Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flight school > Ground > Flashcards

Ground Flashcards

1
Q

Cloudbase formula
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
Celcius: Temperature-Dewpoint / 2.5 x 1000

Fahrenheit: Temperature-Dewpoint / 4.4 x 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stable Air
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
Stratiform clouds
Continuous rain
Poor visibility
Little to no turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unstable Air
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
Cumulonimbus
Heavy, showery precipitation
Good visibility
Moderate to high turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SIGMET
AC 00-45G

A

AC 00-45G
Severe non-convective weather, produced as needed, valid 4 hours.
Dust, Ash, Ice and TB w/o TS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AIRMETS
AC 00-45G

A

AC 00-45G
AIRman’s METeorological information
Valid 6 hours
3000k square miles effected
3 types:
Sierra: Ceilings less than 1000’ and/or and extensive mountain obscuration
Tango: Moderate turbulence / Winds 30kts or more at the surface
Zulu: Icing / freezing levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Convective SIGMET
AC 00-45G

A

AC 00-45G
As needed- valid 2 hours

Embedded TS
A squall line: 60 m long w/TS at least 40% of length
Tornadoes
TS 40% of a 3000 square mile area
Surface hail and hail greater than 3/4”
Surface winds greater than 50 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TASCaM Valid…
AC 00-45G

A

AC 00-45G
TAF: 24 hours-4xdaily, 0000, 0600…
AIRMET: 6 hours
SIGMET: 4 hours
Convective SIGMET: 2 hours
and
METAR: 1 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FAR title 14, part 91.205 - Required equipment VFR

A

DAY
Air speed indicator
Tachometer
Oil pressure gauge
Manifold pressure gauge
Altimeter
Temperature gauge
Oil temp

Fuel gauge
Landing gear indicator
Anti collision lights
Magnetic compass
ELT
Safety belts

NIGHT
Fuses: one spare set or three of each required.
Landing light
Anti-collision lights
Position lights
Source of electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FAR Title 14, part 91.409+ AV1ATES (required Inspections )

A

Title 14, part 91
INSPECTIONS
Annual - A&P w/inspection Authorization
VOR: 30 days
100: hour-if used for hire
Altimeter: 24 months
Transponder: 24 months
ELT: 12 months
Static system: 24 months

(4) 60hr “progressive” inspections can replace Annual. A&P with Inspection Auth. (91-409)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Transponder codes

A

1200: VFR
7500: Hijack
7600: Coms failure
7700: Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ISA formula

A

International Standard Atmosphere

15-(2xFE/1000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pressure Altitude

A

Pressure altitude is the height above a standard datum plane (SDP) 29.92 Hg
Indicated by altimeter when kolsman window is set to 29.92

PA = (29.92 - altimeter setting) x 1000 + field elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Density Altitude

A

Density Altitude is PA corrected for non-standard temperature
bvb
DA = (OAT-ISA) x 120 + PA

outside air temperature

ISA = 15 - (2xFE/1000)

PA = (29.92- Alt. setting) x 1000 + FE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen in blood

Altitude - Hypoxic
Blood - Hypoxemic - CO, smoking, low red blood cells
Circulation - Stagnant - G’s, cold temp & shock
Drugs - Histotoxic - Alcohol can be 2000’ per drink

Symptoms: Euphoria, headache, dizziness, slow reaction time, Numbness and tingling in fingers and toes, impaired judgement, visual impairment, drowsiness, cyanosis

Occurs: Day: 10,000’ MSL
Night: as low as 5,000’ MSL

Varies by health, smoking, alcohol, etc.

Descend and/or use 02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Center of gravity formula

A

Total moment/Total weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Moment formula

A

Arm x weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CG change formula

A

+/- weight moved/total weight = delta CG/distanced moved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lost procedures

A

Keep Calm!
Climb
Circle
Conserve
Communicate
Confess
Comply

How long, how fast, in what direction
Find NAVAID’s?
Triangulate 2 VOR’s?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Obstacle clearance minimums

A

Manmade - round up to 100’ then +100’
Natural - round up to 100’ then +100 then +200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hazardous attitudes and counters

A

“I’M AIR”
Invulnerability, Macho, Anti-authority, Impulsivity, Resignation
( it can happen to me, I don’t got this, Follow the rules, they are usually right, I need to slow down and think, I can do this )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 P model

A
  1. PERCEIVE - P.A.V.E.
    p. Pilot - IMSAFE - currency/competency, experience

a. Aircraft - AVIATES - performance/ limitations, equipment and suitability

v. enViroment - NWKRAFT - NOTAM’s, Wx, known ATC delays, Runway lengths, Alternates, Fuel req’s, T.O. and landing distances

e. External pressures - influencers

  1. PROCESS - C.A.R.E.

Consequences

Alternatives

Reality

External factors

  1. PERFORM - T.E.A.M.

Transfer

Eliminate

Accept

Mitigate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

C.A.R.E

A

Consequences, Alternatives, Reality, External factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T.E.A.M.
Risk Management

A

Transfer, Eliminate, Accept, Mitigate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

D.E.C.I.D.E.

