine kinase activity. This leads to increased proliferation and a characteristic high white cell count which is seen in this disease.
  • The kinase inhibitor imatinib is used to block the activity of the novel kinase.
  • Imatinib was one of the first synthetic small molecules to be generated in the lab. It was specifically designed to block the ATP binding site of the TK and has been so successful in treating CML that it has replaced conventional chemotherapy in the first line treatment of CML.
  • Following the success of Imatinib second generation TKIs have been developed to treat CML and other types of cancer.
39
Q

Outline the response criteria for CML therapy.

A
  • Clinical, morphological, cytogenetic and highly sensitive molecular techniques are all used to monitor the response of CML patients to TKI therapy.
  • Research has shown that a 4.5log reduction in BRC-ABL transcripts predicts an excellent long term survival in CML.

1) . Haematological Response:
- Normalisation of blood counts
- Disappearance of splenomegaly

2) . Cytogenetic Response:
- Major cytogenetic response (?65% Ph -ve)
- Complete cytogenetic response (100% Ph -ve).

3) . Molecular Response:
- Major molecular response (>3 log depletion of BCR-ABL transcripts).
- Assessed by real time PCR
- Ratio of BCR-ABL/ABL transcripts

40
Q

How is MRD monitored in CML?

A
  • Sensitive nested PCR or quantitative RT-PCR are used to identify the BCR-ABL translocation and thus monitor CML.
  • Quantified against WT ABL transcripts - increase in BCR-ABL/ABL transcripts is an early indicator of disease relapse.
41
Q

Molecular status of CML patients in complete cytogenetic remission on Imatinib.

A
  • Imatinib produces CCR in 76% of newly diagnosed patients.
  • Patients achieving CCR may still harbour up to 10^10 leukaemic cells in their body.
  • Patients with low transcript numbers less likely to relapse to Ph-positivity
  • Prolonged Imatinib therapy is often required to achieve a molecular remission.
42
Q

What is a good indicator that a patient with CML will remain in remission for many years?

A
  • A 12 month major molecular response is a good indicator that a patient will remain in remission for many years.
  • A 3+ log reduction in BCR-ABL is achieved by an estimated 66% of Imatinib patients.
  • Undetectable BCR-ABL inn 3-6% of Imatinib patients.
  • 3 log reduction may be a marker for stable response.
43
Q

Outline resistance in CML

A
  • Resistance is the decreased effectiveness of a drug in treating a disease.
  • Imatinib resistance can be categorised as primary or secondary.
  • Primary resistance is also known as intrinsic resistance.
  • Secondary resistance is also known as acquired resistance.
  • Molecular resistance can also be indicated as a trend when monitoring BCR-ABL transcripts using at least 3 points on the graph.
  • Primary resistance is defined as a failure to achieve and/or sustain a significant haematological response or cytogenetic response during first line therapy.
  • Secondary resistance is defined as the progressive reappearance of the leukaemic clone after initial response to the drug. This includes a haematological resistance where there is a loss of normalisation of peripheral blood counts and spleen size, cytogenetic resistance where there a loss of major cytogenetic response, and molecular resistance where there is a loss or complete loss of major molecular response.
  • Acquired point mutations in the ABL kinase domain are the most common mechanism of resistance for acquired resistance in CML.
44
Q

What causes imatinib resistance in CML?

A
  • Acquired point mutations in the ABL kinase domain are the most common mechanism of resistance for acquired resistance in CML.
  • These mutations shift the loop into the active or open conformation of the BCR-ABL protein as well as interrupting critical contact points necessary for imatinib to bind.
  • Imatinib binds to BCR-ABL in the inactive or closed conformation of the kinase only.
  • The mutations are grouped into 4 main types:
    1) . The imatinib binding site
    2) . P-loop mutations
    3) . A-loop mutations
    4) . Catalytic site mutations
  • Kinase domain mutations occur in 50-90% of acquired resistance.
  • Resistance manifests itself through different mechanisms causing changes to the stability of the BCR-ABL conformation and/or reduction in the binding efficiency of imatinib.
  • Mutations affecting BCR–ABL conformation can impact on imatinib binding.
  • Imatinib binds selectively to the inactive form of BCR-ABL.
  • A-loop mutations reduce binding by destabilising the inactive conformation.
  • Other mutations affect the binding of imatinib.
45
Q

When should mutation analysis be performed in CML?

