CVS - RESPI Flashcards

1
Q

It is the principal risk factor of severe illness from COVID-19.

a. male sex
b. obesity
c. advanced age
d. all of the options

A

C. advanced age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It is the preferred antipyretic agent against COVID-19.

a. acetaminophen
b. aspirin
c. ibuprofen
d. naproxen

A

A. acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The onset of disease (COVID-19) typically manifest within

a. 4-5 days
b. 14 days
c. 7 days
d. 7-10 days

A

A. 4-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptomatic infection is an acute syndrome that resolves in

a. 4-5 days
b. 14 days
c. 7 days
d. 7-10 days

A

B. 14 days/2weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A monoclonal antibody against the IL-6 receptor

a. baricitinib
b. tocilizumab
c. molnupiravir
d. remdesivir

A

B. tocilizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Janus kinase inhibitor that is used only in combination with remdesivir in COVID-19 patients requiring oxygen or mechanical ventiltion.

a. baricitinib
b. tocilizumab
c. molnupiravir
d. siltuximab

A

A. baricitinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The following statements are tru about remdesivir, except:

a. Exhibit in vitro inhibitory activity againsts SARS-CoV-1
b. Approved for children >/=12y/o
c. Approved for adults with COVID-19 with any level of severity
d. None of the options

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The following are histopathology demonstrated by aortic aneurysms, except:

a. destruction of collagen and elastin
b. decreased vascular smooth muscle
c. out-growth of new blood vessels
d. inflammation
e. none of the options

A

C. should be in-growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the descending aorta?

a. Vasculitides
b. Spondyloarthropathies
c. Traumatic aneurysms
d. Takayasu’s arteritris

A

b. Spondyloarthropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is a potent modifiable risk factor of abdominal aortic aneurysm

a. male sex
b. advanced age
c. alcohol consumption
d. cigarette smoking

A

D. cigarette smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The following are indicated for operative repair with placement of prosthetic graft, except?

a. symptomatic ascending thoracic aortic aneurysms
b. aortic root diameter >/=5.5cm
c. ascending aortic diameter >6cm
d. growth rate is >0.5cm per year

A

C. ascending aortic diameter >6cm

Operative repair:
degenerative descending thoracic aortic aneurysm diameter >6cm

Endovascular repair:
diameter is >5.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

It may detect mural thrombus

a. chest x-ray
b. abdominal ultrasound
c. CT scan
d. MRI

A

B. abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which of the following areas is an abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly located?

a. distal to the iliac arteries
b. distal to renal arteries
c. adjacent to aortic branch
d. proximal to renal arteries

A

B. distal to renal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The classic clinical triad seen in 20% of patients with contained rupture of an AAA, except:

a. abdominal pain
b. back pain
c. chest pain
d. shock

A

C. chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DeBakey Classification, along with the Stanford classification, is used to separate aortic dissections into those that need surgical repair, and those that usually require only medical attention. Which of the following best describes DeBakey II?

a. Intimal tear occurs in the ascending aorta but involves the descending aorta as well
b.. Intimal tear is located in the descending aorta with distal propagation of the dissection
c. Dissection is limited to the ascending aorta
d. Intimal tear is located in the descending aorta isolated in the infrarenal location

A

C

DeBakey Classification:
Type I - Intimal tear occurs in the ascending aorta but the dissection may propagate to the aortic arch, the descending thoracic aorta, and even the abdominal aorta
Type II - limited to the ascending aorta
Type III - intimal tear is located in the descending aorta with distal propagation of the dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Upon auscultation you note the presence of a loud murmur as well as the presence of a palpable thrill, how would you grade this murmur?

a. Grade III
b. Grade IV
c. Grade V
d. Grade VI

A

B. Grade IV

17
Q

New York heart association functional classification of a patient with marked limitation of physical activity but is asymptomatic at rest

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

C. Class III

18
Q

Electrolyte abnormality that has substantial prognostic meaning in patients with HF

a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Alkalosis

A

A. Hyponatremia - this may be due to worsening of volume retention or due to the use of diuretics. Low Na is strongly prognostic of longer hospital stay as well as high risk of death

19
Q

True of aortic dissection, except:

a. peak incidence is in the 6th and 7th decades
b. men are more affected than women
c. presents as sudden pain
d. none of the options

A

D. none of the options

20
Q

Aortic dissection is a consequence of which of the following?

a. intimal tear
b. dissecting hematoma
c. occlusion of involved arteries
d. compression of adjacent tissues
e. all of the options

A

E. all of the options

21
Q

The following are physical findings in aortic dissection, except:

a. hypertension
b. hypotension
c. loss of pulses
d. pulmonary regurgitation

A

D. pulmonary regurgitation

should be aortic regurgitation

22
Q

It provides important information regarding the presence and severity of aortic regurgitation and pericardial effusion.

a. transthoracic echocardiography
b. transesophageal echocardiography
c. echocardiography
d. CT scan

A

C. echocardiography

23
Q

Very accurate in identifying dissections of the ascending and descending thoracic aorta but not the arch.

a. transthoracic echocardiography
b. transesophageal echocardiography
c. echocardiography
d. CT scan

A

B. transesophageal echocardiography

24
Q

For acute dissection, it should be administered parenterally to achieve a heart rate of ~60 beats/min.

a. propanolol
b. nitroprusside
c. verapamil
d. enalaprilat

A

A. propanolol

25
Q

It accompanies beta-adrenergic blockers to lower systolic blood pressure to </=120mmHg

a. propanolol
b. nitroprusside
c. verapamil
d. enalaprilat

A

B. nitroprusside

26
Q

Surgical correction is indicated in the following, except:

a. acute ascending aortic dissections
b. intramural hematomas (type A)
c. complicated type B dissections
d. intramural hematomas (type B)

A

D. intramural hematomas (type B)

medical therapy: uncomplicated and stable distal dissections

27
Q

Which among these patients should be screened by ultrasonography?

a. 65y/o, M, with history of smoking
b. 67y/o, F, with family history of AAA
c. 45y/o, F, with 32-pack year hx of smoking
d. both A and B
e. all of the options

A

D. both A and B

28
Q

It has primarily mild systolic dysfunction with features of diastolic dysfunction

a. HF with reduced EF
b. HF with mildly reduced EF
c. HF with preserved EF
d. HF with recovered EF

A

B. HF with mildly reduced EF

29
Q

It is used if the patient is ACE-I intolerant which competes with angiotensin II at its receptor

a. Losartan
b. Digoxin
c. Dapaglifozin
d. Nebivolol

A

a. Losartan

30
Q

Cornerstone of acute heart failure treatment

a. norepinephrine
b. milrinone
c. nitropusside
d. metolazone

A

D. metolazone

  • diuretics: furosemide, bumetanide
31
Q

Used for patients with hypotension, end-organ hypoperfusion, and shock secondary to myocardial pump failure

a. norepinephrine
b. milrinone
c. nitropusside
d. metolazone

A

B. milrinone

  • inotropes: dobutamine, dopamine
32
Q

Initial therapy for hypertensive acute heart failure

a. furosemide
b. isosorbide dinitrate
c. dobutamine
d. epinephrine

A

B. isosorbide dinitrate

  • vasodilators: nitroglycerin
33
Q

Presence of erythrocytes in the cellular intraalveolar exudate

a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV

A

b. Phase II

  • red hepatization
34
Q

Most common isolate in blood cultures (pneumonia)

a. S. aureus
b. S. pneumoniae
c. P. auriginosa
d. C. pneumoniae

A

B

35
Q

Management of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma

a. medical therapy
b. surgery
c. radiotherapy
d. chemotherapy

A

C. radiotherapy

36
Q

Which of the following is the main factor determining Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)?

a. cardiac output
b. heart rate
c. stroke volume
d. total peripheral resistance

A

C. stroke volume