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CL-650S > Ground School > Flashcards

Ground School Flashcards

1
Q

Dimensions of the Challenger 650

A

64’ 4” wingspan

68’ 5” nose to tail

21’ tall with elevator UP
23’ tall with hump

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2
Q

When will the B pumps run in AUTO?

A

1B and 2B - Cross-side GEN and Flaps out of 0 deg. (> 4 deg)

3B - Either GEN and Flaps out of 0 deg. (> 4 deg)

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3
Q

How many feet do you need to make a 180 deg. turn?

A

61’

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4
Q

Main BATT needs to be ____v before starting the APU.

A

22V

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5
Q

Main Battery: __v __a

APU Battery: __v __a

A

Main 24v / 17a (nose)

APU 24v / 43a (aft equip. bay)

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6
Q

Do the Battery Chargers operate on AC or DC?

A

AC Power…

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7
Q

Does the a/c need power to PUT OUT a fire?

A

No, SQUIBS will still pierce bottles to discharge Halon without electrical power

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8
Q

Does the a/c need power to DETECT a fire?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Power supply logic of the CL-650

A

On-side
Inside
Cross-side
Outside

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9
Q

What is the difference between WARN and FAIL tests?

A

WARN tests check circuitry and status of system components (will show RED Warnings)

FAIL tests verify the systems ability to discriminated real vs false alarms (will show AMBER Cautions)

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10
Q

Pressing PWR FUEL: (5)

A
  1. APU Fuel pump energizes
  2. FUEL SOV OPENS
  3. Negative G SOV (Left Motive Flow line) OPENS
  4. APU RPM / EGT on EICAS
  5. ECU energizes
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11
Q

Pressing START/STOP: (1)

A

Engages the starter, cutout occurs between 35-45%.

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12
Q

What conditions would cause a GEN to take itself offline? (3)
__________
What kVA are the Engine GENs rated for?

A
  1. GEN and BUS overcurrent (Amps)
  2. over/under voltage (Volts)
  3. over/under frequency (Hz)
    __________
    30 kVA to FL350

25 kVA to FL410

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13
Q

What is 10th stage bleed air used for? (4)

A

AC (PACKs)

Pressurization

Engine Starting

Water Pressure (potable water)

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14
Q

What is 14th stage bleed air used for? (3)

A

Thrust Reversers

Wing Anti-Ice

Cowl Anti-Ice

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15
Q

When using APU bleed air, what is the sequence for 10th stage switchlights?

A

Out
In
In
Out

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16
Q

When using Engine bleed air, what is the sequence for 10th stage switchlights?

A

In
Out
Out
In

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17
Q

What area is Zone A

A

Combustion Chamber, provides detection and protection

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18
Q

What area is Zone B

A

Jet Pipe and Pylon, provides detection only

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19
Q

When AC Panel CABIN / CKPT Knobs are selected to MAN, what happens? (2)

A

Fan and Duct Sensors are REMOVED

Gives wider range of temperature selection

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the ADG?

A

Provide AC power and hydraulics through 3B pump.

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21
Q

What are the EICAS indications of a successful bleed leak test? (9)

A

Master Warning
3 chimes
“Bleed Air Duct”

ANTI ICE DUCT
DUCT TEST OK
R/L 14TH DUCT
R/L 10TH DUCT

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22
Q

How are FLIGHT spoilers operated and controlled?

A

Hydraulically operated

Mechanically controlled

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23
Q

What are the Main and APU BATTs rated to?

A

Main = 17 A/hr / 24V
APU = 43 A/hr / 24V

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24
Q

What are the GENs rated to?

A

30 kVa
115V
400 A/hr

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25
Q

What are the limitations on use of APU Bleed Air in-flight? (Alt and airspeeds)

A

Airspeed: 141-290 knots

Altitude: 15,000’

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26
Q

When must you use CONT IGN? (5)

A

VCTS

TOLD 10 knots+ of crosswind

TOLD with contaminated runway

MOD+ TURB

MOD+ Precipitation

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27
Q

What does the DUCT MON TEST accomplish?

A

TEST - checks 10th and 14th stage elements for continuity

LOOP A/B - checks respective 10th stage LOOPS for short conditions

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28
Q

When will the APU LCV automatically close? (2)

A
  1. Excessive APU EGT
  2. APU LCV interlock protection (prevent manifold pressure from entering the APU by way of switch logic)
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29
Q

When will the 10th Stage Valves automatically close? (2)

A
  1. PACK overpressure
  2. Engine Start ???
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30
Q

When will PACK(s) go into HIGH mode? (2)

A
  1. In flight during single PACK ops
  2. On the ground with the APU
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31
Q

What does the RAM air switch/light do?

