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Gulfstream V > GV Study Guide > Flashcards

GV Study Guide Flashcards

0
Q

What is normal cruise speed?

A

0.8 Mach

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1
Q

What is the max altitude?

A

51,000 feet

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2
Q

What is the collective name for PFD and ND?

A

EFIS

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3
Q

What is the purpose of display switching or reversionary panel?

A

Allows you to can reconfigure EFIS and control SG’s

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4
Q

Where are the IAC’s located?

A

LEER and BEER

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5
Q

What three things does the FMS do?

A
  1. Calculates lateral and vertical nav guidance for display and coupling to FGS
  2. Develops composite position based on blend of nav sensors.
  3. Calculates performance information
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6
Q

What’s the purpose of IRS’s?

A

Primary attitude and heading reference for PFD’s and back up means of navigation

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7
Q

How does the radar act like two radars?

A

One radar antenna but both pilots control one sweep so it acts like two radars.

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8
Q

Which RFMU is available down to E-Batts?

A

RFMU #1

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9
Q

How is the engine controlled?

A

By dual channel FADEC

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10
Q

What is the guaranteed APU start altitude?

A

Flight level 390

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11
Q

How do flight controls operate?

A

Hydraulically and mechanically

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12
Q

What kind of flaps are on the G5?

A

Fowler

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13
Q

What are two special features associated with flight controls?

A

The ability to disconnect yoke for jammed flight controls and HOPS

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14
Q

Is the airplane mainly AC or DC powered?

A

DC powered

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15
Q

What is the max altitude on one pack?

A

48,000 feet

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16
Q

How many hydraulic pump do we have?

A

Four - two main, one Aux, and PTU

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17
Q

What kind of back up do we have for the landing gear extension?

A

Nitrogen bottle blowdown pressured at 3100 psi at 70°p

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18
Q

What hydraulic pressure powers the parking break?

A

Aux pump

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19
Q

What’s slows door and stairway operation during opening?

A

Trapped hydraulic fluid.

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20
Q

What hydraulic pressure closes the door?

A

Aux hydraulic system

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21
Q

Why is it dangerous if the main door is closed manually?

A

There will be no trap hydraulic fluid to slow the opening of the door

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22
Q

What’s the purpose of the door safety switch?

A

Disables door electrical system?

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23
Q

What happens when the outside door switch is selected to close

A

Right battery comes on, aux starts and door closes

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24
Q

What’s the purpose of hydraulic door control valve override knob?

A

Allows you to close door if you lose electrical control but retain hydraulics.

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25
Q

Is the main door seal inflated with bleed air?

A

No it’s passively inflated

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26
Q

True or false: when closed and locked a pneumatically control door seal fills area between baggage door and fuselage structure allowing fuselage to be pressurized and climate controlled?

A

True

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27
Q

What are the limits for entering baggage compartment?

A

Five minutes above 40,000 feet and no entry above flight level 450 with single pack operation

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28
Q

True or false: the tail compartment ladder can be removed and used to gain access to baggage compartment or for reaching engine areas for inspection and maintenance purposes.

A

True

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29
Q

Which windows serve as primary escape exits?

A

Last two windows on each side

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30
Q

What’s the FAA’s CB reset philosophy?

A

In-flight checklist says so or Capt. deems necessary for safe completion of flight.

Reset after cause determine : special condition fuel pump circuits

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31
Q

Master knob is the only knob that controls lighting for what?

A

Standby instruments

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32
Q

Rotation from off to minimum brightness detent on lighting Control Panel configures affected cockpit lights for what?

A

Night

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33
Q

What times out after 4 to 5 seconds during annunciator light test?

A

ACP’s

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34
Q

When does no smoking switch come on automatically?

A

When passenger Mask’s deployed either manually or automatically

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35
Q

How would you know if a strobe flash tube has failed?

A

Fault detector would indicate white on black. - (Nuclear symbol)

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36
Q

What is the source of power for the Nav lights?

A

One operates with batteries only ;essential DC the other is main DC

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37
Q

What our logo lights?

A

Mounted on the underside of the horizontal stab to illuminate the vertical stab

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38
Q

True or false: the landing lights auto extinguish at 18,000 feet?

A

True

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39
Q

Do taxi lights auto extinguish on gear retraction?

