GST

Question 1

The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tenets:
(TC 3-04.3 PG 11-1)
(DIDEA)

Answer 1

Detect, Identify, Decide, Enagage, and Assess (DIDEA).

Question 2

Desired Target Effect is _____, ______, ______.
(dATM Task 2033)
(DNS)

Answer 2

(Destruction, Neutralization, Suppression).

Question 3

_________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. _________ is achieved by killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment. It requires weapons to strike within lethal range of the target. Hellfire missiles are well suited for destructive fires.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 3

Destruction / Destruction

Question 4

________ requires weapons effects to hit the target and cause damage to it. Unlike suppressive fire, target neutralization cannot be achieved by rounds that ___________________. Neutralizing damage to a target can temporarily remove it from the battle. High explosive (HE) and multipurpose sub-munitions (MPSM) rockets as well as 30-mm high explosive dual purpose (HEDP) are capable of target neutralization.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 4

Neutralization / miss the target.

Question 5

__________ of a target limits the ability of enemy personnel to perform their mission. Suppressive fire is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. It limits enemy movement and observation and increases friendly freedom to maneuver. Any available weapon or munition can be used to suppress the enemy. Lethal suppressive fire reduces enemy combat effectiveness by creating apprehension or surprise and causes enemy vehicle crews to button up and dismounts to seek cover. To be effective, suppressive fire must force a change in enemy behavior. Suppressive fire may be used to either fix the enemy in place or force him to move from a position. Suppressive effects may also be created by smoke or illumination rounds. Suppressive fire can be preplanned and can be used preemptively or reactively as required. All rockets and 30mm are capable of target suppression.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 5

Suppression

Question 6

How many techniques of fire?
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 6

There are five techniques of fire.

Question 7

The five techniques of fire are:
(dATM Task 2033)
(H,R,D,L,D/R)

Answer 7

Hover fire, Running fire, Diving fire, Low altitude bump, and Diving/running fire initial point.

Question 8

_________. Hover fire is delivered when the helicopter is ________________. Hover fire is used when the enemy possesses a significant anti-aircraft threat system composed of radar directed Air Defense Units (ADU) or anytime standoff must be maintained.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 8

Hover fire / below ETL, IGE or OGE.

Question 9

_____________. Running fire is an effective weapons delivery technique to use during terrain flight, especially in regions where cover, concealment, and environmental conditions hamper or limit stationary weapons delivery techniques, or when air defense threats prevent the use of diving fire. Running fire is performed at airspeeds _________ and offers a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 9

Running fire / above ETL.

Question 10

_________. Diving fire is the most accurate type of fire for unguided ordnance. Diving fire offers the advantages of reduced vulnerability to small arms fire, increased armament load, improved accuracy, and better target acquisition and tracking capabilities. The entry altitude, entry airspeed, dive angle, and recovery altitude will depend on the threat, tactical mission profile, ambient weather conditions, aircraft gross weight, and density altitude.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 10

Diving fire.

Question 11

____________. This profile maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot climb (Bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target. From the apex of the climb (Perch) the crew enters a diving profile in order to deliver ordnance in a nose-down angle to achieve smaller beaten zones. In mountainous terrain there may be no need for a Bump as the relative position of the sloping terrain provides the same effect to an aircraft in level flight.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 11

Low-altitude bump.

Question 12

_____________________. To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack the AMC selects an Initial Point (IP). Normally the IP is selected about 8 to 10 kilometers from the target acts as a starting point for the attack run. The initial point should be either a readily identifiable terrain feature or a TSD/C-Scope icon.
(dATM Task 2033)

Answer 12

Diving/running fire initial point.

Question 13

___________. The degree of scatter (or variance of range and azimuth) of these rounds is called dispersion (figure C-1). Dispersion and accuracy determine whether a particular weapon can hit an intended target. Dispersion is caused by the combination of weapons design and ballistic errors.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-1)

Answer 13

Dispersion.

