Group B

Question 1

Which of the following strategies can the SLP use to most effectively engage the patient in monitoring his progress?

A.Recording their sessions for the patient to listen to later
B.Reinforcing that the aphonia is not the patient’s fault
C.Helping the patient recognize his control over his vocal quality
D.Asking the patient to keep a journal of why he feels he cannot use his voice

Answer 1

Option (C) is correct. Once the patient understands that he is in control and can use his voice, he will be more likely to use his voice consistently.

Question 2

Which of the following approaches is the SLP’s most appropriate response to the resident psychiatrist’s recommendation?

A.Discharging the order for the new evaluation because therapy has already started
B.Working collaboratively to further address the patient’s aphonia
C.Sending treatment recommendations to the psychiatrist
D.Telling the patient that further speech therapy is inappropriate because of his psychological diagnosis

Answer 2

Option (B) is correct. Involving the professional who is treating the psychological piece of the disorder will hopefully lead to success for the patient.

Question 3

Which of the following is generally considered most effective and appropriate for viewing the vocal folds during phonation?

A.Stroboscopy
B.Endoscopy
C.Fluoroscopy
D.Laryngeal mirror examination

Answer 3

Option (A) is correct. Stroboscopy is generally the most efficient and effective instrumentation for viewing the vocal folds during phonation

Question 4

An SLP administers a language test to all kindergarten children in a particular school and finds that 40 percent fall below the tenth percentile of the normative sample. Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this finding?

A.Forty percent of the kindergarten children in the school have language disorders.
B.The school’s kindergarten population differs from the standardization population in the language skills measured.
C.The SLP administered the test incorrectly.
D.The standardization population is not representative of the nation as a whole.

Answer 4

Option (B) is correct. If disparities exist between examinees and the norm group in terms of skills and experiences, the conclusions based on the examinees’ test performance may be misleading.

Question 5

A fourth-grade student presents to a school SLP with receptive-expressive language disorder. The student has difficulty with asking “wh-“ questions. Specifically, the student tends to ask only “who” and “what” questions. When probed, the student will ask “why” and “when” questions but often uses the terms incorrectly.

When writing the annual Individualized Education Program for the student, which of the following goals is most appropriate and measurable?
A.The student will ask six related “wh-“ questions with 100% accuracy.
B.The student will ask six related “wh-“ questions with minimal cueing in two out of three tries.
C.The student will ask six related “wh-“ questions with no cueing and with 100% accuracy.
D.The student will ask six related “wh-“ questions with no cueing in one out of three tries.

Answer 5

Option (B) is correct. The goal is specific, measurable, realistic, and time limited and addresses the student’s specific needs.

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of a reversible passive?

A.The balloon was broken by the pin.
B.The kite was flown by Ben Franklin.
C.Jared was bullied by Michael.
D.The girl put her doll by her friend

Answer 6

Option (C) is correct. In reversible passive constructions, participants can fit into either role.

Question 7

Which of the following benchmarks best aligns with current research on typical communication development for 3-year-old children?

A.Understanding approximately 1,000 words
B.Using irregular third-person-singular verb forms
C.Having a mean length of utterance (MLUM L U) in morphemes of six
D.Producing approximately ten consonant phonemes accurately

Answer 7

Option (A) is correct. Receptive vocabulary is reported at approximately 1,000 words for 3-year-old children.

Question 8

The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) guarantees parents access to their child’s educational records. However, this mandate does not apply to the daily records kept by an SLP working in a school setting if these records

A.are not used for treatment-related reimbursement from state or local government
B.remain within the school district in which the SLP works
C.are kept in the sole possession of the SLP
D.are not distributed to anyone outside of the child’s school

Answer 8

Option (C) is correct. FERPA states that daily notes can be kept in the sole possession of an SLP as long as the purpose is to serve as a “memory jogger” for the creator of the record.

Question 9

Which of the following will most effectively decrease the fundamental frequency?

