Grossing Flashcards

1
Q

THYMUS: Describe grossing procedure

A
  • Record outer dimensions and weight of the specimen (normal 15-30g)
  • Examine outer surface for adherant structures
  • Ink the outer surface
  • Serially section
  • Describe any lesions including size, colour, relationshiop to capsule, circumscribed/infiltrative, calcification, necrosis, hemorrhage
  • Describe uninvolved thymus (cystic, nodular, gritty, uniform) and relative proportions of fat and thymic parenchyma
  • Examine for lymph nodes
  • Put some tissue in RPMI for flow, remaining in formalin
  • Submit 4-6 blocks of tumor w/ relationship to capsule/thymus, margins, uninvolved thymus
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2
Q

THMUS: What IHC stains are helpful in distinguising thymic carcinoma from other sites?

A
  • CD5: epithelial cells from thymic carcinomas + vs thymomas, invasive thymomas, other carcinomas are NEG.
  • CD99, TdT, CD19, CD1a: positive in thymomas/invasive thymomas, but not in carcinomas or non-thymic lesions. Stain up the complement of immature cortical thymocytes.
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3
Q

THYMUS: What are the expected gross findings for the following conditions:

a. normal thymus
b. myasthenia gravis
c. thymoma
d. thymic carcinoma
e. germ cell tumor
f. lymphoma

A

Normal thymus: atrophic, tan lobules thymic parenchyma separated by fibrous septae w/ abundant fat. May see Hassell’s corpuscles.

Myasthenia gravis: normal in size, slightly enlarged otherwise unremarkable.

Thymoma: Encapsulated, solid, yellow/gray, divided into lobules by fibrous septae. May have cystic degeneration. Possible invasion into soft tissue.

Thymic carcinoma: Hard, white, with hemorrhage and necrosis. No broad fibrous septae, clear invasion into soft tissue.

Germ cell tumor: Solid, homogenous, yellow-tan

Lymphoma: lobulated, fleshy-white

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4
Q

THYMUS: What items are required for synoptic reporting?

A
  • Histologic type (A, AB, B1, B2, B3, thymic carcinoma & subtypes)
  • Tumor extension (lung parenchyma, pleura, pericardium, diaphragm)
  • Margins
  • Treatment effect
  • LVI
  • lymph nodes
  • stage: Modified Masaoka Stage for thymomas, TNM staging thymic carcinoma
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5
Q

THYMUS: Describe the Masaoka Clinical staging for thymomas

A

Stage I: Grossly and microscopically encapsulated (includes microscopic invasion into, but not
through, the capsule)

Stage IIa: Microscopic transcapsular invasion
Stage IIb: Macroscopic capsular invasion

Stage III: Macroscopic invasion of neighboring organs

Stage IVa: Pleural or pericardial dissemination
Stage IVb: Hematogenous or lymphatic dissemination

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6
Q

THYMUS: Describe the TNM staging for thymic carcinomas

A

pT0: No evidence of primary tumor
pT1: Tumor completely encapsulated
pT2: Tumor invades pericapsular connective tissue
pT3: Tumor invades neighboring structures, such as pericardium, mediastinal pleura, thoracic wall,
great vessels, and lung
pT4: Tumor with pleural or pericardial dissemination

pNX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed
pN0: No regional lymph node metastases
pN1: Metastasis in anterior mediastinal lymph nodes

pN2: Metastasis in other intrathoracic lymph nodes, excluding anterior mediastinal lymph nodes

pN3: Metastasis in scalene and/or supraclavicular lymph nodes

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7
Q

THYROID: Describe the grossing procedure

A
  • Weight and dimensions of R lobe, L lobe, isthmus
  • Oriented by: concave posterior surface, tapering lobes superior, isthmus inferior
  • Examine for parathyroid glands (brown-yellow ovoid bodies)
  • Ink outer surface (3 colours preferred)
  • Serially section from superior to inferior
  • Describe each lesion (size, colour, consistency, necrosis, hemorrahge, encapsulation, relationship to capsule)
  • Describe remaining parenchyma:
  • Normal: red-brown beefy
  • Pale: lymphocytic thyroiditis
  • Amber and plastic-like: amiodarone
  • Black: minocycline
  • Describe adjacent soft tissue, submit lymph nodes
  • Submit entire capsule of follicular lesions, 1/cm of papillary CA, 1 section/each different looking nodule in nodular hyperplasia.
  • Submit 2 uninvolved thyroid sections/lobe, parathyroid tissue, lymph nodes
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8
Q

THYROID: What is the gross appearance of the following lesions:

  • Adenoma
  • Papillary carcinoma
  • Follicular carcinoma
  • Medullary carcinoma
  • Anaplastic carcinoma
  • Nodular hyperplasia
  • Graves disease
A

Adenoma: Solitary, thinly encapsulated, pale tan-grey, soft & fleshy <3cm

Papillary carcinoma: 20-60% multicentric, size usually 2-3cm, white tan/granular, calcifications common. Rarely complete capsule.