A

Yes

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40
Q

How many E-bats do we have?

A

Four, two avionics two lighting

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41
Q

How many fireballs do we have?

A

To

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42
Q

The smoke evacuation valve has how many positions?

A

Two

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43
Q

What’s the computer that controls the fire detection system?

A

Fire detection control unit FDCU

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44
Q

What happens if a fire loop fails?

A

Flightcrew selects faulty loop off, leaving operable fire loop active to function as a single loop system

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45
Q

When performing engine fire test which engine do you test first?

A

The right engine

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46
Q

How many lights do you get during a engine fire test?

A

Eight

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47
Q

How many lights do you get for APU fire?

A

Four

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48
Q

What malfunctions generate a pop up checklist?

A

Engine fire, engine hot, APU fire, cabin pressure low and T/R unlocked in flight

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49
Q

How is the APU fire detection system different from the engine fire detection system?

A

The APU detection system has 7 foot helium filled tube secured to the top of the APU compartment

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50
Q

What happens to the APU during a fire?

A

ECU you automatically shuts it down

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51
Q

How do you know if a fire bottle has discharged?

A

CAS message

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52
Q

Testing, indication and operation of fire detection system is available down to what source of power?

A

Main batteries only

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53
Q

How many types of portable fire extinguishers do we have?

A

Two - Halon and water

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54
Q

What are symbol generators?

A

Data processors

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55
Q

What is a ASCB?

A

Avionics standard communication bus

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56
Q

What does NMS stand for?

A

Nav management system

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57
Q

What is laser track?

A

Stand-alone long-range nav system

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58
Q

What kind of info would you find on a sensor menu?

A

Black boxes or computers

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59
Q

What does it mean when V speeds are followed by an Asterix?

A

Valid speeds but not yet configured.

flaps not set, grounds boilers not armed etc.

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60
Q

What’s the purpose of flex EPR?

A

Prolong engine life.

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61
Q

Where does EPR setting come from at any given time?

A

Comes from AT system which is FMS derived.

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62
Q

What is alt control?

A

It occurs when FADEC loses EPR and reverts to controlling engine with LP as opposed to HP.

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63
Q

True or false: FADEC uses HP to control engine except for reversers.

A

True

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64
Q

Where do we set the trim for take off?

A

In the green.

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65
Q

What is the purpose of pitch trim split half switch design?

A

In advertent operation including runaway is minimized.

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66
Q

What happens when you arm emergency stabilizer?

A

You prevent horizontal stab from moving with the flaps and control or horizontal stab with pitch trim.

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67
Q

When does PLI appear on ADI?

A

0.7 AOA

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68
Q

How is digital slip skid indicator different from mechanical slip skid indicator?

A

Twice as sensitive

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69
Q

What color is used for short range data?

A

Green.

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70
Q

What does it mean to preview a course?

A

Your pre-selecting a short range course while in long-range data.

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71
Q

What happens in emergency descent mode?

A

EDM appears as lateral mode, heading indicates 90° left, speed goes to 340, and AT goes idle. At 15,000 aircraft slows to 250 kn

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72
Q

What color is the to or next way point on FMS and ND?

A

Magenta

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73
Q

What does vertical alert and track change mean on the PFD?

A

Vertical alert comes on one minute from vertical change and track change 30 seconds prior to track change.

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74
Q

What can be used to Mark bearing and range of a hole in line of thunderstorms?

A

Aircraft installed joystick is used to move cursor on map format.

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75
Q

What is the only auto synoptic page?

A

TCAS

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76
Q

What’s the purpose of flux detector and magnetic compensator?

A

Flex detector senses horizontal component of earths magnetic field and sends heading signals to magnetic compensator and Compass circuits.

Magnetic compensator provides power, magnetic interference compensation, and signal processing for flux detector.

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77
Q

What’s the primary heading source of standby RMI?

A

IRU #1

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78
Q

What happens when you press “WARNING INHIBIT” on before landing checked with your gear down?

A

Most Amber and blue Messages tones are inhibited from that moment on and it never self cancels.

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79
Q

What controls DU auto reversion?

A

FWC and reversionary panel.

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80
Q

What’s the first thing to occur if a DU overheats?

A

Raster generator shuts off.