A

Opens RAM AIR valve in the event of a dual PACK failure for ventilation.

(250 knots recommended)

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32
Q

An AC cart will run the _____.

A DC cart will ___________.

A

GENs

Start the APU

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33
Q

How will you know if a BATT Charger is OFFLINE? (2)

A
  1. DC schematics page will have “CHGR OFF”
  2. Main AC buses are UN-powered

(when Main AC buses are powered, the MAIN and APU battery chargers are in a charging configuration at all times.)

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34
Q

What happens if you remove power from the a/c with EMER LTS in ARM?

A

The EMER LTS remain ON and will deplete the Battery.

You much re-establish AC power to get the EMER LTS to turn off again.

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35
Q

Which HYD accumulator will hold pressure and allow 6 brake applications after HYD failure?

A

System 3 - INBD Brakes

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36
Q

WSHLD has _____ capabilities

WIND has _____ capabilities

A

WSHLD de-ice.

WIND de-fog.

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37
Q

How many fire bottles does the 650 have?

A

3

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38
Q

What lights do NOT illuminate during the LAMP tests? (4)

A

Cabin Pressurization FAULT light

ATS

ADG light

CDR light

39
Q

With MAN RATE to FULL DEC position, what cabin depress rate will you achieve?

A

about 300 fpm

40
Q

A/I: What do the COWLs sense to illuminate the L and R ON switch/lights?

A

Sufficient Pressure.

41
Q

A/I: What do WINGs sense to illuminate the L/R HEAT LIGHT?

A

Sufficient HEAT.

42
Q

Why does WSHLD Heat have to be HIGH for the test?

A

Full power is needed to be sufficient for the test.

43
Q

On the ground, limit Probe Heat ON to 2 mins or less when TAT is _____

A

15 deg C or greater

44
Q

Green light on CVR test indicates:

A

CVR will record for 10 mins after loss of power

45
Q

Do not use the KA Band: (2)

A

during de-ice

within 100’ of anything

46
Q

How can you set the MFD/PFDs for flight?

A

EICAS can be pushed to PF MFD only. (panel under TUNE INHIBIT switch/lights)

PM select charts on MFD.

47
Q

Ignition system A and B have _____ and ______

A

Exciters and Igniters

48
Q

Limitation regarding RECOG TAXI lights?

A

DO NOT illuminate while a/c is NOT moving

49
Q

Max differential pressure for taxi and TOLD?

A

0.2 psi

9.2 is max dif press

50
Q

Limitation regarding LANDING LIGHTS on the ground?

A

DO NOT illuminate except for TOLD

51
Q

Temp limit range for operations?

A

-40 deg C to ISA +35 deg C

52
Q

What is SUPP GND WING Anti-Ice?

A

Designed to heat WINGs a little bit while on the ground at IDLE thrust.

53
Q

GROUND Spoilers are powered each by a ______________

A

single hydraulic actuator

54
Q

Below 60 knots, max N1 for reverse thrust is ____

A

60%

55
Q

What kind of engines does the 650 have?

A

CF34-3B
Low pressure N1
High pressure N2

AGB houses:
HYD pump
Electric GEN
Fuel pump
Air Turbine StarterE

56
Q

ENG SPEED - ON means what?

A

N1 < 79% = N2 is used for engine sync/speed control

57
Q

Do you need both STALL PROT selected to ON for it to work?

A

Yes

58
Q

What does APR do? (2)

A

Monitors your Takeoff Power setting.

If power loss is sensed APR increases thrust on operative engine

59
Q

What color will an unpowered system be on the HYD synoptic page?

A

Amber

60
Q

How are the FLAPS driven? What if there is a flap fail?

A

By 2 electric motors.

If one fails, the motor(s) work at 1/2 speed.

61
Q

What is the 650s MAX fuel quantity?

A

20,000 lbs

62
Q

Where does ISI get it’s NAV data?

A

VHF NAV 1

63
Q

How many TRUs does the 650 have and what load can they handle?

A

4 x 100 A/hrs

64
Q

What do TRUs do?

A

Convert AC to DC…most things on the a/c run on DC

65
Q

If you lose an engine on Takeoff, what have you lost?

A

nothing

66
Q

If you lose an engine in Cruise, what do you have to do?

A

Turn HYD B pumps ON to get HYD PRESS back. (No flaps 4 / cross-side GEN logic)

67
Q

What is on the DIR/HOT BUS? (3)

A

FIRE BOTTLES
Service LTGS
Fuel Panel
_______________

MAIN BATT DIR BUS
APU BATT DIR BUS
DC EMER BUS

68
Q

How does fuel flow through the systems to the engines?

