GV Notes Flashcards

0
Q

How is landing gear operated?

A

Elect cont, Hyd actuated, mech sequenced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How many AC gen’s

A

5 total

2 - 40 kva eng gens

1 - 20 kva HMG

1 - 40 kva APU

1 - 1 kva emerg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is main cabin door sealed?

A

Passively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All doors sensored except ?

A

Nose gear pin door

Gnd service door

Ext air door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are the circuit breaker is listed by bus and where they listed by alpha numeric’s

A

QRH supplemental section page 5-11 and 5-24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do you find evacuation procedures?

A

Section EI-6 for planned evacuation section S – 34 for emergency evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What gust lock and flight control checks must be done prior to engine start and take off?

A

Gus lock must be disengaged prior to engine start.

ForeFlight control check must be done prior to take off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is autoignition preferred over continuous ignition?

A

This avoids inadvertence selection of fuel off when terminating continuous ignition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Engine fire detection indications test - 8 items

A
Loop A
Loop B
CAS - Engine Loop
CAS - Engine Fire
2 - master warning
Fuel Switch
Fire Handle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Difference between fire detection and APU

A

Engine fire detection - 2 loop, must agree (intui?)

APU - Helium filled tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which DU can be inop for dispatch?

A

DU#5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does EDS, ASCB, EICAS, and EFIS mean and what do they cover?

A

EDS - electronic display system - the entire avionics system

ASCB - avionics standard communication bus - ?

EICAS - electronic information crew alerting system - PFD# 3&4

EFIS - electronic flight information system - PFD# 1&2, 5&6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do throttles provide input to engines?

A

Fly by wire system. Electronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the auto throttle switches function on the throttles?

A

Auto throttle disconnect on front - for only disconnect. Must be used if A/T failure indicated on PFD.

Auto throttle engage/ disengage button on back - normal operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the standby instruments and their functions?

A
  1. Attitude indicator - can select ILS or back course
  2. Combination airspeed and altimeter
  3. DG - can select VOR or NDB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many of each - FWC, MACD, DAU, IRU, IAC’s

A
  1. FWC - 2
  2. MACD - 3
  3. DAU - 2
  4. IRU - 3
  5. IAC - 2
16
Q

Which IRU’s supply which position?

A

IRU #1 - pilot

IRU #2 - alternate

IRU #3 - copilot

17
Q

Minimum EPR for A/T engagement?

A

EPR = 1.05

18
Q

Laser track provides ?

A

Lateral Nav only.

Must enter waypoints by Lat/Long

19
Q

What happens when G/A is pressed?

A
  1. A/T to G/A EPR
  2. FD director mode cancel
  3. Pitch to 12* (stays active until another vert mode selected)
  4. Wings level
  5. FMS sequences to missed approach

Note:

20
Q

What indicates mode is armed or active on PFD?

A

White - armed but not active

Green - active

21
Q

How much throttle pressure required to deactivate A/T’s

A

30 lbs of pressure.

22
Q

What are the A/T disengage methods?

A
  1. Engage/Disengage Sw
  2. A/T disconnect
  3. Manual moving throttles - 30lbs
  4. Either Engine in ALT control
  5. Single engine
  6. Loss of EPR signal
  7. Selecting cross-side A/T computer.
23
Q

What must you do on the ground for A/T to be available?

A

Airspeed less than 50 knots
Valid V2 speed
Valid EPR target
Isolation valve closed (APU)

24
Q

Field length required is the longest of ……

A

Accelerate stop / accelerate go distance.