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81
Q

What does a big red X indicate on A DU?

A

Loss of signal generator.

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82
Q

What items are located in the IAC?

A
  1. AP/YD computer
  2. AT computer
  3. Nav computer
  4. performance computer
  5. bus controller
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83
Q

True or false: yaw dampener must be engaged to engage autopilot.

A

True

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84
Q

What are flight control servo’s?

A

Small motors that operate flight controls

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85
Q

Why does FGC fail passively?

A

Because there are two.

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86
Q

What type of indication do you get for normal disengagement of autopilot?

A

Amber flashing Annunciation on PFD and tone - Low high low

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87
Q

What button on the yoke momentarily interrupts autopilot?

A

TCS button

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88
Q

What happens when cross side PFD command is selected?

A

Clears all lateral and vertical FD modes but does not disengage AP.

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89
Q

During ILS approach dual couple approach mode is automatically initiated at what altitude?

A

1200 feet AGL

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90
Q

Where do speeds come from on GP?

A

From FMS or by manual selection.

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91
Q

What altitude do I put in altitude window if V naving down?

A

Lowest

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92
Q

How many types of FLCH do we have?

A

Two - large and small

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93
Q

Where is selected heading displayed?

A

In heading window, on PFD’s and on ND.

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94
Q

What is the purpose of bank limit select on GP?

A

Allows you to select low bank in heading select mode.

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95
Q

What does back course button do on GP?

A

Disables glideslope callouts and gives proper sensing.

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96
Q

After previewing a course what button arms automatic transition from FMS to selected previewed short range nav system for approach?

A

APR button

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97
Q

What happens when button below altitude window on GP is pushed?

A

Engages altitude hold mode.

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98
Q

What’s the purpose of the damper?

A

Provides turn coordination and dampens Dutch roll.

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99
Q

Can you use autothrottle’s after losing an engine?

A

No

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100
Q

What option do you have if AT1 fails?

A

Obtain AT2

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101
Q

What’s the power up default for autothrottle’s?

A

AT1

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102
Q

What happens when TO/GA is pressed?

A

On ground 12° pitch up commanded

In the air initial 8° pitch up commanded

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103
Q

What kind of parameters must be met to engage autothrottle’s?

A
  1. Valid EPR rating selected
  2. valid speed target selected
  3. Bleed air iso valve closed
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104
Q

Why do autothrottle’s go into hold mode at 60 knots?

A

Prevent unwanted thrust reductions during take off between 60 knts rotation and climb out to 400 feet AGL.

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105
Q

Does basic AT mode keep aircraft within High to low speed envelope?

A

Yes

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106
Q

When can I use auto throttles?

A

From takeoff to landing

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107
Q

Can I use autopilot for single-engine go around?

A

No.

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108
Q

Describe the thrust director.

A

Difference between EPR command bug and EPR target bug.

109
Q

True or false: the GV is WAAS capable.

A

False

110
Q

True or false: the GPS constellation configuration guarantees that five satellites will be in view at any given time in the world.

A

True

111
Q

What is RNP and what are the requirements for GV?

A

Required navigation performance. Plane was certified to 5.0 RNP but now must be 2RNP across US. (within two nautical miles on course)

Terminal RNP is one NM

Approach RNP is .3 and NM.

112
Q

What is selected availability?

A

Method by which accuracy of GPS is intentionally degraded

113
Q

When the GPS doesn’t have almanac and or initialization data, what kind of acquisition does it perform?

A

Search the “skies acquisition” by trying to acquire all satellites in GPS constellation.

114
Q

If satellite measurements are not sufficient for GPS sensor to maintain integrity or remain in nav mode yet sufficient when accurate altitude info is available, the GPS enters what kind of mode?

A

Altitude waiting mode

115
Q

What is RAIM and why is it necessary?

A

RAIM is “receiver autonomous integrity monitoring”. It’s necessary since delays of up to two hours can occur before erroneous satellite transmissions can be detected and corrected by satellite control segment it’s the only GPS fault monitoring system that we have.

116
Q

Do I need to check RAIM if I am shooting a VOR approach in blue data?

A

Yes - Blue data is L-Nav

117
Q

What is the U indicate on position sensor page of FMS?

A

Indicates FMS is using it.