A

Detect - look for problems

Estimate - what is the impact of the problems

Chose - course of action to counter/correct problems

Identify - solutions to reach objective

Do - Act

Evaluate - effects of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

I.M.S.A.F.E.

A

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Food
Emotional state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Heading adjustment formula?

A

C.h D M.h V T.h w/v T.c

True course
True heading
Magnetic heading
Calculated heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

91.103 Preflight action (need to know to fly…)

A

91.103 Preflight action

NWWKRAFT

N. NOTAMS
W. Weight and balance
W. Weather along route
K. Known ATC delays, closures
R. Runway lengths
A. Alternates
F. Fuel requirements
T. Take off and landing distances

1 800 WX BRIEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Aircraft Registration is valid?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Weather minimum - Class B VFR

A

91.155
3 miles visibility and Clear of clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Weather minimums - Class G (all 3 conditions)

A

91.155
1200’ AGL and below…
Day: 1m and CoC
Night: 1/2m from airport & in pattern: 1m-<3m and CoC… Otherwise 3m-152 below 10k msl
DAY: Above 1200 AGL and below 10k msl 1m-152

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Weather minimums: Class C, D, E

A

91.155
From surface to 10k MSL: 3m-152
Above 10k 5m 1,1,1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Weather minimums: Class E,G (10k-17,999’)

A

91.155
5m-1k’ above-1k’ below-1m horizontally from clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

14, 91.225
When is ADS-B out required?

A

14, 91.225
Class A, B, and C airspace.
Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area upward to 10,000 feet MSL.
Class E airspace within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface.
Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles.
Within 30 nautical miles of those airports identified in 14 CFR part 91, Appendix D. Otherwise known as the Mode C veil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Transponder mode-C requirements

A

In general, the CFRs require aircraft to be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out when operating:

In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas;

Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL;

Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the
airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL;

Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL (commonly referred to as the “Mode C Veil”);

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

91.171 VOR inspections (6 methods)

A

91.171
Every 30 days
VOTest signal (+/- 4 degrees) 180 to, 360 from
Airport designated VOR checkpoint (+/- 4 degrees)
Airborne FAA designated checkpoint (+/- 6 degrees)
VOR radial along a Victor airway OR
Ground reference more than 20nm from VOR (+/- 6 degrees)
Dual system VOR onboard (+/- 4 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Delta and Charlie radio requirements for entry

A

Two way coms w/tail number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Alpha and Bravo radio entry requirements

A

ATC clearance required for entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Class A minimum or required

A

18’000 MSL up to and including FL600
Not charted
ATC-clearance
IFR pilot - always IFR
2 radio communication
Mode C transponder
ADS-B Out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Airspace classes : Class B

A

Entry - ATC clearance
Pilot: PPL or endorsed student
2-way radio
mode-C transponder
VOR - for IFR
ATC SVC - All A/C separation

  • Generally surface ~ 10,000MSL​
  • Resembles an upside down wedding cake​
  • The Busiest airport​s

250 kts max, indicated airspeed within airspace. 200kts max indicated airspeed underlying airspace or within VFR corridors.​
- Student pilots or recreational pilots — The logbook needs to be endorsed by an instructor within the past 90 days. The endorsement must show that the student or recreational pilot has received flight and ground training on how to safely operate in that particular Class B airspace area. (AIM 3-2-3)
- Some airports don’t allow student/recreational/sport pilot to come in Class B airspace

  • Mode C Veil​
    o Airspace within 30 nm of a primary Class B airport​
    o From surface to 10,000’ MSL​
    o Pressure altitude reporting mode C transponder must be equipped to enter this space​
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

-Mode C Veil​

A

o Airspace within 30 nm of a primary Class B airport​
o From surface to 10,000’ MSL​
o Pressure altitude reporting mode C transponder must be equipped to enter this space​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

VFR routes within Class B​

A

VFR Flyway​
VFR Corridor​
VFR Transition Route​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Airspace classes : Class C