A
  • Failure of first line therapy or acquired resistance to disease treatment both indicate the need for mutation screening.
  • 2nd gen TKIs have been developed which have been shown to be effective in the presence of imatinib resistance muts.
  • The resistance muts are detected by sequencing.
  • It is important to identify the specific mutation because the second line drugs have a different effect depending on the mutation that is present. Increasing the dose of the TKI may also be effective in the case of certain mutations.
46
Q

Recap: Monitoring response to TKIs

A
  • The TKIs are a very effective means of treating CML and have relaced conventional chemotherapy in the first line treatment of the disease.
  • The side effects of TKIs are less severe and the drugs can be taken orally at home.
  • Monitoring BCR-ABL transcript levels is essential to ensure that relapse due to refractory disease is detected early and intervention occurs before clinical symptoms are apparent.
  • Prolonged therapy with imatinib often results in the emergence of a resistant clone harbouring a mutation.
  • A novel European trial is removing the imatinib therapy from patients who have achieved a major molecular response. If the imatinib therapy has eradicated the disease then these patients will live a disease and treatment free life. If there is residual CML then the removal of imatinib will mean that there is no pressure on the disease to evolve through the generation of point mutations and that the relapsed disease may be treated successfully using the initial imatinib therapy.
47
Q

Outline the other primary MPNs other than CML.

A
  • Other primary MPNs thend to affect a specific lineage.
  • Polycythaemia Vera - expansion of the erythrocyte lineage characterised by high peripheral blood red cell count numbers.
  • Essential Thrombocytopenia - sustained increase in platelets with associated effects.
  • Primary Myelofibrosis - clonal disorder caused by transformation of early haematopoietic progenitor cell resulting in bone marrow fibrosis.
48
Q

What lineage of myeloid cells does Polycythaemia Vera affect?

A
  • Polycythaemia Vera - expansion of the erythrocyte lineage characterised by high peripheral blood red cell count numbers.
49
Q

What lineage of myeloid cells does Essential Thrombocytopenia affect?

A
  • Essential Thrombocytopenia - sustained increase in platelets with associated effects.
50
Q

What lineage of myeloid cells does Primary Myelofibrosis affect?

A
  • Primary Myelofibrosis - clonal disorder caused by transformation of early haematopoietic progenitor cell resulting in bone marrow fibrosis.
51
Q

Outline the mutations that have been shown to cause Myeloproliferative Neoplasms.

A

Mutations in PCV, ET and PMF:

1) . JAK2
- JAK2 is a TK and downstream of many receptors including the erythropoietin receptor.
- JAK2 mutations are found in 97% of patients with PV and in 50-60% of those with ET and MF.
- Common mutation is V617F but mutations may also occur in exon 12.

2) . CALR
- Calreticulin is an endoplasmic reticulum chaperone
- Mutations affect 1/3 of patients with ET or MF
- Frameshift mutations

3) . MPL
- MPL encodes the thrombopoietin receptor
- Mutations are found in 3-10% of ET and MF patients.
- Most common mutation hotspot is W515 but others also exist.

  • JAK2, MPL, and CALR mutations are mutually exclusive in the majority of patients.
  • 10-15% of ET and MF cases have no common underlying marker.
  • PCR is most common method of identifying JAK2 and CALR mutations in the lab.
  • Sensitive QF-PCR methods have been developed to exploit all 3 mutations for MRD monitoring.
52
Q

Outline Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia.

A
  • ALL is predominantly a B-cell proliferation most commonly seen in children under the age of 10.
  • The t(12;21) translocation is present in around 25% of cases and is a marker of a favourable outcome in this disease.
  • Due to recent advances in therapies and bone marrow transplantation, children who are diagnosed early respond well and the cure rate is above 90%.
  • The outcome is less favourable in adults and detection of the t(9;22), BCR-ABL P190 translocation, which is more commonly observed in this group, results in an unfavourable outcome.
53
Q

What translocation present in about 25% of ALL cases is a marker for favourable disease outcome?

A
  • The t(12;21) translocation is present in around 25% of cases and is a marker of a favourable outcome in this disease.
54
Q

What translocation usually found in adult ALL is associated with a relatively poor outcome?

A
  • The outcome is less favourable in adults and detection of the t(9;22), BCR-ABL P190 translocation, which is more commonly observed in this group, results in an unfavourable outcome.
55
Q

Outline Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL).

A
  • CLL is characterised by an increase in the number of mature B-cells in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, and lymph nodes.
  • Most commonly seen in the older generation the disease can vary in its progression.
  • In most cases CLL presents as a slow accumulation of B-cells which has a mild effect on the patients wellbeing and requires little treatment if any.
  • In around a third of patients the disease may present as, or progress to an aggressive proliferation requiring intense therapeutic intervention.
  • There is an established familial link and individuals with first degree relatives suffering the disease possess a 2 to 7 fold increase of being diagnosed with CLL.
  • CLL is rarely seen in people of Asian origin or in multiple generations of Asian migrants who have settled in areas where the disease is prevalent.
56
Q

What genetic mutations are seen in CLL?