118
Q

What kind of functions do the IRS’s perform?

A

Primary heading and attitude reference to PFD’s, back up source of navigation, and provides reference data to various aircraft systems.

119
Q

What does RAIM 0.09 NM indicate?

A

Indicates 99.999% certainty that position indicated is within .09 nautical miles of actual position.

120
Q

True or false: IRS alignment time depends on location.

A

True

121
Q

Which long-range Nav sensors does laser track use for navigation?

A

It’s strictly IRS based.

122
Q

How many antiskid systems do we have?

A

Two.

123
Q

What is align downmode?

A

Where IRU accepts optional inputs of latitude and longitude to improve accuracy on the ground only.

124
Q

If new IRU installed, or if aircraft move to a different location without operating IRU, how do you get IRS to excepted the position?

A

Send the position twice.

125
Q

Does the IRS accept position updates in Nav?

A

No.

126
Q

True or false: IRS ATT mode is degraded mode of operation and would only be used after IRU failure.

A

True

127
Q

True or false: don’t load FMS position while IRS’s are operating on E bats.

A

True

128
Q

What would heading or attitude failure indicate?

A

IRS failure.

129
Q

True or false: WD/WS selection on laser track gets current wind direction and Wind speed.

A

True

130
Q

What is the purpose of TAT probe aspiration?

A

Eliminates effect of radiant heat from tarmac and fuselage

131
Q

True or false the standby instruments get raw data

A

True unless you have glass standby instruments.

132
Q

What kind of info to MADC’s provide?

A

Temperature and Pitot static info. (altitude, airspeed, verbal speed, SAT and TAS).

Groundspeed comes from long-range nav source.

133
Q

If an RFMU fails can remaining RFMU be used to control both on-site and off-site systems?

A

True yes

134
Q

What is the sensor display driver SDD function on the audio integration system?

A

It’s a symbol generator.

135
Q

True or false: when tuning comm nav, ADF or setting ATC code, large knob controls most significant digits small knob controls least significant.

A

True

136
Q

Describe architecture of RFMU?

A

It has three tiers of info – top level Pages, main display Pages and preset Pages.

137
Q

How many presets can you have for COM, nav and ADF?

A

20

138
Q

How far above and below does TCAS look in auto?

A

2700 feet

139
Q

What blue CAS message do you get when you test the TCAS?

A

“TCAS fail”

140
Q

What kind of info do you get from RFMU engine function key?

A

Primary engine instruments and fuel.

141
Q

What does small green box indicate next to your transponder code?

A

ATC interrogation.

142
Q

Why do we recommend placing same code in both transponders?

A

Whichever hits ATC last is active

143
Q

How is emergency mode of operation activated?

A

Automatically with loss of 28 V DC power or manually by selecting or depressing switch.

144
Q

What happens when emergency mode is activated?

A

Piloy goes to VHF#1, copilot to VHF #2 and observer to HF#1

145
Q

What does filter selection do on ACP?

A

Removes identifier code signal from nav transceivers.

146
Q

What does VOX stand for?

A

Voice operated transmission

147
Q

How long does CVR provide means for recording all audio signals transmitted and received by aircraft crewmembers?

A

Most recent 30 minutes.

148
Q

True or false: impact switch located in tail compartment signal CVR to cease it’s recording.

A

True

149
Q

Under what condition can bulk erase switch located on LEER system monitor test panel be used to erase CVR stored data?

A

Aircraft must be stationary and weight on wheels system must be in ground mode.

150
Q

Where can you display weather?

A

On PFD or map mode ND.

151
Q

What happens when WX is selected on PFD?

A

Airspeed and altitude grey rasters are removed.

152
Q

To or False: one radar controller can be slaved to other controller resulting in one display.

A

True

153
Q

Where are Weather annunciations displayed?

A

In Weather Annunciation box.

154
Q

What would an amber TGT indicate in weather Annunciation box?

A

Advises pilot of potentialy. hazardous condition directly in front of an outside selected range.

155
Q

How do you override forced standby?

A

By pushing stab button four times within three seconds.

156
Q

What does the RCT function do?

A

Compensates for attenuation of radar signal as it passes through rainfall.

157
Q

True or false: turbulence can only be detected in areas of rainfall.