Question 14

____________ is the maximum distance that the round can physically fly.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-4)

Answer 14

Kinematic range

Question 15

_________ is the distance at which a defined target can be hit (though not necessarily defeated).
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-4)

Answer 15

RMAX

Question 16

_________________________________ is the distance at which there is a ______________ probability of both hitting and defeating a target. RMe is generally the most useful weapons range for tactical planning and is dependent upon munition characteristics, desired munition effects and target type.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-5)

Answer 16

Maximum effective range (RMe) / 50-percent

Question 17

The four types of ballistics are:
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-5)
(IEAT)

Answer 17

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal.

Question 18

____________ is the science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-5)

Answer 18

Ballistics

Question 19

Interior Ballistics include:
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-5/6)
(B,L,T,P,P)

Answer 19

Barrel wear, Launcher tube misalignment, Thrust misalignment, Propellant charge, and Projectile weight.

Question 20

___________________________________________________ (interior ballistics) when firing free-flight projectiles.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-5)

Answer 20

Aircrews cannot compensate for these characteristics

Question 21

___________________ influence the motion of the projectile as it moves along its trajectory. The trajectory is the flight path of the projectile as it flies from the muzzle of the weapon to the point of impact. Aerial-fired weapons share the exterior ballistic characteristics associated with ground-fired weapons.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-6)

Answer 21

Exterior ballistics

Question 22

Gravity, Air resistance, Projectile drift and Wind drift are what types of ballistics?
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-6/7)
(G,A,P,W)

Answer 22

Exterior.

Question 23

____________________ increases as range to target increases. __________________ act like a gyroscope and exhibit gyroscopic precession, causing the projectile to move right in a _________________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-7)

Answer 23

Projectile drift / Spinning projectiles / horizontal plane.

Question 24

Aerial Ballistics. Aerial-fired weapons characteristics are derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are _________________, _________________, and __________________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-8)

Answer 24

rotor down-wash error, angular rate error, and turning bank error.

Question 25

_____________________ acts on the projectile as it leaves the barrel or launcher. This down wash causes a change in the projectile’s trajectory. A noticeable change in trajectory usually occurs when the helicopter is operating below effective translational lift.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-9)

Answer 25

Rotor down wash.

Question 26

Although rotor down wash influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it most affects rockets. ________________ is induced by rotor down wash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft _______________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-9)

Answer 26

Maximum error / hovering IGE.

Question 27

________________ occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon’s muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind (figure C-14). Projectile jump begins when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind. The amount of jumps is proportional to the projectile’s initial yaw. ______________________________________________________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-13)

Answer 27

Projectile jump / Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump.

Question 28

Pilots should recognize that compensation for this error is accomplished automatically by the AH-64 ballistics algorithms when…
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 28

TADS is the selected sight. /
FCR is the selected sight.

Question 29

TADS is the selected sight:
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 29

(mission processor employs a TSE.)

Question 30

FCR is the selected sight:
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 30

(function of scan-to-scan correlation.)

Question 31

Does IHADSS have lead-angle compensation as selected sight?
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 31

***NO lead-angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight.

Question 32

Angular rate error is caused by the ____________________________ in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. This error affects unguided weapon systems. When the weapon is fired, movement of the helicopter or rocket pod transfers motion to the rocket. The amount of error depends on range to the target and the rate of motion when weapon is fired.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-9)

Answer 32

motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw)

Question 33

The altitude from which the projectile is fired and range to target determines impact angle and fragmentation pattern. A projectile fired from nap-of-the-earth altitudes at the weapon’s midrange forms an elongated pattern, with the projectile impacting at shallow angles. Aircraft pitch attitude at launch increases as range increases resulting in steeper impact angle. ________________________________________________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-14)

Answer 33

Launch platform altitude also has a significant effect on impact angle.

Question 34

______________ is historically the __________________________________________. Fragmentation travels further than blast, and fragment-generating weapons are more versatile than shaped charges and can be produced in mass quantities at low cost.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-14)

Answer 34

Fragmentation / primary kill mechanism of explosive munitions.

