Group D Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following signs of dysphagia is the most common oral-stage observation when assessing a patient with Parkinson’s Disease?

A.Repeated nonpropulsive lingual movements
B.Eating quickly and impulsively
C.Spilling liquids out of mouth because of poor labial seal
D.Holding food in mouth because of poor sensation

A

Option (A) is correct. Lingual festination is very characteristic of patients with PD and does not manifest in many other disorders.

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2
Q

Which of the following techniques is most effective when treating phonation in a patient with spastic dysarthria?

A.Completing head and neck relaxation exercises
B.Engaging in lip-stretching exercises
C.Providing instruction in phonetic placement
D.Working on pitch-range exercises

A

Option (A) is correct. Head and neck relaxation exercises assist in reducing hyperadduction of the vocal folds.

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3
Q

Minimal word pairs are typically used in phonological treatment in order to

A.stabilize phonological patterns in a system
B.build awareness of the phonetic realizations of phonological contrasts
C.probe generalization of taught sound patterns to words that have not been used in instruction
D.facilitate automatic production of words

A

Option (B) is correct. The erroneous sound is contrasted with the correct sound to encourage the contrasting of the sound production and word meaning or homonym.

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4
Q

Patient is a 77-year-old female with a left hemisphere stroke. Sensorimotor clinical examination revealed right lower facial droop, impaired oral sensation, absence of dentition, need for frequent prompts to engage the patient in evaluation procedures, and aphasia. Bedside swallow evaluation with pureed food and nectar-thick liquids revealed food remnants in right lateral sulcus, drooling from the right oral cavity, and intermittent cough that was not present before the swallow evaluation. Prior medical history includes COPDC O P D, diabetes, and congestive heart failure. Patient does not want an instrumental examination.

Based on the data above, which of the following is most likely to lead to a clinically significant dysphagia-related adverse event?
A.Impaired oral sensorimotor function
B.Prior medical history
C.Impaired level of alertness
D.Aphasia
A

Option (C) is correct. It is extremely important that the patient is alert and as upright as possible when addressing swallowing and trying out different foods.

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5
Q

Which of the following instrumental assessment tools provides the most direct dynamic view of velopharyngeal movement during speech?

A.Nasopharyngoscopy
B.Lateral-view x-ray
C.Nasometry measurements
D.Aerodynamics

A

Option (A) is correct. Nasopharyngoscopy is an example of a direct instrumental assessment tool that provides a dynamic (moving) view of the velopharyngeal movements.

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6
Q

A 23-year-old client recently completed an intensive 3-week-long summer program for stuttering and now exhibits stuttering symptoms on fewer than 3 percent of syllables during both in-clinic conversations with the SLP and beyond-clinic conversations with family members. The SLP is concerned that the client might relapse now that intervention has ended and wishes to enact a plan to help the client maintain fluency gains. Which of the following plans is the most likely to result in maintenance of the fluency gains?

A.Recommending that the client participate in an annual intensive review of stuttering management skills
B.Recommending that the client practice fluency management skills during monthly telephone calls with the SLP
C.Ensuring the client understands the need for continued use of stuttering management techniques and referring to a local SLP for ongoing treatment
D.Scheduling the client for reenrollment in the intensive 3-week-long intervention program

A

Option (C) is correct. Continuing to regularly participate in scheduled intervention activities under the direction or supervision of an SLP is essential to maintaining fluency gains. It provides a client with the opportunity to address ongoing fluency challenges or new ones that may arise after completion of the intensive intervention program. This type of continued treatment does not necessarily imply that the client must participate in ongoing weekly or intensive intervention.

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7
Q

Which of the following best distinguishes a dialect from an accent?

A.Differences in language as well as in pronunciation
B.Differences in pronunciation only
C.Differences due to the influence of a second language
D.Differences that are unique to a particular speaker

A

Option (A) is correct. A dialect involves differences in language and pronunciation.

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8
Q

According to empirical research with people who stutter, which TWO of the following are true regarding the age of symptom onset for most cases?

A.It is usually earlier for girls than for boys.
B.It is similar for girls and boys.
C.It most often occurs in the range of 2 to 5 years old.
D.It most often occurs in the range of 6 to 9 years old.

A

Options (A) and (C) are correct. Research findings indicate that the age of onset for stuttering symptoms is somewhat earlier for girls than for boys, and in most cases, symptom onset occurs in the preschool years.

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9
Q

Which of the following should an SLP recommend to best help a patient who has advanced to late stages of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?

A.Group treatment to improve the patient’s conversational intelligibility
B.Individual treatment to improve the patient’s recall of salient vocabulary words
C.Individual treatment to improve the patient’s comprehension during social discourse
D.Assistance from caregivers to improve the patient’s communication skills

A

Option (D) is correct. In the late stages of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type the most appropriate intervention is to engage caregivers as facilitators of clients’ communication of wants and needs. Restorative treatment is not a goal at this stage.

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10
Q

Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly’s speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as “um” (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children’s fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly’s speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation?

A.Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech
B.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP’s active caseload
C.Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectively
D.Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly’s speech fluency until she is five years old

A

Option (B) is correct. Molly’s fluency development was within normal limits at the previous evaluation, and, based on the parents’ report, it also seemed to be within normal limits at age 2. Further, no other concerns about Molly’s communication development were mentioned in the scenario. Thus, it appears that Molly has never stuttered and her communication skills have been and continue to be within normal limits. Therefore, it is unnecessary to reevaluate her speech or enroll her in fluency therapy.

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11
Q

Which of the following assessment descriptions represents an s/z ratio that is indicative of a vocal pathology?

A.1.0
B.1.1
C.1.3
D.1.5

A

Option (D) is correct. An s/zs slash z ratio greater than 1.4 is indicative of possible laryngeal pathology. An s/zs slash z ratio greater than 1 means the client prolonged the /s/forward slash s forward slash phoneme longer than the /z/forward slash z forward slash phoneme. In other words the client was able to produce a longer sound when the vocal folds were not involved, and sound prolongation was less when the vocal folds were involved.

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12
Q

An SLP must assess receptive language and expressive language in a developing language learner. Which of the following standardized assessments is best for each task?

For each row, select all that apply. Some rows may be empty.

Assessment Receptive language Expressive language
Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test—Revised 
1.
2.
Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals—Preschool 
3.
4.
Preschool Language Scales 
5.
6.
A

receptive language-receptive language and expressive language, receptive language and expressive language.

The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test—Revised is used to assess receptive language skills. However, the Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals—Preschool and the Preschool Language Scales can be used to asses both receptive and expressive language skills.

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13
Q

SLPs often have a responsibility to communicate with the parents of children with severe disabilities. According to mourning theory, when are parents normally most receptive to information and advice provided by professionals regarding their child?

A.When the parents are working through their feelings about the child’s disabilities
B.When the parents fully realize the extent of the child’s disabilities and the limitations of treatment and education
C.When the parents have acquired greater confidence in their capacity to care for the child and greater motivation to cope with the child’s disabilities
D.When the parents are making decisions regarding future care and protection of the child

A

Option (C) is correct. According to mourning theory, a grieving person is most receptive to new information about the source of grief after having just entered the recovery stage.

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14
Q

A 5-year-old patient presents to an SLP with severe apraxia of speech. The SLP has been intensively working with the patient for two years, and the patient has not demonstrated any progress in a month. The SLP recommends a speech-generating device for the patient to use at home and at school, but the insurance company denied the request. Which of the following actions best allows the SLP to advocate for the patient to receive a device?

A.Teaching the parent SLP terminology to use when talking to the insurance company
B.Writing a letter to the insurance company to refute the basis for the denial
C.Asking the parent to buy the device without approval and apply for reimbursement
D.Sending a letter to the school’s special education teacher asking the teacher to contact the insurance company on the SLP’s behalf

A

Option (B) is correct. Writing a letter to the insurance company is within the scope of practice for an SLP to ensure coverage for speech-language therapy.

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15
Q

Which of the following best represents an interprofessional treatment model?

A.The SLP designs an intervention plan to be implemented by an SLP assistant.
B.The SLP and general education teacher plan weekly language activities that they deliver jointly to the classroom.
C.The SLP conducts the evaluation and the team designs the treatment program.
D.Two district SLPs design language screening tools for the Response to Intervention (RTIR T I) team.

A

Option (B) is correct. This is the only option that involves two different professions working together on the same area or issue.

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions is singularly caused by a genetic abnormality?