A

Entry - 2 way coms including tail number
Pilot - Student
2-way radio
ADS-B Out inside of and above to 10,000 MSL
mode-C transponder
200kts max
ATC AVC - IFR/IFR & VFR separation, VFR traffic advisories (permitting)

Usually extends up to 4,000 AGL with the lower section extending out to 5nm and the upper section out to 10 nm- 1,200 AGL-4,000 AGL
- Resembles a two tier upside down wedding cake
- Procedural outer area 20 nm outer ring. Not regulatory or charted.
- 200 kts max indicated airspeed at or below 2,500 AGL and within 4nm of primary airport
Entrance: ATC read back tail number

+ Requires mode C transponder within and up to 10,000 ft msl within the lateral airspace boundaries. Not required underneath airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Airspace classes : Class D

A

Entry - 2-way coms w/tail number
Pilot - Student
2-way radio
200kts
ATV SVC IFR/IFR separation, VFR traffic advisories

Usually extends up to 2,500 AGL within a 4~5nm radius of the airport center

Fulltime or part-time (E or G)

+ Contact ATC as soon as practical after takeoff from a satellite airport within the airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fogs
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
Fog is a stratus cloud that has formed near the ground (up to 100’ AGL)
Radiation fog: Clear, calm nights. Can form rapidly and be thick and extensive.
Advection fog: Needs winds up to 15kts. Warm moist blows over cooler surface, common in coastal areas.
Upslope fog: Moist stable air up a slope.
Steam fog: Cold dry air over warmer water. Can expect icing and turbulence
Ice fog: Extremely cold temps (below 10c). Calm clear nights, slip hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Structural Icing
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
REQUIRES VISIBLE MOISTURE, FREEZING TEMPERATURES
CLEAR: Formed by the relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. Forms HORNS, the most dangerous
RIME: Rough, milky and opaque. Formed by instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets after strike. Forms COLUMB Rough surface affects aerodynamic integrity
MIXED: A little of both, forms BOTH. Most common
FROST: Frozen dew, serious take off hazard

Spoils lift, increases weight, control issues,

46
Q

INDUCTION ICING
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
CARBARETOR ICING
Carburetor can cool air by 33C, can form in temps as high as 33C if the relative humidity is 50% or more
INTAKE ICE
Can form on the air intake

47
Q

Types of precipitation (?)
AC 00-6B

A

AC 00-6B
RAIN
SLEET
ICE PELLETS: Temperature inversion with freezing rain/snow at higher altitudes

HAIL: Vertical currents that throw water droplets up into freezing
temperatures until too heavy to remain aloft

VIRGA: Rain evaporates before reaching ground, associated with dry microbursts

SLD: Freezing rain. Lack of nuclei in the cloud

SNOW: Water vapor condenses below freezing

48
Q

V-Speeds

A

Vso-35-bottom of white-stall speed landing config
Vs-40-bottom of green arc- stall speed in specified config
Vr-50
Vx-54
Vg-60-best glide flaps down, 65kts flaps up =what is the glide rate?
Vy-67
Vcc-70
Vfe-85-top of white
Va-(93-104)
Vno-111-top of green-structural cruising speed
Vne-149-red line-never exceed

49
Q

1 800 WX BRIEF

A

Adverse conditions
VFR not recommended
Weather synopsis
Current conditions
En-route forecast
Destination forecast
Winds aloft
NOTAMS
ATC delays

50
Q

SCUBA

A

FL8000’ or less: 12hrs without decompression stop
FL8001’+: 24hrs with or w/out decompression stop

50
Q

LIGHT GUN SIGNALS

A

STEADY GREEN - cleared for take off or landing
FLASHING GREEN - cleared for taxi or return for landing
STEADY RED - STOP on ground / Give way and continue circling
FLASHING RED - Taxi clear of runway in use / Airport unsafe, do not land
FLASHING WHITE - Return to starting point on airport
ALTERNATING RED/GREEN - Procced with extreme caution

51
Q

ROTATING BEACONS

A

WHITE/GREEN - Civilian airport
WHITE/WHITE/GREEN - Military
WHITE/YELLOW - Seaport
WHITE/YELLOW/GREEN - Heliport

52
Q

OXYGEN SUPPLEMENTATION REQUIREMENTS
91.211

A

91.211
CABIN PRESSURE ALTITUDES
12.501 - 14,000’ MSL - crew O2 after 30 minutes
14,001’+ MSL - crew must use O2
15,001’+ MSL - each occupant must be provided

