GV Study Guide Flashcards
0
Q
What is normal cruise speed?
A
0.8 Mach
1
Q
What is the max altitude?
A
51,000 feet
2
Q
What is the collective name for PFD and ND?
A
EFIS
3
Q
What is the purpose of display switching or reversionary panel?
A
Allows you to can reconfigure EFIS and control SG’s
4
Q
Where are the IAC’s located?
A
LEER and BEER
5
Q
What three things does the FMS do?
A
- Calculates lateral and vertical nav guidance for display and coupling to FGS
- Develops composite position based on blend of nav sensors.
- Calculates performance information
6
Q
What’s the purpose of IRS’s?
A
Primary attitude and heading reference for PFD’s and back up means of navigation
7
Q
How does the radar act like two radars?
A
One radar antenna but both pilots control one sweep so it acts like two radars.
8
Q
Which RFMU is available down to E-Batts?
A
RFMU #1
9
Q
How is the engine controlled?
A
By dual channel FADEC
10
Q
What is the guaranteed APU start altitude?
A
Flight level 390
11
Q
How do flight controls operate?
A
Hydraulically and mechanically
12
Q
What kind of flaps are on the G5?
A
Fowler
13
Q
What are two special features associated with flight controls?
A
The ability to disconnect yoke for jammed flight controls and HOPS
14
Q
Is the airplane mainly AC or DC powered?
A
DC powered
15
Q
What is the max altitude on one pack?
A
48,000 feet
16
Q
How many hydraulic pump do we have?
A
Four - two main, one Aux, and PTU
17
Q
What kind of back up do we have for the landing gear extension?
A
Nitrogen bottle blowdown pressured at 3100 psi at 70°p
18
Q
What hydraulic pressure powers the parking break?
A
Aux pump
19
Q
What’s slows door and stairway operation during opening?
A
Trapped hydraulic fluid.
20
Q
What hydraulic pressure closes the door?
A
Aux hydraulic system
21
Q
Why is it dangerous if the main door is closed manually?
A
There will be no trap hydraulic fluid to slow the opening of the door
22
Q
What’s the purpose of the door safety switch?
A
Disables door electrical system?
23
Q
What happens when the outside door switch is selected to close
A
Right battery comes on, aux starts and door closes
24
What's the purpose of hydraulic door control valve override knob?
Allows you to close door if you lose electrical control but retain hydraulics.
25
Is the main door seal inflated with bleed air?
No it's passively inflated
26
True or false: when closed and locked a pneumatically control door seal fills area between baggage door and fuselage structure allowing fuselage to be pressurized and climate controlled?
True
27
What are the limits for entering baggage compartment?
Five minutes above 40,000 feet and no entry above flight level 450 with single pack operation
28
True or false: the tail compartment ladder can be removed and used to gain access to baggage compartment or for reaching engine areas for inspection and maintenance purposes.
True
29
Which windows serve as primary escape exits?
Last two windows on each side
30
What's the FAA's CB reset philosophy?
In-flight checklist says so or Capt. deems necessary for safe completion of flight.
Reset after cause determine : special condition fuel pump circuits
31
Master knob is the only knob that controls lighting for what?
Standby instruments
32
Rotation from off to minimum brightness detent on lighting Control Panel configures affected cockpit lights for what?
Night
33
What times out after 4 to 5 seconds during annunciator light test?
ACP's
34
When does no smoking switch come on automatically?
When passenger Mask's deployed either manually or automatically
35
How would you know if a strobe flash tube has failed?
Fault detector would indicate white on black. - (Nuclear symbol)
36
What is the source of power for the Nav lights?
One operates with batteries only ;essential DC the other is main DC
37
What our logo lights?
Mounted on the underside of the horizontal stab to illuminate the vertical stab
38
True or false: the landing lights auto extinguish at 18,000 feet?
True
39
Do taxi lights auto extinguish on gear retraction?
Yes
40
How many E-bats do we have?
Four, two avionics two lighting
41
How many fireballs do we have?
To
42
The smoke evacuation valve has how many positions?
Two
43
What's the computer that controls the fire detection system?
Fire detection control unit FDCU
44
What happens if a fire loop fails?
Flightcrew selects faulty loop off, leaving operable fire loop active to function as a single loop system
45
When performing engine fire test which engine do you test first?
The right engine
46
How many lights do you get during a engine fire test?
Eight
47
How many lights do you get for APU fire?
Four
48
What malfunctions generate a pop up checklist?
Engine fire, engine hot, APU fire, cabin pressure low and T/R unlocked in flight
49
How is the APU fire detection system different from the engine fire detection system?
The APU detection system has 7 foot helium filled tube secured to the top of the APU compartment
50
What happens to the APU during a fire?
ECU you automatically shuts it down
51
How do you know if a fire bottle has discharged?
CAS message
52
Testing, indication and operation of fire detection system is available down to what source of power?
Main batteries only
53
How many types of portable fire extinguishers do we have?
Two - Halon and water
54
What are symbol generators?
Data processors
55
What is a ASCB?
Avionics standard communication bus
56
What does NMS stand for?
Nav management system
57
What is laser track?
Stand-alone long-range nav system
58
What kind of info would you find on a sensor menu?
Black boxes or computers
59
What does it mean when V speeds are followed by an Asterix?
Valid speeds but not yet configured.
| flaps not set, grounds boilers not armed etc.
60
What's the purpose of flex EPR?
Prolong engine life.
61
Where does EPR setting come from at any given time?
Comes from AT system which is FMS derived.
62
What is alt control?
It occurs when FADEC loses EPR and reverts to controlling engine with LP as opposed to HP.
63
True or false: FADEC uses HP to control engine except for reversers.
True
64
Where do we set the trim for take off?
In the green.
65
What is the purpose of pitch trim split half switch design?
In advertent operation including runaway is minimized.
66
What happens when you arm emergency stabilizer?
You prevent horizontal stab from moving with the flaps and control or horizontal stab with pitch trim.
67
When does PLI appear on ADI?
0.7 AOA
68
How is digital slip skid indicator different from mechanical slip skid indicator?
Twice as sensitive
69
What color is used for short range data?
Green.
70
What does it mean to preview a course?
Your pre-selecting a short range course while in long-range data.
71
What happens in emergency descent mode?
EDM appears as lateral mode, heading indicates 90° left, speed goes to 340, and AT goes idle. At 15,000 aircraft slows to 250 kn
72
What color is the to or next way point on FMS and ND?
Magenta
73
What does vertical alert and track change mean on the PFD?
Vertical alert comes on one minute from vertical change and track change 30 seconds prior to track change.
74
What can be used to Mark bearing and range of a hole in line of thunderstorms?
Aircraft installed joystick is used to move cursor on map format.
75
What is the only auto synoptic page?
TCAS
76
What's the purpose of flux detector and magnetic compensator?
Flex detector senses horizontal component of earths magnetic field and sends heading signals to magnetic compensator and Compass circuits.
Magnetic compensator provides power, magnetic interference compensation, and signal processing for flux detector.
77
What's the primary heading source of standby RMI?
IRU #1
78
What happens when you press "WARNING INHIBIT" on before landing checked with your gear down?
Most Amber and blue Messages tones are inhibited from that moment on and it never self cancels.
79
What controls DU auto reversion?
FWC and reversionary panel.
80
What's the first thing to occur if a DU overheats?
Raster generator shuts off.
81
What does a big red X indicate on A DU?
Loss of signal generator.
82
What items are located in the IAC?
1. AP/YD computer
2. AT computer
3. Nav computer
4. performance computer
5. bus controller
83
True or false: yaw dampener must be engaged to engage autopilot.
True
84
What are flight control servo's?
Small motors that operate flight controls
85
Why does FGC fail passively?
Because there are two.
86
What type of indication do you get for normal disengagement of autopilot?
Amber flashing Annunciation on PFD and tone - Low high low
87
What button on the yoke momentarily interrupts autopilot?
TCS button
88
What happens when cross side PFD command is selected?
Clears all lateral and vertical FD modes but does not disengage AP.
89
During ILS approach dual couple approach mode is automatically initiated at what altitude?
1200 feet AGL
90
Where do speeds come from on GP?
From FMS or by manual selection.
91
What altitude do I put in altitude window if V naving down?
Lowest
92
How many types of FLCH do we have?
Two - large and small
93
Where is selected heading displayed?
In heading window, on PFD's and on ND.
94
What is the purpose of bank limit select on GP?
Allows you to select low bank in heading select mode.
95
What does back course button do on GP?
Disables glideslope callouts and gives proper sensing.
96
After previewing a course what button arms automatic transition from FMS to selected previewed short range nav system for approach?
APR button
97
What happens when button below altitude window on GP is pushed?
Engages altitude hold mode.
98
What's the purpose of the damper?
Provides turn coordination and dampens Dutch roll.
99
Can you use autothrottle's after losing an engine?
No
100
What option do you have if AT1 fails?
Obtain AT2
101
What's the power up default for autothrottle's?
AT1
102
What happens when TO/GA is pressed?
On ground 12° pitch up commanded
In the air initial 8° pitch up commanded
103
What kind of parameters must be met to engage autothrottle's?
1. Valid EPR rating selected
2. valid speed target selected
3. Bleed air iso valve closed
104
Why do autothrottle's go into hold mode at 60 knots?
Prevent unwanted thrust reductions during take off between 60 knts rotation and climb out to 400 feet AGL.
105
Does basic AT mode keep aircraft within High to low speed envelope?
Yes
106
When can I use auto throttles?
From takeoff to landing
107
Can I use autopilot for single-engine go around?
No.
108
Describe the thrust director.
Difference between EPR command bug and EPR target bug.
109
True or false: the GV is WAAS capable.
False
110
True or false: the GPS constellation configuration guarantees that five satellites will be in view at any given time in the world.
True
111
What is RNP and what are the requirements for GV?
Required navigation performance. Plane was certified to 5.0 RNP but now must be 2RNP across US. (within two nautical miles on course)
Terminal RNP is one NM
Approach RNP is .3 and NM.
112
What is selected availability?
Method by which accuracy of GPS is intentionally degraded
113
When the GPS doesn't have almanac and or initialization data, what kind of acquisition does it perform?
Search the "skies acquisition" by trying to acquire all satellites in GPS constellation.
114
If satellite measurements are not sufficient for GPS sensor to maintain integrity or remain in nav mode yet sufficient when accurate altitude info is available, the GPS enters what kind of mode?
Altitude waiting mode
115
What is RAIM and why is it necessary?
RAIM is "receiver autonomous integrity monitoring". It's necessary since delays of up to two hours can occur before erroneous satellite transmissions can be detected and corrected by satellite control segment it's the only GPS fault monitoring system that we have.
116
Do I need to check RAIM if I am shooting a VOR approach in blue data?
Yes - Blue data is L-Nav
117
What is the U indicate on position sensor page of FMS?
Indicates FMS is using it.
118
What kind of functions do the IRS's perform?
Primary heading and attitude reference to PFD's, back up source of navigation, and provides reference data to various aircraft systems.
119
What does RAIM 0.09 NM indicate?
Indicates 99.999% certainty that position indicated is within .09 nautical miles of actual position.
120
True or false: IRS alignment time depends on location.
True
121
Which long-range Nav sensors does laser track use for navigation?
It's strictly IRS based.
122
How many antiskid systems do we have?
Two.
123
What is align downmode?
Where IRU accepts optional inputs of latitude and longitude to improve accuracy on the ground only.
124
If new IRU installed, or if aircraft move to a different location without operating IRU, how do you get IRS to excepted the position?
Send the position twice.
125
Does the IRS accept position updates in Nav?
No.
126
True or false: IRS ATT mode is degraded mode of operation and would only be used after IRU failure.
True
127
True or false: don't load FMS position while IRS's are operating on E bats.
True
128
What would heading or attitude failure indicate?
IRS failure.
129
True or false: WD/WS selection on laser track gets current wind direction and Wind speed.
True
130
What is the purpose of TAT probe aspiration?
Eliminates effect of radiant heat from tarmac and fuselage
131
True or false the standby instruments get raw data
True unless you have glass standby instruments.
132
What kind of info to MADC's provide?
Temperature and Pitot static info. (altitude, airspeed, verbal speed, SAT and TAS).
Groundspeed comes from long-range nav source.
133
If an RFMU fails can remaining RFMU be used to control both on-site and off-site systems?
True yes
134
What is the sensor display driver SDD function on the audio integration system?
It's a symbol generator.
135
True or false: when tuning comm nav, ADF or setting ATC code, large knob controls most significant digits small knob controls least significant.
True
136
Describe architecture of RFMU?
It has three tiers of info – top level Pages, main display Pages and preset Pages.
137
How many presets can you have for COM, nav and ADF?
20
138
How far above and below does TCAS look in auto?
2700 feet
139
What blue CAS message do you get when you test the TCAS?
"TCAS fail"
140
What kind of info do you get from RFMU engine function key?
Primary engine instruments and fuel.
141
What does small green box indicate next to your transponder code?
ATC interrogation.
142
Why do we recommend placing same code in both transponders?
Whichever hits ATC last is active
143
How is emergency mode of operation activated?
Automatically with loss of 28 V DC power or manually by selecting or depressing switch.
144
What happens when emergency mode is activated?
Piloy goes to VHF#1, copilot to VHF #2 and observer to HF#1
145
What does filter selection do on ACP?
Removes identifier code signal from nav transceivers.
146
What does VOX stand for?
Voice operated transmission
147
How long does CVR provide means for recording all audio signals transmitted and received by aircraft crewmembers?
Most recent 30 minutes.
148
True or false: impact switch located in tail compartment signal CVR to cease it's recording.
True
149
Under what condition can bulk erase switch located on LEER system monitor test panel be used to erase CVR stored data?
Aircraft must be stationary and weight on wheels system must be in ground mode.
150
Where can you display weather?
On PFD or map mode ND.
151
What happens when WX is selected on PFD?
Airspeed and altitude grey rasters are removed.
152
To or False: one radar controller can be slaved to other controller resulting in one display.
True
153
Where are Weather annunciations displayed?
In Weather Annunciation box.
154
What would an amber TGT indicate in weather Annunciation box?
Advises pilot of potentialy. hazardous condition directly in front of an outside selected range.
155
How do you override forced standby?
By pushing stab button four times within three seconds.
156
What does the RCT function do?
Compensates for attenuation of radar signal as it passes through rainfall.
157
True or false: turbulence can only be detected in areas of rainfall.
True
158
True or false: hazardous targets are eliminated from display with low settings of variable game.
True
159
What is ACT?
Altitude compensating tilt.
160
For CATII reproach, would you enter DH as an MDA or DH?
DH
161
What's the name of yellow band that overlaps top edge of brown field and flashes any time radio altimeter is 400 to 600 feet AGL?
Ground awareness tape.
162
What indication do you have when you're 100 feet above selected DH or MDA?
A hollow box is displayed in upper right corner of ADI, you'll hear "approaching minimums" and MDA bug turns from Amber to white.
163
Next section weight and balance
165 weight and balance
164
If ZFWCG is within limits can you get out of CG buy fueling?
No
165
What is Datum?
Imaginary vertical line from which all measurements of arm are taken.
166
How is percent MAC determined for G5?
Buy formula or with the table and fuselage station or arm.
167
Why do you set trim for take off?
It minimizes control forces at safety speed V2 if you lose an engine.
168
What is the benefit of taking off with 10° flaps?
Better take off gradient.
169
What is balance field?
Where accelerate stop distance equals accelerate go.
170
What is flex power and what's the benefit?
Reduced power take off to prolong engine life.
171
How can a GCU be reset?
By removing power from the GCU or cycling associated generator control switch.
172
If both AC and DC external are available which has priority?
AC
173
What is the purpose of E-inverter?
If left and right main AC buses fail emergency inverter is armed, a/c will be supplied by emergency inverter to phase a essential A/C bus.
174
What is the source of hydraulics for HMG?
Left hydraulic system or PTU.
175
What happens when master is selected on for the standby electrical power panel?
HMG is actuated and AC power is supplied to left/right standby AC buses and A/UX TRU.
176
When indication should you see when selecting cabin window heat on while on the ground?
Blue CAS legend indicating power is inhibited.
177
What is the A/UX TRU priority?
Left before right and essential for main.
178
When can A/UX TRU hour more than one bus at a time?
When HMG is operational
179
How do you power right main TRU from left main AC bus?
By selecting right main TRU switch on overhead electrical panel.
180
True or false: external DC power can be used to power aircraft main inessential DC bus.
True
181
What position should the battery switches be in when using external DC power to start the APU?
Off
182
Describe main batteries
53 amp hour 24 V DC batteries.
183
When would you see the amber battery on lights illuminate?
1. APU start
2. A/UX pump operating
3. Essential DC bus is below 20 V DC
184
What other duties does the right main battery perform?
Operate ground service bus and main cabin door.
185
What is the minimum battery voltage?
22 V DC
186
Below what voltage two batteries need to be deep cycle?
20 V DC
187
What happens when external battery switches selected to on?
Illuminates anti-collision beacon and provides power from main batteries
188
What are battery charging requirements?
AC power apply, battery switches must be on.
189
Where can you find what's available with loss of left main AC bus?
QRH table of electrical components.
190
How many E batts and where they located?
Two avionics E batts located in LEER and REER
To lighting E batts located aft of REER and in the BEER
191
What is the purpose of the ground service bus?
Provide DC power to equipment required for normal servicing while on ground
192
When are the GSB on annunciator lights illuminated?
When GSB is powered by right aircraft battery or external DC power.
193
Where does the only loadshed function of the EPS occur?
Airborne
194
What Annunciation would you see on generator switch if the generator failed during flight?
Amber 0FF
195
What indication shows APU is ready to start?
Ready light illuminates on COP.
196
What happens when starting APU above 35,000 feet?
ECU will command BAAV open for 15 seconds prior to starter engagement.
197
What function does ECU perform when altitude reaches 16,500 feet?
ECU logic command search control valve open.
198
When should APU oil level be checked?
15 to 30 minutes after shutdown.
199
What happens to APU during an APU fire?
ECU automatically shuts down APU.
200
What is the required cooling. Between APU start attempts with external DC power?
15 minutes
201
What happens when APU master switch selected?
1. ON legend illuminates in APU master switch.
2. B I T test performed
3. APU oil temperature checked
4. APU inlet air door open
5. APU shut off valve open
202
What is the quickest way to shut down APU?
Select off
203
Why does ready light initially blank when APU master is selected on?
Bulb test
204
During APU start when indication do you have the starter has cut out?
ON legend in APU starts switch pis extinguished
205
What happens if APU starts switch is depressed anytime during 60 seconds cool down.?
APU is commanded to 100% RPM
206
When starting APU in the air what else must be done first?
Right battery switch off to reduce starting torque due to generator operation.
207
When selecting APU bleed air what valve opens in addition to the load control valve?
Isolation valve
208
What are the two operation of moans of the APU?
Essential and nonessential.
209
I went out to does the APU provide 100% of electrical load?
45,000 feet
210
At what altitude can you use APU to start main engines?
30,000 feet
Main engine start envelope only goes to 25,000 feet though.
211
Power plant section
#239
212
What is the prohibited engine range on the ground?
Between 66% and 80% LP RPM fan speed.
213
What is the crosswind take off procedure above 20 knots?
Accelerates to 20 knots then apply slam acceleration procedure.
Slam acceleration is when you accelerate to full throttle within five seconds.
214
With slam acceleration what must be considered?
RPM cannot go above 66% LP RPM.
If 60% achieve prior to 20 knots autothrottle's locked out.
215
What happens is going or if ice accumulates?
Soft rubber of the spinner distorts and sheds the ice.
216
Describe the configuration of the main engines?
Low-pressure and HI pressure compressor is driven by turbans through coaxial shafts.
217
How is EPR derived?
Ratio of pressure just prior to entering LP compressor to pressure exiting LP turbine.
218
I is engine controlled?
FADEC
219
Name the components driven by the accessory gearbox.
1. IDG
2. Fuel pump
3. Fuel metering unit
4. Oil pump
5. Hydraulic pump
6. FADEC
7. Dedicated generator
220
Name one of the benefits of the FADEC
Improved handling, fuel-efficient, and longer engine life.
221
What happens if FADEC fails?
Power will be supplied from DC essential bus.
222
How many engine vibration monitors does the GV have?
Two
223
When do you shut down engine due to vibration?
When there are secondary indications.
224
What is the primary purpose of the fuel oil cooler?
Prevents formation of ice in the LP fuel filter and FMU.
225
What valve inside the FMU controls the return of excess fuel to FCOC Inlet or HP pump inlet?
Spill diverter valve.
226
With three conditions required for the heated fuel returns to operate?
1. Fuel return switch is armed
2. Engine is not at high-power.
3. Hopper fuel temp at 0°
227
When is heated fuel system return inhibited?
1. Fire handle pulled.
2. Crossflow valve open.
3. Low fuel pressure.
4. Low fuel quantity.
5. Blockage of LP fuel filter.
6. Feel Temp in hopper above 10°C.
228
What function does the fuel splitter valve serve?