A.Cleft lip and palate
B.Specific language impairment
C.Prader-Willi syndrome
D.Cerebral palsy

A

Option (C) is correct. Prader-Willi syndrome is directly linked to missing genes on chromosome 15.

17
Q

An 82-year-old female patient is admitted to a skilled nursing facility following an acute hospital stay. Her diagnoses include urinary tract infection, frequent falls with subsequent hip fracture, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). No surgery was required for the hip fracture. Before admission to the hospital, she was living independently and able to complete all activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) on her own. She is referred to the facility SLP for cognitive screening because she has difficulty carrying over new information, confusion regarding weight-bearing status, and difficulty processing directions. The SLP administers the Montreal Cognitive Assessment, and the patient scores 17/30. The patient’s main deficits are in the areas of short-term memory, executive functioning, and planning.

After the patient is appropriately treated both medically and therapeutically, cognitive deficits remain and the interdisciplinary team does not recommend that the patient return home independently. The patient’s family is frustrated with this recommendation and seeks input from other sources.

Which of the following treatment procedures is most appropriate for the patient?

A.Engaging in spaced retrieval
B.Naming divergent items
C.Following specific directions
D.Completing word searches

A

Option (A) is correct. The patient’s goal is to return to prior level of function (PLOFP L O F). The patient was able to live independently before her admission, so spaced retrieval techniques will help her to return to her previous level of memory ability or at least teach her compensatory strategies to assist with her memory loss, since she does not yet have a diagnosis of dementia.

18
Q

3-year-old child was seen at the speech-and-language clinic for a speech assessment to address teacher and parent concerns about speech intelligibility. During the initial interview and observation, the SLP noted that the child exhibited inconsistent errors of vowel and consonant production during repetitive speech tasks, inappropriate prosody, and prolongations of speech sounds. The SLP chooses an assessment to determine the presence of childhood apraxia of speech (CASC A S).

Which of the following procedures is most appropriate for this type of assessment?

A.Analyzing place, manner, and voicing of all consonant sounds at the word level
B.Evaluating fluency of speech during structured and unstructured conversational activities
C.Testing stimulability of later-developing speech sounds in multiple phonetic contexts
D.Determining speech production in a variety of syllables-to-sentence combinations

A

Option (D) is correct. A hallmark of childhood apraxia of speech is inconsistent consonant and vowel productions in repeated production of words or syllables. One appropriate way to identify areas of need based on these productions is to look at speech production in a progression of tasks from simple to complex.

19
Q

A speech and language assessment was conducted on a 6-year-old child. Results indicated normal receptive, expressive, and pragmatic language skills. The child used stopping, fronting, deaffrication, and final consonant deletion. The SLP will likely find which of the following to be the most useful in planning for the child’s treatment program?

A.Mean length of utterance
B.Diadochokinetic rate
C.Stimulability information
D.Literacy information

A

Option (C) is correct. Stimulability information is a core feature of a comprehensive assessment for speech sound disorders and shows the level of readiness for therapy.

20
Q

A 59-year-old male patient with laryngeal cancer presents to an SLP before a laryngectomy. The SLP completes the evaluation and takes time to counsel the patient regarding what to expect during and after the procedure.

Which of the following reasons best identifies the importance of a patient meeting with an SLP prior to surgery?
A.Exploring alternatives to surgical intervention
B.Being educated regarding artificial forms of speech
C.Completing therapeutic exercises before the procedure
D.Gaining a better understanding of the prognosis

A

Option (B) is correct. The SLP is equipped with specialized knowledge regarding various forms of voice prosthetics and can assist the patient in choosing which is right for him

21
Q
Clinician: "What do you have there?"
Child: "I had a big bus."
Clinician: "Is that right?"
Child: "Uh, I have a big bus."
Clinician: "Now, is that right?"
Child: "Yeah."
What language-stimulation technique is the clinician using in the above exchange?

A.Self-evaluation
B.Rephrasing
C.Reauditorization
D.Parallel talking

A

Option (A) is correct. The clinician is using prompts to have the child self-evaluate his or her own statements.

22
Q

Which of the following activities is a principal component of the Lidcombe Program for childhood stuttering?

A.Teaching caregivers to provide feedback to their child about the child’s fluent and stuttered speech
B.Teaching caregivers to support their child’s communication attempts but to avoid acknowledging the child’s fluency performance
C.Teaching children to describe their emotional state to their caregiver when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word
D.Teaching children to present nonverbal cues to their caregivers when stuttering is anticipated on an upcoming word

A

Option (A) is correct. The Lidcombe Program is considered a direct therapy approach in which primary caregivers explicitly provide feedback on the child’s level of fluency. All other options are part of indirect therapy approaches.

23
Q

Which of the following phonological processes is a child expected to suppress by 3 years of age?

A.Displaying stopping patterns
B.Using vocalization substitutions
C.Exhibiting weak syllable deletions
D.Having consonant cluster reductions

A

Option (C) is correct. Weak syllable deletion disappears before age 3 in normally developing children.

24
Q

According to ASHA and the Joint Committee on Infant Hearing (JCIHJ C I H) recommendations of 2007, for babies who fail the newborn hearing screening, the follow-up diagnostic audiologic evaluation should be completed no later than

A.3 months of age
B.6 months of age
C.9 months of age
D.12 months of age

A

Option (A) is correct. The JCIHJ C I H (2007) recommends a time line that includes a hearing screening to be completed no later than 1 month of age. For those newborns who fail the newborn hearing screening, the diagnostic audiologic evaluation should be completed as soon as possible, but no later than when the child is 3 months of age.

25
Q

During an examination of the oral peripheral mechanism of an adult who has had a right hemisphere stroke in the territory of the middle cerebral artery, testing for lingual motor function reveals protrusion of the tongue to the left of midline.

Which of the following is true?

A.The patient has a lesion affecting the left hypoglossal nucleus.
B.The patient exhibits unilateral left lingual weakness.
C.Left vocal fold paralysis should be expected because of the site of the lesion.
D.The right hypoglossal nerve is damaged.

A

Option (B) is correct. The right side of the tongue is stronger and forces (or pushes) the tongue to the left. The imbalance in strength causes the tongue to deviate from midline to the left upon protrusion, hence left lingual weakness.

26
Q

Which of the following is an example of deaffrication?

A.”Chew” is pronounced /ʃu/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash.
B.”Round” is pronounced /waʋnd/forward slash, esh, u. forward slash.
C.”Dog” is pronounced /dɔd/forward slash d open o d forward slash.
D.”Van” is pronounced /fæn/forward slash f ash n forward slash.

A

Option (A) is correct. The affricate “chC H” is made into a fricative “shS H”; thus it is deaffricated.

27
Q

Over the past six weeks, the general education teacher implemented evidence-based classroom and teaching modifications for a student struggling in a language arts class. Careful observation has not shown an increase in the student’s performance. The teacher informs the student’s parents of plans to refer the student to the speech-language pathologist at school. The teacher then makes an official referral to the local educational agency. Which of the following choices is the maximum time allowed by IDEAI D E A from the official referral for eligibility determination to completion of the evaluation?

A.14 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.120 days

A

Option (C) is correct. The official referral begins the formal process of determining eligibility for special education services. Once a referral is provided, the school must obtain consent from the parent(s) or legal guardian(s) to begin the evaluation phase of the referral process. IDEAI D E A requires that students referred for special education services receive an evaluation within 60 days of the referral date.

28
Q

Characteristics of stuttering

A
  1. excessive frequency of part- and whole-word repetitions
  2. active attempts to avoid or conceal communication difficulties,
  3. use of word avoidance and circumlocution in response to anticipated disfluency.
29
Q

Which of the following is the most common phonological problem evidenced by young children aged 18-29 months?

A.Cluster reduction
B.Velar fronting
C.Nasal assimilation
D.Dimunitization

A

Option (A) is correct. A summary of various studies has shown this to be the most prevalent pattern along with liquid gliding.

30
Q

Which of the following is used to improve the performance of struggling students who receive scientifically based instruction in a general education classroom?

A.Discrepancy formula model
B.Early intervention
C.Multitier intervention model
D.Response to Intervention

A

Option (D) is correct. Response to Intervention is an approach used to identify and support students with learning and behavior needs. Students are given interventions at tiered levels of difficulty to assess whether further or different interventions are needed.

31
Q

Characteristics of cluttering,

A
  1. excessive frequency of revisions
  2. reduced intelligibility in conjunction with rapid rate
  3. misarticulation of multisyllable words
  4. limited concern and awareness of communication difficulties.