Aircraft General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the length height and wingspan of the GV

A

Length - 96’5”

Height – 25’11”

Wingspans – 93’6”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the maximum weights associated with the GV

ZERO FUEL
RAMP
TAKEOFF
LANDING

A

Max zero fuel – 54,500 pounds

Max ramp – 90,900 pounds

Max take off – 90,500 pounds

Max Landing – 75,300 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the minimum taxi strip with for a 180° turn based on maximum nosewheel deflection of 80°

A

62 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Runway slope limitations

A

+2% uphill and -2% down hill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS

When may autothrottle’s be used?

A

From takeoff to landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Turbulent air penetration speed

A

270 above 10,000’

240 below 10,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
GENERAL LIMITATIONS
Maximum tailwind for start
Max crosswind for start
Max airport altitude
Max number of pax
Max number of persons
A
Maximum tailwind for start - 20 kcas
Max crosswind for start - 30 kcas
Max airport altitude - 15,000'
Max number of pax - 19
Max number of persons - 22
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Max landing gear altitude and speed for extension and retraction VLe

A

20,000’ and 225 kcas (.7mt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FUEL LIMITATIONS

Fuel synoptic page

A

Synoptic page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Usable fuel capacity

A

41,300 lbs (6118 gals).

20,650 per wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Minimum inflight fuel tank temp with less than 5,000 lbs of fuel

A

-30 degrees C

Descend to altitude where ambient is -60 C or higher and maintain Mach .8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum ENGINE fuel temp

A

+ 140 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Minimum ENGINE fuel temp

A
  • 40 degrees C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance - flight and ground

A

Flight - 1000 lbs

Ground - 2000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A/C synoptic page

A

A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

D/C synoptic page

A

D/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the specifications of the integrated drive generators?

A

115 vac, 400 Hz, three phase ABC, 40 KVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Main aircraft batteries are rated as….

A

24 vdc, 53 amp/ hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A/C external power is capable of powering what busses?

A

All busses as well as charge the main batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many ground service bus switches and location?

A

3, forward external switch panel, tail compartment electrical panel, system monitor/test panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When will main battery switches on the overhead illuminate?

A
  1. Main batteries are powering the essentials
  2. Starting the APU
  3. AUX Hydrolic pump is operating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many E-batts are there?

A

4, 2-Avionics, 2-lighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cockpit components are powered by the E-batts

A
  1. 2 Clocks
  2. Standby horizon
  3. Standby RMI
  4. Gear handle and indicator lights
  5. # 1 RMFU
  6. Captains audio control panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If armed, when will the E-batts activate?

A

Power on Essential DC buss falls below 20 vdc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hydraulics synoptic page

A

Hydraulics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is lost if you loose the right hydraulic system Pressure?

A

R thrust reverser
Redundant Hydraulics
PTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The PTU is driven by the R hydraulic system pressure and L hydraulic system fluid. If armed, what will cause it to turn on automatically?

A

L hydraulic press falls below 1500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When armed, what conditions will prevent PTU from auto operation?

A

L hydraulic system quantity below 1.5 gals

R hydraulic system fluid temp 104 C or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When armed, what will cause the aux Hyd pump to a activate?

A

When the L Hyd and PTU pressure are < 1500psi and brake pedals are depressed > 10 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Aux hydraulic pump is capable of powering what systems?

A
  1. Rudder
  2. YD1
  3. Main entrance door
  4. Ground spoiler servo
  5. Flaps
  6. NWS
  7. Brakes
  8. LDG GR ( ground only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GV FLIGHT CONTROLS

A

GV FLIGHT CONTROLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An aileron hardcover protection system (HOPS) activation, hydraulic power is removed from what systems?

A

Both aileron actuators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is use of speed brakes prohibited?

A

Flaps 39 down

Gear extended in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Max speed for flaps
10
20
39

A

Max speed for flaps
10 - 250 kcas
20 - 220 kcas
39 - 170 kcas

35
Q

Max altitude for extending flaps 10, 20 degrees

Max altitude for flying with flaps extended 10, 20 degrees

A

25,000’

36
Q

Max altitude for extending flaps 39 degrees

A

20,000’

37
Q

Activation of the Master Aural Warning Inhibit will inhibit all aural tones except…..

A

Red CAS messages
Coupled data invalid messages
CAT II invalid

38
Q

Two types of wind shear warnings…

A

Amber - increasing performance

Red - decreasing performance

39
Q

When is wind shear warning active?

A

Takeoff - ground to 1500’
Landing - 1500’ to 10’
Missed approach - to 1500’

40
Q

Emergency nitrogen bottle blowdown pressure..

A

3100psi @ 70 F

41
Q

Max tire speed..

A

195.5 kcas

42
Q

Anti skid is available from which hydraulic systems?

A

L Hyd system
PTU
Aux Hyd system

43
Q

Max speed with gear extended - VLe

Max to extend or retract - VLo

A

250 kcas

225 kcas

44
Q

Landing gear alternate extension speed …

A

175 kcas

45
Q

ECS Synoptic page

A

ECS Synoptic page

46
Q

What is the normal cabin differential in flight?

A

10.17 psi

47
Q

Maximum permitted cabin pressure for takeoff and landing

A

0.3 psi

48
Q

Temperature range in manual mode

A

Manual - 35 - 230 degrees F

49
Q

What are the “CABIN PRESSURE LOW” CAS trip points.