A

True

158
Q

True or false: hazardous targets are eliminated from display with low settings of variable game.

A

True

159
Q

What is ACT?

A

Altitude compensating tilt.

160
Q

For CATII reproach, would you enter DH as an MDA or DH?

A

DH

161
Q

What’s the name of yellow band that overlaps top edge of brown field and flashes any time radio altimeter is 400 to 600 feet AGL?

A

Ground awareness tape.

162
Q

What indication do you have when you’re 100 feet above selected DH or MDA?

A

A hollow box is displayed in upper right corner of ADI, you’ll hear “approaching minimums” and MDA bug turns from Amber to white.

163
Q

Next section weight and balance

A

165 weight and balance

164
Q

If ZFWCG is within limits can you get out of CG buy fueling?

A

No

165
Q

What is Datum?

A

Imaginary vertical line from which all measurements of arm are taken.

166
Q

How is percent MAC determined for G5?

A

Buy formula or with the table and fuselage station or arm.

167
Q

Why do you set trim for take off?

A

It minimizes control forces at safety speed V2 if you lose an engine.

168
Q

What is the benefit of taking off with 10° flaps?

A

Better take off gradient.

169
Q

What is balance field?

A

Where accelerate stop distance equals accelerate go.

170
Q

What is flex power and what’s the benefit?

A

Reduced power take off to prolong engine life.

171
Q

How can a GCU be reset?

A

By removing power from the GCU or cycling associated generator control switch.

172
Q

If both AC and DC external are available which has priority?

A

AC

173
Q

What is the purpose of E-inverter?

A

If left and right main AC buses fail emergency inverter is armed, a/c will be supplied by emergency inverter to phase a essential A/C bus.

174
Q

What is the source of hydraulics for HMG?

A

Left hydraulic system or PTU.

175
Q

What happens when master is selected on for the standby electrical power panel?

A

HMG is actuated and AC power is supplied to left/right standby AC buses and A/UX TRU.

176
Q

When indication should you see when selecting cabin window heat on while on the ground?

A

Blue CAS legend indicating power is inhibited.

177
Q

What is the A/UX TRU priority?

A

Left before right and essential for main.

178
Q

When can A/UX TRU hour more than one bus at a time?

A

When HMG is operational

179
Q

How do you power right main TRU from left main AC bus?

A

By selecting right main TRU switch on overhead electrical panel.

180
Q

True or false: external DC power can be used to power aircraft main inessential DC bus.

A

True

181
Q

What position should the battery switches be in when using external DC power to start the APU?

A

Off

182
Q

Describe main batteries

A

53 amp hour 24 V DC batteries.

183
Q

When would you see the amber battery on lights illuminate?

A
  1. APU start
  2. A/UX pump operating
  3. Essential DC bus is below 20 V DC
184
Q

What other duties does the right main battery perform?

A

Operate ground service bus and main cabin door.

185
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

22 V DC

186
Q

Below what voltage two batteries need to be deep cycle?

A

20 V DC

187
Q

What happens when external battery switches selected to on?

A

Illuminates anti-collision beacon and provides power from main batteries

188
Q

What are battery charging requirements?

A

AC power apply, battery switches must be on.

189
Q

Where can you find what’s available with loss of left main AC bus?

A

QRH table of electrical components.

190
Q

How many E batts and where they located?

A

Two avionics E batts located in LEER and REER

To lighting E batts located aft of REER and in the BEER

191
Q

What is the purpose of the ground service bus?

A

Provide DC power to equipment required for normal servicing while on ground

192
Q

When are the GSB on annunciator lights illuminated?

A

When GSB is powered by right aircraft battery or external DC power.

193
Q

Where does the only loadshed function of the EPS occur?

A

Airborne

194
Q

What Annunciation would you see on generator switch if the generator failed during flight?

A

Amber 0FF

195
Q

What indication shows APU is ready to start?

A

Ready light illuminates on COP.

196
Q

What happens when starting APU above 35,000 feet?

A

ECU will command BAAV open for 15 seconds prior to starter engagement.

197
Q

What function does ECU perform when altitude reaches 16,500 feet?

A

ECU logic command search control valve open.

198
Q

When should APU oil level be checked?

A

15 to 30 minutes after shutdown.