Question 35

An additional type of fragmentation is produced by target structure itself. When a weapon strikes a target, impact or explosive forces release high-speed debris, or spall, that functions similarly to warhead fragments. Spall is most often produced behind armor, such as when the inside surface of an armored vehicle breaks away and releases hi-speed metal fragments that can cause considerable damage. _________ also can be very effective at damaging soft internal components and igniting internal ammunition stores off the jet shot line axis.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-18)

Answer 35

Spall

Question 36

_____________________ are another major source of round-to-round dispersion or aiming point biases. If either or both recoil adapters are incorrectly serviced or dysfunctional altogether, a significant variation can exist in first and subsequent round placements.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-20)

Answer 36

Faulty recoil adapters

Question 37

Angular rate error is effectively negligible for 30-mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. Articulating pylons induce angular rates in the pitch axis up to _____________ per second. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 37

10 degrees

Question 38

________ _________ describes a projectile’s characteristics and effects on a target. Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-13)

Answer 38

Terminal ballistics

Question 39

Rockets are more sensitive to down-wash effects than 30-mm projectiles. ______ ____ _______ yields greater dispersion because the aircraft cannot apply appropriate down-wash compensation. Rockets pitch up in hover whether hover IGE or hover OGE applies because _______ _____ _____ ____ ________ _____ source during motor burn. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-20)

Answer 39

Hover IGE launch /
rockets turn into the relative wind

Question 40

The AH-64 mission processor automatically compensates for _____ ______. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 40

wind drift

Question 41

As air mass characteristics are measured locally, the ______ __________ __________ apply wind sensitivity adjustment to the aiming point as if the munition will fly directly to the target and the measured winds will be constant from the aircraft to target. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-21)

Answer 41

AH-64 ballistics algorithms

Question 42

The TSE is implemented using a seven state Kalman filter to derive the filtered target range and three axis target velocities. Whenever ___________ _________ is in progress and a fresh range update is available from the LRV, the TSE updates target states and co-variances. __________, __________________________________________________________. (TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)

Answer 42

continuous lasing /
Otherwise, the TSE extrapolates target states based on the last valid range measurement.

Question 43

The TSE is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
a. ___________________________________________________.
b. ________________________________________________.
c. __________________________________________________.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-22)

Answer 43

a. Processed range data from the laser range validator.
b. TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.
c. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI.

Question 44

When using the ______________ to lase targets at flat grazing angles and with minimal vertical surface area, it is important to recognize the potential for _________________ as a function of slant range since the laser spot diameter ____________ as a function of range. The LRV usually detects this condition and the flashing _________ alerts the operator to its presence. However, if the beam is allowed to spillover consistently, the selected range receiver mode is “last”, and the background terrain is consistent from a range return perspective, the LRV may never sense the presence of the intended near-field target since it is never detected by the LRF/D.

Answer 44

TADS LRF/D / beam spill-over / increases / asterisk

Question 45

The following techniques will confirm beam spillover:
~ The LRF/D can be _____________ set to “first return” logic to confirm that the same range value is returned in both LRF/D receiver modes (assuming atmospheric conditions permit use of first return logic in a reliable manner).
~ The aim point can be ____________ (slightly) to confirm that the range matches that returned with the sight positioned at the desired aim point.
~ Platform ___________ can be increased to modify the aspect angle and minimize the potential for spill-over.
~ ___________ can be overcome by slightly depressing the aim point to acquire an accurate range solution and accommodate _______________ engagements. Clearly, this is not an option for ______________ engagements.
(TC 3-04.3 Pg C-23)

Answer 45

temporarily / depressed /
altitude / Spillover /
RF missile / SAL missile

Question 46

LST TGT Handover. CPG will announce “_____” to the designating aircraft when the laser spot is acquired by the LST, “______” when the target is identified, and “___________” when lasing is no longer required. If the target is not detected, the CPG will announce “________________.” (dATM task 2043)

Answer 46

spot / tally / cease laser / negative laser

Question 47

______ _____________. Once the AMC is given the mission to support friendly forces in contact, he or she will establish direct communication with the on scene ground commander. Direct communication between the ground commander and the AMC conducting the attack is the central tenant when conducting attacks against enemy forces in close friendly contact. It is crucial in the prevention of fratricide and to ensure destruction of the enemy. (dATM Task 2128)

Answer 47

Attack communications

Question 48

The _____ ______ _________ ____ ____ _____ (_______) is used to initiate attack aviation fires on the enemy. It involves communication between the ground commander and the AWT conducting the attack. The 5-Line brief is a “friendly centric” brief that _____ ____ _______ _ ____. (dATM Task 2128)

Answer 48

Army Attack Aviation Call for Fire (5-Line) /
does not require a JTAC.