A.Increasing the mass of the vocal folds
B.Increasing the subglottal pressure
C.Raising the position of the larynx within the neck
D.Lengthening the vocal folds

Answer 9

Option (A) is correct. Frequency is inversely proportional to mass. As the mass of the vocal folds increases, fundamental frequency decreases.

Question 10

Which of the following speech-sampling contexts best assesses hyponasality?

A.Producing sentences with oral sonorants
B.Counting in numerical order from 60 to 70
C.Saying single words with nasal consonants
D.Repeating words with oral-pressure consonants

Answer 10

Option (C) is correct. Hyponasality (too little nasal resonance) is most easily detected during the production of nasal consonants.

Question 11

An SLP designs a series of treatment activities for Jake, a 4 year old who presents with severely delayed phonological development. During one of the activities, the SLP asks Jake to say various word pairs in which two phonologically dissimilar target sounds are contrasted (for example, “chip” and “rip”). Which of the following choices best describes the treatment approach that is being used?

A.Multiple-oppositions approach
B.Minimal-pairs approach
C.Maximal-oppositions approach
D.Metaphonological approach

Answer 11

Option (C) is correct. The maximal-oppositions approach contrasts two errored sounds differing across place, manner, and voicing to gain the greatest amount of generalization.

Question 12

A clinician is starting treatment with a new client with specific language impairment (SLIS L I). Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information for the SLP to use in developing the treatment plan?

A.Advice from a senior colleague in the speech clinic
B.An all-day seminar presented by a leading clinician in the area of SLIS L I
C.A peer-reviewed article describing a large-scale study comparing several methods of treatment for SLIS L I
D.A conference presentation of unpublished cutting-edge research comparing several methods of treatment for SLI

Answer 12

Option (C) is correct. When an SLP is looking for information to develop a lesson plan for a client with SLIS L I, the best source of information is a peer-reviewed article that focuses on a large-scale study and compares several treatment methods.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about dysphagia screening and assessment/evaluation is true?

A.Screening identifies the likelihood of dysphagia and the need for further assessment.
B.Screening identifies the nature and severity of dysphagia and enables treatment planning.
C.Assessment/evaluation is a pass-fail procedure that determines whether or not a patient is aspirating.
D.Assessment/evaluation can be performed by non-SLP observers.

Answer 13

Option (A) is correct. Screening is a method that allows for the identification of dysphagia and determines the need to assess the condition further.

Question 14

Infants with cleft lip and palate are susceptible to middle ear disease because which of the following muscles is commonly impaired?

A.The superior constrictor muscle
B.The levator veli palatini muscle
C.The palatopharyngeus muscle
D.The tensor veli palatini muscle

Answer 14

Option (D) is correct. The tensor veli palatini muscle when contracted opens the auditory tube, equalizing middle ear pressure. When the tensor is not functioning properly, the auditory tube is not opened, pressure is not equalized, and fluid may accumulate in the middle ear. The tensor veli palatini travels around the hamulus of the sphenoid bone, where it has a fanlike appearance, and becomes the palatine aponeurosis, extending from the hard palate to the free border of the soft palate.

Question 15

Two months after undergoing surgery to improve velopharyngeal function, a client continues to exhibit nasal airflow only on the production of /s/ and /sh/forward slash s forward slash and forward slash s h forward slash, and also exhibits glottal stops for several pressure consonants. The most appropriate next action for the SLP to take is to

A.request consideration of prosthetic management
B.request a nasoendoscopic study
C.inform the surgeon that the client is not making satisfactory progress
D.provide speech treatment to correct compensatory articulation errors

Answer 15

Option (D) is correct. It would be appropriate to provide speech-language services with the objective of reducing and eliminating the speech-production errors evidenced by the patient.

Question 16

Following placement of a tracheostomy tube, a patient recovering from cardiothoracic surgery is successfully weaned from mechanical ventilation. A day later the SLP receives a consult to assess patient candidacy for using a one-way tracheostomy valve. Which of the following observations is the most important contraindication for safe and successful patient tolerance of the one-way valve?

A.Oxygen saturation below 95%
B.Ability of patient to pass air to the oral cavity while exhaling with the tube cannula occluded by the SLP
C.Patient ability to expectorate lung secretions without suctioning
D.Patient tolerance of the deflated cuff

Answer 16

Option (B) is correct. Inability to pass air to the oral cavity with expiratory occlusion represents an upper-airway obstruction, which is a contraindication for use of a one-way tracheostomy valve.

Question 17

Dysarthria in a patient with lower motor neuron damage generally manifests as

A.spastic dysarthria
B.flaccid dysarthria
C.ataxic dysarthria
D.hyperkinetic dysarthria

Answer 17

Option (B) is correct. Flaccid dysarthria is the only choice that correlates to lower motor neuron damage.

Question 18

Which of the following is an example of a modeled trial?

A.”This is the opposite of a cat. What is this?”
B.”What animal is this a picture of?”
C.”This is a dog. Can you say the word ‘dog’?”
D.”This is a picture of a /da…/.forward slash d a ellipses forward slash”

Answer 18

Option (C) is correct. A modeled trial consists of the client’s being told the correct answer (This is a dog) and then the client’s being asked to imitate the answer.

Question 19

Place the names of the following theorists with their associated concepts.

Piaget
Skinner
Vygotsky
Chomsky

Discriminative stimulus
Zone of proximal development
Language generativity
Object permanence

Answer 19

Discriminative stimulus is associated with Skinner.

Zone of proximal development is associated with Vygotsky.

Language generativity is associated with Chomsky.

Object permanence is associated with Piaget. Any other pairings would be incorrect.

Question 20

A 62-year-old male presents to an outpatient SLP following an extended stay at a rehabilitation facility. He had a left-hemisphere stroke three months ago and currently has moderate Broca’s aphasia and severe apraxia of speech. It is difficult for him to participate in conversation because of the combination of his word-finding deficits and apraxia of speech. The patient’s normal speech pattern consists of one- to two-word phrases, at times including paraphasias. He is able to write but often misspells words. During evaluation, the SLP finds the patient is able to initiate communication, recognize and categorize picture symbols, and comprehend familiar words and phrases. In general, his communication is fragmented and inefficient, but he will try anything to get his message across. Which of the following AAC treatment strategies would be most appropriate for the patient to start with?

A.Accessing stored messages in a speech-generating device
B.Learning sign language
C.Answering multiple-choice questions and writing answers
D.Using a 20-item picture board to convey essential wants and needs

Answer 20

Option (A) is correct. Accessing stored messages with a device can ease the burden of communication and assist the patient in answering simple questions.

Question 21

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for an SLP to try in an effort to minimize the perception of mild nasal emission in a patient?

A.Increasing fundamental frequency
B.Using light articulatory contacts
C.Reducing mouth opening
D.Increasing rate of speech

Answer 21

Option (B) is correct. Using light articulatory contacts can help decrease perception of nasal emissions.

Option (B) is correct. Using light articulatory contacts can help decrease perception of nasal emissions.

Question 22

o compensate for the effects of normal aging on cognitive functions, older adults will naturally demonstrate

A.greater amounts of bilateral activation of prefrontal brain regions
B.significant reduction in the activation of the hippocampus
C.increased activation in areas of the cortex responsible for visual-spatial processing
D.an increase in semantic abilities that do not rely on long-term memory abilities

Answer 22

Option (A) is correct. Alterations in the prefrontal areas in particular are some of the changes seen in normal aging, in part to compensate for reduced frontal activation.