53
Q

TELL ME ABOUT THIS C152G

A

Engine: Lycomming 0-235, 108 bhp, N/A, H/O, Air cooled, Carburetor fed, 4 cylinder
Slotted flaps, delay airflow separation.
Frisse type / differential ailerons, counter adverse yaw
Tricycle landing gear
nose gear assy? Shimmy damper
Max T/O weight: 1670lbs, max ramp: 1675
fuel capacity: 26 gallons 100LL, 24.5 usable

54
Q

SPEED LIMITS

A

91.117

Below 10,000’ MSL 250kts

At or below 2,500 AGL within 4nm class C or D airport 200kts

Under class B or through class B corridor 200kts

55
Q

91.213

INOPERATIVE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

CAN YOU FLY WITH OUT IT?

A

91.213 Inoperable. Instruments & equipement

W/O MEL…. does it meet
91.205….. is it on FAA required equipment?
KoOEL(kinds of operating equipment list for the type of flight)? in POH/AFM
VFR day type certificate….
A/D.. updates to requirements to type?
Removed/deactivated and placarded

56
Q

Madras S33

A

16-34 - 5091’

FE: 2500’

CTAF: 122.8

AWOS: 132.42

57
Q

Prineville S39

A

11-29 5405’

15-33 4053’

FE: 3300’

CTAF: 122.7

AWOS: 118.32

58
Q

Redmond KRDM

A

11-29 7006’

5-23 7038’

FE: 3100’

TWR: 124.5

GRD: 121.8

ATIS: 119.02

59
Q

Hyperventilation

A

The excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of carbon dioxide from the blood. Fear from symptoms can lead to faster breathing rate, further aggravating the problem.

Raises the blood’s pH value which initiates constriction of the blood vessels supplying the central nervous system, reducing oxygen transportation.

Symptoms that differ from Hypoxia:

Hot and cold sensations, muscle spasms

60
Q

VOR limitations

A

Line of sight

Reverse sensing

Cone of confusion - above

Zone of ambiguity - abeam

61
Q

Aeronautical Decision Making

A

A systematic approach to determine the best course of action to achieve safe flight

62
Q

P.A.V.E.

A

Pilot - IMSAFE
Aircraft -
enVironment
External pressures

63
Q

S.R.M. 5P

A

Single pilot crew resource management

Plan Plane Pilot Passengers Programming

64
Q

Disorientation

A

Incorrect mental image of position, attitude, and movement relative to actual aircraft movement (caused by lack of situational awareness)

65
Q

Spatial disorientation

A

The condition in which there is conflict between the central vision and the other senses (caused by physical reactions in the body)

66
Q

Sensory inputs

A

Somatosensory system - skin/joints/muscles

Visual system - eyes

Vestibular system - inner ear - 3 semicircular canals and otolith organs

67
Q

Vestibular system illusions

A

S.L.I.C.E.S.

Spirals and Spins: Turns become normal, bank causes descent

Leans: Entering a turn slowly may not be detected, abrupt correction may make level feel like opposite bank

Inversions: Sudden level off may cause tumbling sensation

Coriolis: Normalized turn followed by abrupt head movement causes extreme disorientation

Elevator: Updraft produces a feeling of needing to pitch down

Somotographic: Rapid acceleration/deceleration feels like pitching up/down

68
Q

Motion sickness

A

Conflicting signals about the state of the body from the vestibular. somatosensory and visual systems. Exacerbated by anxiety and stress.

Symptoms: General Discomfort, paleness, nausea, sweating, dizziness, vomiting

Remedies: Open vents, focus outside, avoid head movements, only passengers can take medications.

69
Q

A

A

A

70
Q

True altitude

A

Height above MSL

71
Q

Absolute altitude

A

Height above terrain

72
Q

Indicated altitude

A

Pressure indicated by altimeter

73
Q

Flight categories

A

Vfr +3000 ceiling, 5sm

Marginal VFR 1000-3000’ and/or 3-5m

Special VFR is clearance if less than above (must be IFR rated and certified if night)

IFR 500-<1000’ and/or 1-<3sm

Low IFR <500’ and/or <1sm

74
Q

BasicMed requirements
AC-68-1

A

AC-68-1

US drivers license

Hold or have held med. cert. after 7/15/2006

Answer questions on the CMEChecklist

Get your physical and have physician complete the CMEC

Take medical education course, consent to the National Driver Register

within 48 months, physical with physician who can treat flight affecting conditions

within 24 months; medical training course

75
Q

BasicMed privilages
AC-68-1

A

AC-68-1

5 passengers

6,000lbs max takeoff weight

Fly a max 6 person aircraft

Domestic, 250kts & 18,000’msl or less

Pro rata

76
Q

Which scan is good for when the autopilot is engaged?

