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3rd Year > H-I Case 3 > Flashcards

H-I Case 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common presenting clinical manifestation in AIDS

a. unexplained weight loss
b. opportunistic infection
c. lymphadenopathy
d. both B and C

A

B

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2
Q

The following are considered as opportunistic infections, except:

a. Candidiasis
b. Cervical Cancer
c. Cryptococcosis
d. all of the above
e. none of the options

A

E

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3
Q

The following are true about laboratory testing for monitoring individuals on ART, except:

a. Testing fro drug resistance is indicated only if treatment failure occurs
b. HIV serology should be tested upon entry into care if HIV diagnosis has not been confirmed
c. HIV viral load should be measured every 3-6 months in individuals receiving ART
d. CD4 cell count should be measured upon ART initiation or modification

A

A. Testing for drug resistance is recommended upon entry into care, ART initiation or modification, if ART initiation is delayed, and when treatment failure occurs.

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4
Q

The following statements are true regarding the three phases of HIV infection (acute seroconversion, asymptomatic infection, AIDS), except:

a. AIDS is marked by the presence of an opportunistic infection and/or a CD4+ count <200cell/uL
b. Seroconversion may take a few weeks up to several months
c. During seroconversion, viral load drops and CD4+ T-cell count is typically very high
d. With the appearance of anti-HIV antibodies and CD8+ T-cell responses, the viral load drops to a steady state

A

C

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5
Q

The following are deficiencies of the adaptive immune system specifically T lymphocytes, except:

a. DiGeorge’s syndrome
b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
c. IgA deficiency
d. CD40 ligand deficiency

A

C

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6
Q

The following are true regarding pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for the prevention of HIV, except:

a. PrEP can be considered in patients with signs and symptoms of acute viral infection and recent exposure (1month)
b. Starting PrEP should be delayed for at least 1 month to reconfirm a negative HIV-1 status
c. Pregnancy is not a contraindication for PrEP
d. PrEP should be considered in individuals who had an STI with syphilis or gonorrhea within the past 6 months

A

A

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7
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the etiology of AIDS

a. HIV-2 came from chimpanzees and/or gorillas
b. gp41 undergoes conformational change
c. SAMHD1 inhibits HIV-1 nuclear entry
d. gag encodes the proteins that form the core of the virion

A

D

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8
Q

Most common mode of infection in developing countries

a. heterosexual transmission
b. oral sex transmission
c. men having sex with other men
d. IV puncture

A

A

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9
Q

The following are NOT true regarding the transmission of HIV, except:

a. use of contraceptive pills is not a risk factor for HIV infection
b. the quality of HIV-1 in plasma is a primary determinant of the risk of HIV-1 transmission
c. secretory leukocyte protease inhibitor is a soluble salivary factor that targets HIV-1
d. mother-to-child transmission of HIV most commonly occurs during the perinatal period
e. both A and B

A

D

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10
Q

It is where more than fifty percent of the global total of people infected with HIV is recorded.

a. Eastern Africa
b. Southern Africa
c. North Africa
d. Western Africa
e. both A and B

A

E

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11
Q

Primary cellular receptor of HIV

a. CD4
b. CD8
c. CCR5
d. CXCR4

A

A

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12
Q

Reservoirs are a pool of latently infected, resting CD4+ T cells serving as persistent reservoir of virus that exists in ALL HIV-infected individuals, they can exist in the following, except:

a. lymphoid tissue
b. peripheral blood
c. CNS
d. mucosa
e. none of the options

A

D

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13
Q

Long-term non-progresors are the following, except:

a. infected with HIV for a long period (>10years)
b. CD4+ T-cell counts were in normal range
c. Plasma viremia remained relatively low
d. Clinically stable over years with ART

A

D. Remained clinically stable over years without receiving ART

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14
Q

Diagnosis of HIV:

a. positive fourth-generation assay confirmed by nucleic acid test
b. positive fourth-generation assay confirmed by a second HIV-1/2-specific immunoassay
c. positive HIV-1/2 Ab differentiation immunoassay
d. A and B
e. A and C

A

E

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15
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of HIV

a. positive EIA with positive HIV RNA assay
b. positive EIA with positive NAT
c. positive EIA with positive p24 antigen capture assay
d. none of the options

A

A

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16
Q

Oral lesion that manifest in HIV patients that presents as white, frond-like lesions, generally along the lateral borders of the tongue, and adjacent buccal mucosa

a. thrush
b. hairy leukoplakia
c. aphthous ulcers
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

B

17
Q

The following statements regarding PrEP are not true, except:

a. Tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine (TAF/FTC) is indicated in individuals at risk for HIV from receptive vaginal sex
b. Tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine (TAF/FTC) is contraindicated in people with eCrCL >30mL/min (creatinine clearance)
c. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/emtricitabine (TDF/FTC) is approved for use in people with eCRCL >60mL/min
d. For patients with severe kidney disease, oral PrEP with long-acting cabotegravir may be considered

A

C

18
Q

Most common GI manifestation of HIV

a. colitis
b. constipation
c. diarrhea
d. all of the options

A

C

19
Q

Reddish-brown papular lesions on the penis or anogenital area that can coalesce into large, elevated plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. Lesions progress from red, painful and vesicular to “gun metal grey” as the rash resolves

a. lues maligna
b. condyloma lata
c. both a and b
d. none of the options

A

B - most common presentation of syphilis in pxs with HIV

20
Q

Most severe manifestation of AIDS

a. lipodystrophy
b. diarrhea
c. meningitis
d. AID dementia complex

A

D

21
Q

The following are AIDS-defining conditions, except:

a. Multiple myeloma
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. both A and B
e. all of the options

A

D: AIDS-defining conditions - Kaposi’s sarcoma, Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Invasive cervical carcinoma

3rd Year (8 decks)

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