Question 23

A 90-year-old female patient residing in a long-term care facility is referred to the facility SLP for a swallow evaluation. The patient has advanced dementia, is under hospice care, and is currently on a pureed diet with nectar-thick liquids. During the evaluation, the SLP finds that the patient is showing signs and symptoms of aspiration on all consistencies, including pudding-thick liquids. The patient’s cognitive condition makes an instrumental exam inappropriate. The SLP’s recommendation is nothing by mouth (NPON P O) except for pleasure. The family and patient have decided against feeding-tube placement.

Which of the following is a primary ethical responsibility of the SLP in this situation?
A.Asking the family what diet level they would like the patient to consume
B.Making a recommendation based on clinical judgment
C.Deferring to a doctor or nurse to help with the decision
D.Refusing to write diet orders for the patient because of the NPON P O recommendatio

Answer 23

Option (B) is correct. In this situation the role of the SLP is to keep the patient as safe as possible. Because the family does not want to pursue a feeding tube, the SLP has to choose the diet that is most appropriate for the patient.

Question 24

For a patient’s use of consonant cluster reduction, the SLPS L P would most appropriately recommend intervention, including words such as

A.knight
B.laugh
C.stop
D.wish

Answer 24

Option (C) is correct. The /st/forward slash s t forward slash in “stop” is the only cluster occurring in the word choices.

Question 25

sophageal and tracheoesophageal (TEPT E P) techniques for producing alaryngeal voice are similar in that both

A.redirect expiratory airflow from the lungs to the esophagus
B.result in a vocal fundamental frequency similar to that of laryngeal phonation
C.require the speaker to occlude the stoma with either a thumb or a valve
D.depend on adequate vibration of the

Answer 25

Option (D) is correct. Both esophageal speech and tracheoesophageal speech require vibration of the P EP E segment. Esophageal speech uses air from stomach/lower esophagus to upper esophagus/pharynx, where it vibrates the wall. TEPT E P speech requires the patient to cover the stoma to redirect air and initiate vibration. Fundamental frequency is different than that of laryngeal phonation (e.g.for example, variability and prosody).

Question 26

For a patient with potential pharyngeal phase dysphagia and pooling of secretions following open-heart surgery with suspected recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, which of the following instrumental examinations for swallowing provides the most direct view for evaluating the patient based on history and suspected difficulties?

A.Upper gastrointestinal (GIG I) series
B.Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEESF E E S)
C.Videofluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSS)
D.Videostroboscopic examination of vocal folds

Answer 26

Option (B) is correct. Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage during open-heart surgery would only involve the left vocal fold. This swallowing instrumental examination allows for both assessment for pharyngeal phase dysphagia, by presenting foods and liquids during the assessment procedure, and a direct view of the functioning of both vocal folds, as well as determining the pooling of secretions.

Question 27

Question:

Which THREE of the following are included in a pragmatic language assessment during conversation?

A.New topic initiation
B.Speech intelligibility
C.Discourse cohesion
D.Repair strategies
E.Type-token ratio

Answer 27

Options (A),(C) and (D) are correct. Initiating new topics is an important piece when conversing with another person. A pragmatic assessment would analyze this area of conversation. Discourse cohesion shows a child’s understanding of not interrupting and responding when appropriate. Using repair strategies will provide the assessor with data related to the child’s ability to respond based on what the conversational partner said.

Question 28

As part of a study, the speech of several subjects with Wilson’s disease is evaluated using an acoustic analysis system. The same subjects are assessed again, but with a different system from another manufacturer. Which of the following can be assessed by comparing the two data sets?

A.Content validity
B.Concurrent validity
C.Test-retest reliability
D.Interjudge reliability

Answer 28

Option (B) is correct. Concurrent validity refers to the extent to which the results of a particular test, or measurement, correspond to those of a previously established measurement for the same construct.

Question 29

In Bloom and Lahey’s model, morphology is considered

A.form
B.content
C.use
D.semantics

Answer 29

Option (A) is correct. The Bloom and Lahey model classifies morphology as form.