A

Rectangular scan

77
Q

What san should you use if you suspect and instrument failure?

A

Inverted V scan

78
Q

Which is a suitable scan during straight and level flight?

A

Radial scan

79
Q

When should you roll out in a compass turn?

A

15 + 1/2 latitude

80
Q

What is a VOR

A

VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range

A type of short range radio navigation system.

Uses frequencies from 108.0-117.95 MHz

81
Q

Required record for each VOR check

A

S.P.E.D.
Sign - pilot’s signature

Place - Record of where the VOR check was performed

Error - Record the bearing error in degrees

Date - The date of the VOR check

82
Q

RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

Requires: 5 SAT’s OR 4 SAT’s and a barometric altimeter baro-aiding

83
Q

RAIM + FDE

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
+ Fault Detection and Exclusion

Requires: 6 SAT’s OR 5 w/barometric altimeter

84
Q

WAAS

A

Wide Area Augmentation System

This system broadcasts differential GPS signals for use by the aviation industry to improve the reliability and integrity of the system.

GPS: 50’

WAAS: 10’

Only GPS system that doesn’t require back up NAV

Corrects GPS signals using precise ground based Wide Area Reference Stations. Sends corrections to satellites which then broadcast to WAAS receivers

85
Q

91.175: Runway environment in sight

A

You have the runway enviroment in sight when you see one of these items

  1. The approach light system
  2. Threshold
  3. Threshold markings
  4. Threshold lights
  5. Runway
  6. Runway markings
  7. Runway lights
  8. Touchdown zone/zone markings
  9. Touchdown zone lights
  10. Visual glideslope indicator
  11. Runway end identifier lights
86
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude

obstacle clearance for entire route segment and assures Nav signal within 22nm of the VOR

87
Q

OROCA

A

Off route obstruction clearing altitude

In mountainous terrain, guarantees 2000ft above highest obstacle with a horizontal distance of 4nm.

No mountains, 1000ft

88
Q

91.205 required equipment IFR

GRABCARD

A

GRABCARD

Generator or alternator
Rate of turn indicator
Altimeter, sensitive (Kollsman window)
Ball (inclinometer)
Clock
Attitude indicator
Radios
Directional gyro or heading indicator

89
Q

Special use airspace

A

MCPRAWN

Military ops
Controlled firing
Prohibited - can’t fly
Restricted - need clearance if active
Alert areas - pilot training
Warning
National security

90
Q

TAF broundry

A

TAF 5sm

Vcnty 5-10sm

Distant +10sm

91
Q

Forward CG

A

Increased drag and stability

92
Q

Aft CG

A

Decreased drag and negative stability

93
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

Obstacle clearance and signal reception along route

94
Q

IFR standard rate of climb and conversion formula

A

200 feet per nautical mile.

GS/60xfeet per minute = feet per mile

95
Q

SFVR minimums

A

Day: 1000’ and clear of clouds

Night: IFR rated and certified

96
Q

Lost coms IFR

A

AVE-F MEA

Route:
Assigned
Vector
Expected
Filed

Altitude:
Minimum
Expected
Assigned

On lost coms use the highest altitude of the three

97
Q

Inclinometer slips/skids

A

Slips: ball inside turn

Skids: ball outside turn

98
Q

Standard approach ceiling and visablity minima -

A

Precision: 600’ 2sm

Non-precision: 800’ 2sm

99
Q

Airport colors IFR

A

W/instrument procedure: blue, green (which one has additional military?)

w/out: brown

100
Q

MCA

A

minimum crossing altitude

101
Q

IFR reporting if in radar contact
S.A.M.H.A.P.

A

Safety of flight items (wx, equipment malfunctions, etc)

Avionics loss (comms or nav)

Missed (when going missed on approach)

Holding (entering or leaving holding altitude)

Altitude (leaving assigned under IFR or changing when VFR on top)

Performance (unable to climb/descend @ 500fpm or change in true airspeed +/- 10kts or 5%)

102
Q

IFR reporting not in radar
Three C’s

A

Complul

103
Q

Position reports: I.P.T.A.T.E.N.

A

Identification

Position

Time

Altitude

Type of flight plan

Eta

Name of the

104
Q

Reporting points MARVELOUSCVFR

A

Missed approach

104
Q
A
105
Q
A
106
Q
A
107
Q
A
108
Q
A
109
Q
A

Flight school (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions