Ground School Qs Flashcards
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
An increase in ambient temperature.
Hot air = thin air = what planes experience at higher elevation. On a hot day, the air becomes “thinner” or lighter and its density is equivalent to a higher altitude in the standard atmosphere, thus the term “high-density altitude”.
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
High temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
It reduces climb performance.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It decreases performance.
High = worse performance. An increase in Air temp or humidity or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly Decrease both POWER output and PROP efficiency.
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
The prop produces thrust in proportion to the mass of air being accelerated through the rotating blades. If the air is less dense, propeller efficiency is decreased.
At what angle do lines of longitude cross the equator?
Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
Meridians of longitude encircle the earth from pole to pole and all meridians cross the eqquator at right angles.
When converting from True Course to Magnetic Heading, a pilot should do what with Variation and Wind Correction Angles?
Add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
When converting a TC to a TH, subtract a left wind correction angle or add a right wind correction angle. When converting from a true heading to a a magnetic heading, add westerly variation or subtract easterly variation.
What is the minimum pilot certification required for operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
It is generally true that no person may operate a civil aircraft within Class B airspace unless the pilot in command holds at least a PPL or a student pilot has the proper logbook endoresements. However, there are some Class B airports which never permit students, even if they have the proper endorsements.
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC, a transponder with applicable altitude reporting equipment, and an encoding altimeter.
A Blue Segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D.
A blue segmented circle depicts Class D Airspace, which means a control tower is in operation.
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
when the associated control tower is in operation.
Class D airspace means a control tower is in operation. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace.
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
The dimensions of class D airspace are AS NEEDED for each individual circumstance. The airspace may include extensions as necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths.
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
Class D airspace means a control tower is in operation. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace (if the weather observer is present or the weather system is automated) or Class G airspace (at the airports where the tower controllers are also the weather observers).
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
Primary airport’s Control Tower.
Radio communications must be established and maintained with the primary control tower even when operating to and from a non-tower airport located within the lateral limits of Class D airspace. On takeoff, from a satellite airport, communications must be established as soon as practicable after takeoff
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Class C.
Two way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the lass C airspace prior to entry and thereafter as instructed by ATC.
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
Radio contact is required to operate in Class C airspace, but permission is not required.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
4,000 Feet AGL
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered on the primary Class C airspace airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 NM. The shelf area usually extends from the surface of the Class C airspace up to 4000 ft above the airport.
The airspace area between the 5 and 10nm rings usually begins at 1200 AGL and also extends to 4000 ft AGL.
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally
20 NM
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
An aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability
Aircraft operating in Class C airspace must have a Mode C transponder.
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
For aircraft departing a satellite airport, two way radio communication must be established as soon as practicable and thereafter maintained with ATX while within the area.
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:
1,000 feet and 3 miles of visibility.
No person may operate an aircraft under VFR within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet. The flight visbility and cloud clearance for VFR operations in Class D airspace is 3SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal from all clouds.
Unless otherwise authorized, where are two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoff
At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
No person may operate an aircraft to, from, or on airport having a control tower operated by the US unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircfraft and the control tower.
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from (what altitude?)
1,200 feet above surface up to an including 17,999 feet MSL
Federal airways are part of the Class B, C, D, or E airspace. They are eight miles wide, four miles either side of the centerline. They usually begin at 1200 AGL and continue up to buy not including 18000 MSL, or FL180.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1,200 ft AGL but does not include (what altitude?)
18,000 MSL
Class E extends upward to but not including 18000 MSL.
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
With the controlling agency’s authorization.
RESTRICTED areas can be penetrated but only with the permission of the controlling agency. No person may operate an aircraft within a restrictred area contrary to the restrictions imposed unless they have the permission of the using or controlling agency as appropriate.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Authorization must be received prior to entering any restricted areas.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution when flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. No clearance is necessary to enter a MOA.
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an Alert Area rests with
All Pilots.
All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with FAA regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:
2,000 feet AGL.
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2000 AGL above National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, Lakeshores, Rec areas and scenic riverways administered by National Park Service, US Fish and Wildlife Service and US Forest Service.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
Class A.
No person may operate an aircraft within Class A airspace unless that aircraft is operated under IFR at a specific flight level assigned by ATC.
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
During Climbs and Descents in flight conditions which permit Visual detection of other air traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them.
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an Omnireceiver Check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the OBS and the TO/FROM indicator should read:
0 degrees (aka 360 degrees) FROM, and 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilots position from the VOT.
If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight (what happens?)
The pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
The GPS reciever verifies the integruity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least 1 satellite, in addition to those required for navigation (4), must be in view for the reciever to perfomr. Thus RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view.
How many Global Position System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (Latitude, longitude, and altitude) and Time solution?
4 satellites.
The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a 3D position
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
“Four thousand five hundred”
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is:
“One Zero Thousand, Five hundred”
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection
Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.
As a standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of:
10 miles.
Pilots should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing.
The absence of sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates:
The Ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and the visibility is 5 miles or more.
The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility on ATIS indicates a ceiling of 5,000 feet or above and visibility of 5 miles or more.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continous broadcast of recorded information concerning:
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information
What is the UNICOM frequency normally assigned to helicopters / heliports?
123.05 and 123.075 MHz
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so.
A pilot who has just landed should not change from tower to ground frequency until advised to do so by the controller.
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed to taxi to:
To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
When ATC clears an aircraft to taxi to an assigned takeoff runway, the absence of holding instructions does not authorize the aircraft to “cross”. A clearance must be obtained prior to crossing any runway.
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
is cleared to land.
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
Exercise Extreme Caution
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot for taxi?
Flashing green
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be:
steady red.
Steady red in flight means the pilot should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Flashing white light signal from the control tower to a Taxiing aircraft is an indication to
return to the starting point on the airport.
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
Do not land.
If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
When a transmitter, receiver, or both have become inoperative, an aircraft should observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower. when landing at a controlled airport.
Why should you file a vfr flight plan with the FAA?
To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency.
Filing a flight plan is not required by regulations; however, it is a good practice, since the information contained in the flight plan can be used in search and rescue in the event of an emergency.
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircrafts’s (what kind of course?)
Ground Track.
Azimuth information given by ATC is based on the ground track (actual flight path) of an aircraft as it is observed. The pilot must apply a correction to the reported azimuth using a drift-correction angle in order to maintain the track.
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides:
Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
Provides this for all IFR aircraft.
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:
Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) to VFR aircraft. Radar facilities are not responsib=le for weather information and the service is not mandatory.
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Ground control, initial contact.
Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight.
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of Class B primary airport), and Class C.
4096-code = Mode C transponder.
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in which airspace?
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B Primary airport.
Encoding transponders are required within all Class B airspace and within 30 miles, even if you are below a Class B airspace layer.
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feed MSL unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, Code 1200, regardless of altitude.
When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200) what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?
Mode A
When operating on the VFR code 1200, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility.
If ATC advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to (what) code?
1200
Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC facility, adjust the transponder to reply on Mode 3/A, Code 1200, regardless of altitude.
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 MSL must be equipped with
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
Avoid selecting 7500 (hijack), 7600 (lost communications), 7700 (emergency)
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on (which frequency)?
406 MHz audio tone
When must batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first.
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an ELT required to be replaced?
When 50% of their useful life expires.
ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first.
When may an ELT be tested?
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
An ELT test should be conducted only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and then only for three audible sweeps.
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before and after engine shutdown.
Immediately after hard landings and before parking, check radio frequency 121.5 MHz.
The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle:
Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of:
Attack.
The angle of attack is the acute angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.
The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between
the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind.
How does aviation relate to Bernoulli’s Principle?
Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Bernoulli’s Principle states in part that the pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas*) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. In other words, high-speed flow is associated with low pressure, and low-speed flow with high pressure.
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are?
Lift, Weight, Thrust, and Drag.
These are the four basic aerodynamic forces
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
To control the Yaw.
Yaw is a side to side movement of the nose of the aircraft. Rudders control the Tail’s elevator.
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
Lift equals weight; thrust equals drag.
Lift and thrust are considered positive forces, while weight and drag are considered negative forces and the sum of the opposing forces is zero. That is, lift=weight and thrust = drag.
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
During unaccelerated flight
In a steady state the opposing forces are in equilibrium.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
require less effort to control.
A stable airplane will tend to return to the original condition of flight if disturbed by a force such as turbulent air. This means that a stable airplane is easy to fly.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG (center of gravity) with respect to the center of lift.
CG aft (behind) center will cause pitch-up movement during flight. CG forward will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the plane.
What causes an airplane to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
CG forward will pitch down when power is reduced. This will increase the airspeed and downward force on the elevators. This increased downward force on the elevators will bring the nose up, providing positive stability. The farther forward the CG is, the more stable the plane.
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be?
Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the airplane’s ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail heavy loading also produces very light stick forces, making it easy for the pilot to overstress the airplane.