A

Tail -> Electric Transfer pumps

Aux -> Transfer ejector pumps

Wings -> SCAV ejectors

Collectors -> MAIN ejectors

Electric BOOST PUMPS

Engines & Engine Driven Pumps

69
Q

What engages the GROUND spoiler deploy logic when the switch is in AUTO (usual position)

A

TLs to TO power & Wheel above 16 knots

Then:

TOs to IDLE & WOW sensed.

70
Q

What is the purpose of FMS 3?

A

A backup NAV source.

No perf or tuning

71
Q

Ignition system A is on _____ BUS and Ignition system B is on _____ BUS

A

A is on AC Bus

B is on BATT BUS

72
Q

If you have a huffer cart hooked up to the plane, how will you start the engines? (Which ignition & how much psi)

A

Must use B Ignition and have a min psi of 45

73
Q

Can QRH data be used for performance?

A

No

74
Q

What is Vfto?

A

Final TO segment climb speed

75
Q

What does AC/DC UTILITY switch/light illumination mean?

A

AUTO illumination: both AC UTILITY Buses shed (and maybe DC UTILITY BUSES)

If manually pressed: ALL UTILITY Buses are shed

76
Q

What does a TRU1 Failure shed?

A

DC UTIL BUS 1

77
Q

What does DC POWER MAIN BUS TIE switch/light illumination mean?

A

Must press manually to TIE TRU1 and TRU2 together, meaning DC UTIL 1 and 2 are shed

78
Q

When AUTOXFER [FAIL] illuminates, what does it mean?

When would [FAIL] illuminate?

A

Indicates you only have 1 bus because BUS TIE has failed

FAIL illuminates when Pilot Manually disables the AUTOXFER

79
Q

Why don’t Ground Spoilers deploy during taxi when in AUTO?

A

You have not advanced TLs to MIN Takeoff Setting, which is needed to arm the DEPLOY logic.

80
Q

What is Ground Spoiler deploy logic?

A

L and R TLs at IDLE
-and-
Main Landing Gear WOW
-or-
Wheel Speed > 16

81
Q

After takeoff, what do the PSEUs disable? (2)

A

Anti-skid

Nosewheel Steering

(Air Mode)

82
Q

When does Anti-Skid become operational again after landing?

At what speed does it disarm?

A

35 knot wheel speed
-or-
1 WOW signal present after a 5 second delay

(disarms at 10 knots)

83
Q

If 1 PACK fails, how do you get the other functional PACK to operate in HIGH mode?

A

You must DE-Select the FAILED PACK

84
Q

Operations over 40,000 require:

A

1 PACK or 1 Cowl A/I ON to prevent core-lock

85
Q

How can you disconnect the AP? (6)

A

STAB trim
YD DISC
AP DISC button
APDISC bar
TOGA
Switching the AFCS SEL [1/2]

86
Q

When would you push “PWR TXFR OVERRIDE” on the ADG control panel?

A

To restore power back to another source from the ADG.

87
Q

Pressurization Modes?

A

Ground

Takeoff

Takeoff Abort

88
Q

What does APU LCV interlock protection to?

(What is “interlocked”?)

A

Backs up the check valve and prevents manifold press from entering the APU compressor.

Interlocks APU LCV with the 10th stage bleed air switches.

89
Q

Why is the APU commonly used as a bleed air source for takeoff?

A

Bleed air 10th stage valves must be closed for TOLD if cowl/wing A/I is ON.

APU bleed air is used for pressurization in this instance during takeoff at no performance penalty.

90
Q

After takeoff, when can 10th stage bleed source be switched back to the engines?

A

After obstacle clearance has been achieved, but prior to 15,000’ MSL

91
Q

ADG LAMP/UNIT - UNIT is testing: (3)

A

ADG’s uplock circuity

Contactor that will tie the ADG to the electrical system

Auto-Deploy Logic

92
Q

What does the APR system do?

A

Monitors N1 and if significant loss is sensed on 1 engine, APR increases thrust on the remaining engine.

93
Q

Activation of PROBES will heat several elements based on: (3)

A

Probe switch position

Engine GEN operation

PAX Door Status

94
Q

R/L ENG FIRE PUSH does what?

A
  1. ARMS SQUIB
  2. FUEL SOV Shutoff
  3. HYD SOV Shutoff
  4. 10th/14th BLEED AIR SOV Shutoff
  5. Disables IGN
  6. Takes GEN offline

CL-650S (10 decks)

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