A
  • Various chromosomal anomalies may be seen in CLL, the most detrimental being a deletion (-17p) or mutation of the P53 gene.
  • Other prognostic markers include a deletion of a segment of chromosome 13, -13q14 (favourable outcome), trisomy 12 (intermediate), or a deletion of a segment of the ATM gene on chromosome 11 (poor).
57
Q

How does somatic hypermutation contribute to CLL?

A
  • The introduction of point mutations into the genes encoding the heavy chain region adds specificity to the B cell receptor.
  • Around 50% of patients with CLL have evidence of somatic hypermutation (SH) in their IGH genes.
  • It is thought that the absence or presence of SH represents pre or post germinal centre CLL cell transformation respectively.
  • Patients harbouring a CLL clone that has undergone somatic hypermutation tend to do better than those whose clone has limited or no hypermutation in the IGH genes.
58
Q

What is Hairy Cell Leukaemia?

A
  • Uncommon subtype of CLL -tends to be more aggressive in its course.
  • Cells express CD11c, CD25, CD103.
  • BRAF V600E mutations are very common and recent British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidelines advise to test for this mutation if immunophenotyping is equivocal.
59
Q

Outline Lymphoma.

A
  • Solid tumours of haematopoietic lymphoid cells within the solid tissue environment (lymph nodes) = malignancies of lymphod cells.
  • They can be sub divided into Hodgkins and non-Hodgkins lymphomas.
  • Hodgkins disease is characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (CD45-, CD20-, CD19+, CD30+) and the outcome of the disease is good with more than 80% of patients surviving more than 5 years.
  • Clonal IGVH rearrangements occur within the lymphoma cells but no other consistent molecular aberrations are associated with this disease.
60
Q

Overview Non Hodgkins Lymphoma (NHL)

A
  • The NHLs are a group of heterogeneous lymphomas originating from the B, T, and NK cells.
  • Morphology and histochemical analysis of blood, bone marrow, and tissue biopsies can be used to determine the type of lymphoma present.
  • Immunophenotyping will often be used to confirm the diagnosis or add prognostic value with the identification of specific markers or disease.
  • Cytogenetic abnormalities are common within the different types of disease and may be used in their diagnosis and in determining the disease outcome.
61
Q

What common translocations are seen in NHL?

A
  • t(14;18) commonly found ing follicular lymphoma. The anti-apoptotic BCL2 protein is overexpressed following the fusion of the BCL2 gene on chromosome 18 with the highly expressed ig heavy chain locus on chr 14.
  • t(11;14) results in the fusion of the ig heavy chain gene with cyclin D1 gene - this is seen in Mantle cell lymphoma.
62
Q

Overview myeloma.

A
  • Malignant proliferation of mature bone marrow plasma cells.
  • Commonest haematological malignancy - accounts for 15% of all haematological cancers.
  • Treatable - not curable - <5% survival at 10 years.
  • Poor risk karyotypes include t(4;14), -13q, t(11;14)
  • Deletion of TP53 assessed by FISH also associated with poor risk.
  • Little genetic testing.
63
Q

Diagnosis of chronic B and T cell leukaemias and lymphomas:

A
  • Immunophenotype and immunocytochemical cell characterisation provides a good indication of the type of disease.
    e. g:
  • CLL - CD5+/CD20(het)/CD23+/FMC7neg/k or lambda (weak).
  • Molecular investigations - clonal cell surface receptor gene rearrangements may be identified by PCR.
  • The immunological cells of the lymphoid lineage express antigen receptors on their cell surface.
  • In order to exhibit a wide range of epitope for antigen recognition a complex system of gene rearrangement occurs within these cells.
  • Multiplex PCR followed by fragment analysis can be utilised to demonstrate a clonal population of B or T cells the the same gene rearrangement.
  • Different sized PCR fragments are amplified from a normal population of B cells which express a range of rearranged immunoglobulin genes (polyclonal).
  • A malignant population of B-cells will have the same immunoglobulin gene rearrangement generating a single sized fragment by PCR (clonal).
64
Q

The future of cancer diagnostics.

A
  • the diagnosis of haematological malignancies should rely on a multi-disciplinary approach.
  • Advances in technology will allow an additional level of analysis of the cancer cell.
  • Large scale sequencing projects are directing us towards the introduction of personalised medicine in cancer.