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be:
Less stable at all speeds.
Loading in a tail-heavy condition can reduce the airplane’s ability to recover from stalls and spins. Tail heavy loading also produces very light stick forces, making it easy for the pilot to overstress the airplane.
Changes in the center of Pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s:
aerodynamic balance and controllability.
The center of pressure of an asymmetrical airfoil moves forward as the angle of attack is increased, and abackward as the angle of attack is decreased. This backward and forward movement of the point at which lift acts, affects the aerodynamic balance and the controllability of the aircraft.
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends on the:
Speed of the airplane.
At slow speeds, the maximum available lifting force of the wing is only slightly greater than the amount necessary to support the weight of the airplane. however, at high speeds, the capacity of the elevator controls or strong gust, may increase the load factor beyond safe limits.
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
Turns.
A change in speed during straight flight will not produce any appreciable change in load, but when a change is made in the airplane’s flight path (turn), an additional load is imposed upon the airplane structure. This is particularly true if a change in direction (turn) is made at high speeds with rapid, forceful control movements.
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift.
As the airplane is banked, lift acts horizontally as well as vertically and the airplane is pulled around the turn.
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to:
Stall at a higher airspeed.
Stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor. Thus with a load factor of 4, an aircraft will stall at a speed which is double the normal stall speed.
Which four flight fundamentals are involved in maneuvering an aircraft?
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster:
groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
A downwind (tailwind) landing, using the same airspeed as is used on a normal upwind landing, will result in a higher approach ground speed, ground roll longer.
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because of variations in glide speed:
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot.
A constant gliding speed should be maintained because variations of gliding speed nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and the landing spot.
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
remain the same regardless of altitude.
The same indicated airspeed should be maintained during the landing approach regardless of the elevation or the density altitude at the airport of landing.
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
Stalled.
A slin results when a sufficient degree of rolling or yawing control input is imposed on an airplane when in the stalled condition.
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is(are) stalled?
Both wings are stalled.
One wing is less stalled than the other but both are stalled in a spin.
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
The indicated airspeed at which stall occurs will be determined by weight and load factor, but the stall angle of attack is the same.
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper approaches without increasing airspeed.
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
Flaps increase drag, allowing the pilot to make steeper approaches without increasing airspeed.
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
Due to reduced drag in ground effect, the airplane may seem capable of takeoff well below the recommended speed. It is important that no attempt be made to force the airplane to become airborne with a deficiency of speed. The recommended takeoff speed is necessary to provide adequate initial climb performance.
What is ground effect?
The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at:
Less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
When the wing is at a height equal to 1/4 its span, the reduction in induced drag is 23.5% and when the wing is at a height equal to 1/10 it’s span, the reduction in induced drag is 47.6%.
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of the flare may cause considerable floating.
The reduction of the wing-tip vortices, due to ground effect, alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced angle of attack, and induced drag causing floating.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay ABOVE final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
Outward, upward, and around each wing tip.
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vorticies because this turbulence tends to:
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating turbulence.
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is:
Developing lift.
Vortices are generated from the moment an aircraft leaves the ground, since trail vortices are a byproduct of wing lift.
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:
Heavy, clean, slow.
Clean = no flaps.
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:
sink below the aircraft, generating turbulence.
Tests have shown that vortices from large aircraft sink at a rake of 400-500 feet/minute. They tend to level off at a distance about 900 feet below the path of the generating aircraft.
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a:
Light quartering tailwind.
A tailwind condition can move the vortices of a preceding aircraft forward in the touchdown zone. A light quartering tailwind requires maximum caution. Pilots should be alert to large aircraft upwind from their approach and takeoff flight paths.
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying:
Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
When departing behind a heady aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft:
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
Rotate prior to the large plane’s rotation point. Climb above it. Request permission to deviate upwind of the large aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the aircraft’s wake.
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot:
be at the controls in the cockpit.
Hazards involved in hand starting - need a competent pilot at the controls in the cockpit and that all communications and procedures be agreed upon and rehearsed beforehand.
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
After recommended power setting, check oil pressure to make sure it’s functioning properly.
What is one purpose for using reciprocating engines?
They are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:
Improved engine performance.
The dual ignition system has two magnetos (left and right) to supply the electrical current to two spark plugs for each combustion chamber. This provides both a redundancy of ignition and an improvement of engine performance.
An electrical system failure (battery, alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:
Experience avionics equipment failure.
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine:
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
If the ground wire between a magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the primary current cannot be directed to ground, and the engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch OFF.