Question 49

TPMR Format:
a) Techniques.
Techniques of fire include ________, _______, or ____ ____. Type of threat, terrain, visibility, winds, DA, GWT of the aircraft, and the proximity to friendly troops will be considered when selecting a mode of fire. Another technique could be ________ ____ _____ _ _____ to acquire targets.
b) Patterns.
Patterns include, but are not limited to: ____ _____, _________, ________ ______, _______/_______, _______ _____, _______ _ or _________. Direction of turns and pull-offs must be briefed.
c) Munitions.
Munitions selected must be appropriate for the ______ and provide the most _________ capability. _________ and __________ must be considered when firing near friendly troops. _________ _________ could be another consideration in some areas of operation.
d) Range.
When briefing range, include _________ from target where inbound engagement will initiate and at what ______ the pull-off will be executed to prevent over flying the target and staying outside of the enemy’s __________ ______.

Answer 49

a) running, diving, or hover fire / running fire with a bump
b) race track, butterfly, 45-degree attack, circular/wheel, clover leaf, figure 8 or L-pattern
c) target / standoff / Accuracy / reliability / Collateral damage
d) distance / range / engagement range

Question 50

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. _______/_______, _______/________, ________/________ (dATM Task 2128)

Answer 50

Shooter/cover, Shooter/shooter, Looker/shooter

Question 51

The AMC will select the pattern: ___________ pattern, _________ pattern, ________ ________ pattern, ________/________ Pattern, ___________ pattern, __________ pattern, and __________. (dATM Task 2128)

Answer 51

Racetrack, Butterfly, 45-degree attack, Circular/Wheel, Cloverleaf, Figure-8, and L-pattern.

Question 52

When operating in proximity to friendly forces, the air mission commander or flight lead must have ______ _______________ with the ground commander or observer on the scene to provide direct fire support. After receiving the Army attack aviation CFF from the ground forces, the ________ ____ _________ _______ ____ _________ __ ___ _________ _________ ___ ___ ______ prior to conducting any engagement. (dATM Task 2128)

Answer 52

direct communication / aircrews must positively identify the location of the friendly element and the target

Question 53

RW CAS Employment Considerations:
a) Once approved for a CAS attack, clearance to use _________ _________ (e.g., crew served weapons) upon ingress to and egress from the target area is implied. Fires from off-axis weapons are subject to the restrictions outlined in the CAS attack brief.
b) The primary attack brief for RW CAS is the ______. In certain situations, RW aircraft, including Army RW aircraft conducting attacks using CAS tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP) may have very high situational awareness due to a low operating altitude. In these instances, the RW CAS 5-line brief (table 38) can expedite fires.
c) The RW CAS ______ brief is an observer-centric CAS brief. These TTP are used for bomb-on-target attacks. (J-fire)

Answer 53

a) off-axis weapons
b) 9-line
c) 5-line

Question 54

___ ________ _______, the weapons final attack heading may differ from the aircraft heading at the time of release. The aircrew should inform JTAC when this occurs and ensure weapon final attack headings comply with given restrictions. See JP 3-09.3 for more final attack heading considerations.

Answer 54

For off-axis weapons

Question 55

_____ __ ______ (___). BOT is the technique used to adjust fires on target (figure 12-2). This technique requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target. Crews use BOT with cannon, and rocket engagements. Techniques for applying BOT include __________, ___________ _________, and _____ ______ _______ (LRF) methods. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-8)

Answer 55

Burst on target (BOT) / recognition, milliradian relation, and laser range finder

Question 56

_____________ ___________. The recognition method is also known as “____________ _____________”. Effectiveness of this technique is directly proportional to the experience of aircrew member making corrections. To use this method, aircrew member fires a burst, senses its impact, and estimates amount of correction needed to adjust rounds onto target. Range changes are affected by aiming the weapon left/right and/or up/down in relation to the target. (TC 3-04.3 Pg 12-8)

Answer 56

Recognition method / Kentucky windage