Evenly split's fuel flow between upper and lower spray nozzles.
229
What happens during engine shutdown if EPA tank is overfilled.
Spills overboard.
230
What protection is there against LP shaft failure?
In the event of LP shaft failure the Pawls will shut off fuel at the overspeed and splitter unit.
231
Which engine start uses just one igniter?
Normal on the ground start.
232
What is the auto relight mode?
Automatically initiated by EEC for engine flameout and rundown. EEC energizes both igniters continuously until RPM stabilizes.
If engine runs down to 35% EEC shuts down engine.
233
What happens when Masters start switch is selected?
EEC initiates autostart ignition sequence, opens isolation valve and shuts off right pack.
234
What indication is there if starter air valve remains open?
SPO icon changes to amber color.
235
When does the EEC alternate channels?
Fuel position switch from run to off.
236
When is start fully protected by FADEC?
Normal ground start using start master.
237
What is the maximum TGT for initiating start?
150°C.
238
What is rotor bow?
LP shaft inside HP shaft droops.
239
When is the crank master used?
If start master unavailable.
240
When is a windmilling start conducted?
Airspeed greater than 250 knots.
241
When would you perform windmilling start?
Starter inop or icing conditions.
242
Three components that make up the FADEC?
1. EEC
2. Dedicated generator
3. Data plug
243
What is autothrottle hold mode?
Autothrottle's can't be initiated between 60 knots and 400 feet AGL.
This prevents unwanted power changes during critical take off phase.
244
What affect does autothrottle hold mode have on the rejected take off?
It allows aborted take off with no friction.
245
When does the EEC command the engine to high idle.
Greater than 22° flap setting.
246
What concerns are there with alternate mode control?
1. No automatic exceedances limits
2. Upon landing cannot dispatch.
3. Autothrottle's not available.
247
What is soft and hard reversion?
Softer version – EEC reverts to alternate mode.
Hard version – crew selects alternate mode.
248
We're thrust reversers considered in aircraft certification?
No
249
What is the purpose of tertiary locks?
Prevent uncommanded TR deployment in case primary locks fail.
250
What's the purpose of isolation control unit?
Inhibits flow of hydraulic pressure to directional control valve.
251
How are TR primary locks set?
Overcenter mechanical lock.
252
What conditions must be met for tertiary locks to unlock?
1. Weight on wheels or WOW.
| 2. Wheelspin signal of 47 knots or greater.
253
How is engine controlled in reverse thrust region?
With LP.
254
What happens to the engine if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
Power on that engine goes to idle but throttle does not move.
255
What happens when manual Stowe switch is pressed?
Hydraulically Stowes and locks thrust reverser and aluminates Amber on in lower half of switch light.
256
Can an inoperative reverser be locked out?
Yes
257
What type of bleed air does the Cowl anti-ice system send to leading edge of engine cowles.
Fifth or mid stage air.
258
What are engine starter limits?
3 minutes, 15 seconds, 3 minutes, 15 seconds, 3 minutes, 15 minutes.
259
What prevents sudden shift in center of gravity due to fuel movement?
Wings are divided into seven compartments and six baffles.
260
What's the purpose of the ventilation system?
To allow air and fuel vapor to flow into and out of fuel tank to prevent over and under pressurization.
261
What's the purpose of the vent Plenum?
It's supplies a 2% fuel expansion space required by FAA.
262
What is the optimum fueling pressure?
35 to 55 psi
263
When do you perform manual pre-checks?
Every time you fuel.
264
What's indicated if Hi level fuel warning light on fueling compartment door illuminates?
Fuel in the Plenum.
265
What's the capacity of each Hopper?
1283 pounds or 190 gallons.
266
What's the difference between crossed flow and inter-tank valve?
Dinner take valve is a hole between hoppers.
Crossflow valve connects manifolds. Transfers fuel under pressure.
267
What's the purpose of fuel injector pump and how does it operate?
It keeps the hopper full. It's a low-pressure high-volume jet pump with no moving parts.
268
What's the main source of power for the boost pumps?
Main boost pump – essential DC
A/UX boost pumps – main DC
269
What happens if both fuel boost pumps stop operating?
The engine will suction feed fuel. Must be below 20,000 feet.
270
Hydraulics section
#302