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the:
The difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
In a carb system, outside air flows into the carb and through a venturi (narrow throat in carb). When air flows rapidly through venturi, low pressure is created and allows the fuel to flow through the main fuel jet and into the airstream where it mixes with flowing air.
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
Leaning the mixture control prevents this by decreasing the rate of fuel discharge to compensate for the decrease in air density.
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
The Fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
The air density increases in the descent, but the amount of fuel drawn into the carburetor remains the same. To re-establish a balanced fuel/air mixture in a descent, the mixture control must be adjusted toward “RICH”
During the run-up at high elevation, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carb heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
When carb heat is applied, the air/fuel mixture of an engine will be enriched because any given volume of hot air is less dense than cold air of the same volume. This condition would be aggravated at high altitude, where because of decreased air density, the mixture is already richer than at sea level.
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carb ice would most likely be:
Loss of RPM.
On aircraft with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump. used?
In the event that the engine-driven fuel pump fails.
The Aux pump provides added reliability to the fuel system, and it salso used as an aid in engine starting. The electric aux pump is controlled by a switch in the cockpit.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause:
detonation.
Using fuel of a lower rating is harmful under any circumstances because it may cause loss of power, excessive heat, burned spark plugs, burned and sticky valves, high oil consumption, and detonation.
Detonation may occur at high power settings when:
The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
Detonation or knock is a sudden explosion or shock to a small area of the piston top, rather than the normal smooth burn in the combustion chamber.
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when:
The unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
Detonation is a sudden explosion or instantaneous combustion of the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders, producing extreme heat and severe structural stresses on the engine.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:
pre-ignition.
What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft when the recommended octane is not available?
The next higher octane aviation gas.
If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible but not desirable to use the next higher aviation-grade as a substitute.
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good practice because this will
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Filling the tanks will prevent moisture condensation within the tank, since no air space will be left inside.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the:
Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
In order to completely purge all of the liquid water from the fuel system, the fuel strainer drain and the sumps in all of the tanks must be drained.
The presence of Carb Ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch prop can be verified by applying carb heat and noting:
a Decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carb ice?
Temperature between 20 and 50 degrees Ferinehight, and high humidity.
The possibility of carb ice exists even when the ambient air temp is as:
High as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.
Applying carb heat will:
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carb heat is applied?
The mixture becomes richer.
Generally speaking, the use of carb heat tends to:
decrease engine performance.
Carb heat reduces the output of the engine and also increases the operating temperature.
With regard to carb ice, float-type carb systems in comparison to fuel-injected systems are generally considered to be:
more susceptible to icing.
If a pilot suspects that the engine is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:
Lower the nose slightly and increase airspeed.
To prevent detonation, the pilot should use correct grade fuel, properly mix fuel/air, open throttle smoothly, and keep temp of engine within recommended operating limits. Lowering the nose will allow the aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lowers the engine temp.
Excessively high engine temps will:
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
If the engine oil temp and cylinder head temp gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with:
cause Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Excessively high engine temp can result from insufficient cooling caused by too lean a mixture, to low a grade of fuel, low oil, or insufficient airflow over the engine.
Which would mostly likely cause the cylinder head temp and engine oil temp gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on:
The circulation of lubricating oil.
Oil used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine also cools the internal parts of the engine as it circulates.
An abnormally high engine oil temp indication may be caused by
the oil level being too low.
Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine, also helps reduce the engine temp by removing some of the heat from the cylinders. Therefore, if the oil level is too low the transfer of heat to less oil wouldcause the oil temp to rise.
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Enrich the fuel mixture.
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?
the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
On aircraft equipped with a constant-speed prop, the throttle controls the engine power output which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The prop control changes the pitch angle of the propeller and governs the RPM which is indicated on the tachometer.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desireable for takeoff. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb. Also, generally reduced engine noise, lower bibration, and greater fuel efficiency.
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to:
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
The engine power output which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge.
In what flight condition is torque effect in the greatest in a single engine airplane?
Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
Takeoff or stall simulation, for example.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the:
Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
The downward moving blade on the right side of the propeller has a higher angle of attack and greater action and reaction than the upward moving blade on the left. This results in a tendency for the airplane to yaw around the vertical axis to the left.
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack.
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
The Pilot in command.
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
Most POH contain a section devoted to a systematic method of performing a preflight inspection that should be used by the pilot for guidance.
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
Owner or operator.
PIC: Condition for flight.
Owner: Overall airworthiness.
Which instruments will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Airspeed.