199
Q

What happens to APU during an APU fire?

A

ECU automatically shuts down APU.

200
Q

What is the required cooling. Between APU start attempts with external DC power?

A

15 minutes

201
Q

What happens when APU master switch selected?

A
  1. ON legend illuminates in APU master switch.
  2. B I T test performed
  3. APU oil temperature checked
  4. APU inlet air door open
  5. APU shut off valve open
202
Q

What is the quickest way to shut down APU?

A

Select off

203
Q

Why does ready light initially blank when APU master is selected on?

A

Bulb test

204
Q

During APU start when indication do you have the starter has cut out?

A

ON legend in APU starts switch pis extinguished

205
Q

What happens if APU starts switch is depressed anytime during 60 seconds cool down.?

A

APU is commanded to 100% RPM

206
Q

When starting APU in the air what else must be done first?

A

Right battery switch off to reduce starting torque due to generator operation.

207
Q

When selecting APU bleed air what valve opens in addition to the load control valve?

A

Isolation valve

208
Q

What are the two operation of moans of the APU?

A

Essential and nonessential.

209
Q

I went out to does the APU provide 100% of electrical load?

A

45,000 feet

210
Q

At what altitude can you use APU to start main engines?

A

30,000 feet

Main engine start envelope only goes to 25,000 feet though.

211
Q

Power plant section

A

239

212
Q

What is the prohibited engine range on the ground?

A

Between 66% and 80% LP RPM fan speed.

213
Q

What is the crosswind take off procedure above 20 knots?

A

Accelerates to 20 knots then apply slam acceleration procedure.

Slam acceleration is when you accelerate to full throttle within five seconds.

214
Q

With slam acceleration what must be considered?

A

RPM cannot go above 66% LP RPM.

If 60% achieve prior to 20 knots autothrottle’s locked out.

215
Q

What happens is going or if ice accumulates?

A

Soft rubber of the spinner distorts and sheds the ice.

216
Q

Describe the configuration of the main engines?

A

Low-pressure and HI pressure compressor is driven by turbans through coaxial shafts.

217
Q

How is EPR derived?

A

Ratio of pressure just prior to entering LP compressor to pressure exiting LP turbine.

218
Q

I is engine controlled?

A

FADEC

219
Q

Name the components driven by the accessory gearbox.

A
  1. IDG
  2. Fuel pump
  3. Fuel metering unit
  4. Oil pump
  5. Hydraulic pump
  6. FADEC
  7. Dedicated generator
220
Q

Name one of the benefits of the FADEC

A

Improved handling, fuel-efficient, and longer engine life.

221
Q

What happens if FADEC fails?

A

Power will be supplied from DC essential bus.

222
Q

How many engine vibration monitors does the GV have?

A

Two

223
Q

When do you shut down engine due to vibration?

A

When there are secondary indications.

224
Q

What is the primary purpose of the fuel oil cooler?

A

Prevents formation of ice in the LP fuel filter and FMU.

225
Q

What valve inside the FMU controls the return of excess fuel to FCOC Inlet or HP pump inlet?

A

Spill diverter valve.

226
Q

With three conditions required for the heated fuel returns to operate?

A
  1. Fuel return switch is armed
  2. Engine is not at high-power.
  3. Hopper fuel temp at 0°
227
Q

When is heated fuel system return inhibited?

A
  1. Fire handle pulled.
  2. Crossflow valve open.
  3. Low fuel pressure.
  4. Low fuel quantity.
  5. Blockage of LP fuel filter.
  6. Feel Temp in hopper above 10°C.
228
Q

What function does the fuel splitter valve serve?

A

Evenly split’s fuel flow between upper and lower spray nozzles.

229
Q

What happens during engine shutdown if EPA tank is overfilled.

A

Spills overboard.

230
Q

What protection is there against LP shaft failure?

A

In the event of LP shaft failure the Pawls will shut off fuel at the overspeed and splitter unit.

231
Q

Which engine start uses just one igniter?

A

Normal on the ground start.

232
Q

What is the auto relight mode?

A

Automatically initiated by EEC for engine flameout and rundown. EEC energizes both igniters continuously until RPM stabilizes.

If engine runs down to 35% EEC shuts down engine.