A

Landing field elevation (LFE) < 7500….. 8000’
LFE > 7500 and < 9500……………………. 10,000’
LFE > 9500 …………………………………….14,500’
Manual mode ………………………………….8000’

50
Q

What cabin altitude will cause passenger oxygen masks to deploy?

A

13,000’ +- 500’ cabin altitude

51
Q

How many motors does the outflow valve have?

A

3 motors

2 - A/C

1 - D/C

52
Q

What functions does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve provide

A
  1. Positive differential relief at 10.28 to 10.48 psi
  2. Negative differential pressure relief at - 0.25 psi
  3. Cabin pressurization rate limiting
  4. Ground pressurization timing. PRV is signaled to open fully 1 min after touchdown in Auto or Semi mode.
53
Q

What is the temp range in auto

A

Auto - 60 - 90 degrees F

54
Q

4 ways to open isolation valve…..

A
  1. Start master selected ON
  2. Crank master selected ON
  3. APU bleed air switch selected ON
  4. Isolation valve manually selected ON
55
Q

What conditions set the auto emergency descent mode (EDM)

A

Aircraft altitude - > 40,000’
Autopilot engaged
Red CAS message - “CABIN PRESSURE LOW”

56
Q

What actions will occur with the EDM mode?

A
  1. Speed target on guidance panel to 340 kcas in manual mode
  2. Altitude preselect 15,000’
  3. Autopilot commands a left turn with a 90 degree heading change
  4. Auto throttle to idle
  5. Aircraft descends at Mmo/Vmo to 15,000’
  6. At 15,000’ the speed target changes to 250 kcas
  7. Autothrottle set power for 250 kcas
57
Q

APU is guaranteed to start at or below - ‘

A

39,000’

58
Q

Will the APU shut down automatically if fire detected?

A

Yes - in either ground or flight

59
Q

After APU start, when will the load control valve allow APU bleed air and pack operation

A

After APU has reached operating speed of 99% for at least 60 sec

60
Q

Fuel is supplied to APU from……

A

Left tank. May cross feed from R if needed.

61
Q

The Engine fire handle will shut off what?

A

Fuel
Hydraulics
Electrics

62
Q

What is the engine starter duty cycle.

A

3 cycles, 3 min each with 15 sec between cycles

After 3 attempts, 15 min rest.

63
Q

What is the preferred air start procedure and it limits?

A

The Electronic Engine Controller (EEC) will determine weather to use starter or windmilling.

250 kcas or greater - windmilling

Less than 250 kcas - starter

Altitude limit - 25,000’

64
Q

Engine start limits for crosswind and tailwind

A

Crosswind - 30 kcas / tailwind - 20 kcas

Tailwind of 10 knots may reverse the LP section. Delay fuel control switch until positive rotation indicated.

65
Q

With wing anti- ice operating, the Bleed Air Controler will maintain the leading edge at .

A

130 degrees C

66
Q

Use of Cowl anti-ice is required for taxi and takeoff when SAT is….

A

+10 degrees C or below and visible moisture.

67
Q

In auto, with ice detected, what altitudes will cowl and wing anti-ice operate?

A

Climb - 1500’ to FL 350

Descent - from FL 350 to the ground

68
Q

List the big picture items for the electrical system

A

Three AC power sources plus external AC - 2X IDG, one APU, external AC

Five main AC buses – L & R main/L & R standby/essential

Five TRU’s - L&R main, L&R ess, Aux

2 ships batteries

4 E – batts

1 emergency inverter

1 - HMG

69
Q

What is the general distribution of AC power?

A

Gens - PDB – breakers – equipment

70
Q

How many items are used for electrical control?

A

5 computers

3 GCU’s

2 BPCU’s

71
Q

What are the general functions of the GCU’s ?

A

Control speed frequency volts and protects

72
Q

What is the function of the BPCU?

A

Control switching and protection of system bus’s

73
Q

At engine starts what percentage HP do engine generators come online?

A

57% HP

74
Q

AC/DC reset switch does what?

A

Control alt delete for BCPU.

Must analyze synoptic prior to reset

75
Q

What is the control alt delete for IDG’s

A

Generator reset switch

76
Q

External AC/DC power inputs are located where?

What determines which power has priority?

A

Located left side forward of wing

BCPU provides AC over DC

77
Q

How many TR use and what are they?

A

There are five TRU’s

Left and right main

Left and right essential

Aux TRU

78
Q

What are the TRU priorities?

A

Left before right, essential before main

79
Q

Where are the battery chargers and what provides power to them?

A

Located in the aft compartment and powered by respective main AC bus

Cannot cross charge

80
Q

What are the two modes of operation for battery chargers?

A

Charging and TRU

81
Q

What does the ground service bus provide?

A

Allows for providing external ground services without having to enter cockpit.

82
Q

What are the six items the APU will not shut down for while operating inessential mode?

A
  1. APU hot
  2. Overspeed
  3. Low oil pressure
  4. Hi oil temperature
  5. Surge control valve
  6. Low oil temp
83
Q

When battery chargers are in TRU mode what can they provide AC power for?

A
  1. A/UX pump
  2. APU start
  3. Essential DC bus

Only when no other source of DC available

84
Q

Max airspeed of the GV?

A

.885 Mach flight level 320-440