233
Q

What happens when Masters start switch is selected?

A

EEC initiates autostart ignition sequence, opens isolation valve and shuts off right pack.

234
Q

What indication is there if starter air valve remains open?

A

SPO icon changes to amber color.

235
Q

When does the EEC alternate channels?

A

Fuel position switch from run to off.

236
Q

When is start fully protected by FADEC?

A

Normal ground start using start master.

237
Q

What is the maximum TGT for initiating start?

A

150°C.

238
Q

What is rotor bow?

A

LP shaft inside HP shaft droops.

239
Q

When is the crank master used?

A

If start master unavailable.

240
Q

When is a windmilling start conducted?

A

Airspeed greater than 250 knots.

241
Q

When would you perform windmilling start?

A

Starter inop or icing conditions.

242
Q

Three components that make up the FADEC?

A
  1. EEC
  2. Dedicated generator
  3. Data plug
243
Q

What is autothrottle hold mode?

A

Autothrottle’s can’t be initiated between 60 knots and 400 feet AGL.

This prevents unwanted power changes during critical take off phase.

244
Q

What affect does autothrottle hold mode have on the rejected take off?

A

It allows aborted take off with no friction.

245
Q

When does the EEC command the engine to high idle.

A

Greater than 22° flap setting.

246
Q

What concerns are there with alternate mode control?

A
  1. No automatic exceedances limits
  2. Upon landing cannot dispatch.
  3. Autothrottle’s not available.
247
Q

What is soft and hard reversion?

A

Softer version – EEC reverts to alternate mode.

Hard version – crew selects alternate mode.

248
Q

We’re thrust reversers considered in aircraft certification?

A

No

249
Q

What is the purpose of tertiary locks?

A

Prevent uncommanded TR deployment in case primary locks fail.

250
Q

What’s the purpose of isolation control unit?

A

Inhibits flow of hydraulic pressure to directional control valve.

251
Q

How are TR primary locks set?

A

Overcenter mechanical lock.

252
Q

What conditions must be met for tertiary locks to unlock?

A
  1. Weight on wheels or WOW.

2. Wheelspin signal of 47 knots or greater.

253
Q

How is engine controlled in reverse thrust region?

A

With LP.

254
Q

What happens to the engine if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

A

Power on that engine goes to idle but throttle does not move.

255
Q

What happens when manual Stowe switch is pressed?

A

Hydraulically Stowes and locks thrust reverser and aluminates Amber on in lower half of switch light.

256
Q

Can an inoperative reverser be locked out?

A

Yes

257
Q

What type of bleed air does the Cowl anti-ice system send to leading edge of engine cowles.

A

Fifth or mid stage air.

258
Q

What are engine starter limits?

A

3 minutes, 15 seconds, 3 minutes, 15 seconds, 3 minutes, 15 minutes.

259
Q

What prevents sudden shift in center of gravity due to fuel movement?

A

Wings are divided into seven compartments and six baffles.

260
Q

What’s the purpose of the ventilation system?

A

To allow air and fuel vapor to flow into and out of fuel tank to prevent over and under pressurization.

261
Q

What’s the purpose of the vent Plenum?

A

It’s supplies a 2% fuel expansion space required by FAA.

262
Q

What is the optimum fueling pressure?

A

35 to 55 psi

263
Q

When do you perform manual pre-checks?

A

Every time you fuel.

264
Q

What’s indicated if Hi level fuel warning light on fueling compartment door illuminates?

A

Fuel in the Plenum.

265
Q

What’s the capacity of each Hopper?

A

1283 pounds or 190 gallons.

266
Q

What’s the difference between crossed flow and inter-tank valve?

A

Dinner take valve is a hole between hoppers.

Crossflow valve connects manifolds. Transfers fuel under pressure.

267
Q

What’s the purpose of fuel injector pump and how does it operate?

A

It keeps the hopper full. It’s a low-pressure high-volume jet pump with no moving parts.

268
Q

What’s the main source of power for the boost pumps?

A

Main boost pump – essential DC

A/UX boost pumps – main DC

269
Q

What happens if both fuel boost pumps stop operating?

A

The engine will suction feed fuel. Must be below 20,000 feet.

270
Q

Hydraulics section

A

302

Gulfstream V (5 decks)

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