Follicular: Solitary, usually thickly encapsulated, may have infiltration, hemorrahge, necrosis. Need to sample entire capsule for microscpic invasion.

Medullary carcinoma: Arise in middle/upper 1/3 of central lobe (where C cells lie), often multicentric, non-encapsulated but well-circumscribed. Soft, fleshy, grey/white/yellow. Size ranges from <1cm to entire gland.

Anaplastic carcinoma: Pale grey, firm, hemorrhage/necrosis. Widely Infiltrative.

Nodular hyperplasia: Enlarged, distorted, heterogenous nodularity. Some nodules appear encapsulated. Random scarring, hemorrhage, calcifications, cysts.

Graves: DIffusely enlarged, homogenous texture without noduels. Beefy red.

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9
Q

THYROID: Describe the grossing procedure for a prophylactic thyroidectomy

A
  • Performed for history of familial medullary carcinoma (MTC, MEN2) or germ-line RET protoncogene mutations
  • Examine entire middle-to upper 1/3 of lateral lobes for C-cell hyperplasia
  • After serial sectioning submit representative sections from any gross lesions, lower/upper/isthmus
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10
Q

THYROID: What items are required for synoptic reporting?

A
  • Procedure, specimen integrity, specimen size, specimen weight
  • Tumor focality, tumor laterality, tumor size
  • Histologic type, histologic subtype (for papillary, follicular)
  • Margins, tumor capsule, tumor capsule invasion
  • LVI, PNI, extrathyroid extension
  • TNM staging
  • Any additional parenchymal findings, parathyroid findings, C-cell hyperplasia
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11
Q

THYROID: Descibe situations in which capsular invasion is present for follicular carcinomas

A
  1. tumor totally transgresses the capsule invading beyond the outer contour of the capsule
  2. tumor clothed by thin (probably new) fibrous capsule but already extending beyond an imaginary (dotted) line drawn through the outer contour of the capsule
  3. satellite tumor nodule with similar features (architecture, cytomorphology) to the main tumor lying outside the capsule
  4. mushroom shaped bud completely transgressing fibrous capsule and grown out into surrounding thyroid
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12
Q

THYROID: Capsular invasion for follicular carcinoma

A

Capsular invasion: Focal, extensive, widely invasive (i.e. grossly visible)

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13
Q

THYROID: Describe situations qualifying for vascular invasion in follicular carcinomas

A

A. Bulging of tumor into vessels within the tumor proper does not constitute VI.

B: Tumor thrombus covered by endothelial cells in
intracapsular vessel is VI

C. Tumor thrombus in intracapsular vessel considered as VI since it is attached to
the vessel wall.

D: If not endothelized, tumor thrombus qualifies for VI because it is accompanied by a fibrin thrombus.

E: Endothelialized tumor thrombus in vessel outside the tumor capsule represents VI.

F: Artefactual dislodgement of tumor manifesting as irregular tumor fragments into vascular lumen unaccompanied by endothelial covering or fibrin thrombus DOES NOT COUNT AS VI

Extent: focal: < 4 vessels, extensive > 4 vessels

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14
Q

THYROID: Describe the criteria for invasion within follicular carcinoma

A

Vascular space invasion: blood vessels should be of venous caliber, located outside the tumor, within, or outside the capsule.

“minimally invasive” : capsular invasion but no vascular
invasion

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15
Q

THYROID: Define extrathyroidal extension (minimal and extensive)

A

minimal extrathyroidal extension : presence of carcinoma extending into perithyroidal tissues, ncluding infiltration of adipose tissue and skeletal muscle, as well as around (and into) sizable vascular structures and nerves

extensive extrathyroidal extension: extension into subcutaneous soft tissues; adjacent viscera, including the larynx, trachea and/or esophagus; the recurrent laryngeal nerve, carotid artery or mediastinal blood vessels.

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16
Q

THYROID: Describe the TNM staging

A

pT0 No evidence of primary tumor
pT1 2 cm or less, limited to thyroid
pT1a 1 cm or less, limited to the thyroid
pT1b >1 cm < 2 cm in greatest, limited to the thyroid
pT2 >2 cm<4 cm, limited to thyroid
pT3 >4 cm limited to thyroid or minimal extrathyroid extension
pT4a Moderately advanced disease. any size extending beyond the thyroid capsule to invade subcutaneous soft tissues, larynx, trachea, esophagus or recurrent laryngeal nerve
pT4b Very advanced disease. Tumor invades prevertebral fascia or encases carotid artery or
mediastinal vessels

*** All anaplastic are T4

pN1a Level VI (pretracheal, paratracheal and prelaryngeal/Delphian)

pN1b unilateral, bilateral or contralateral cervical (Levels I, II, III, IV, V) or retropharyngeal or superior mediastinal lymph nodes (Level VII).

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17
Q

THYROID: Describe the types of neck dissections that may accompagny a thryoidectomy

A
  1. Radical neck dissection
  2. Modified radical neck dissection, internal jugular vein and/or sternocleidomastoid muscle spared
  3. Selective neck dissection (SND), as specified by the surgeon
    a. Supraomohyoid neck dissection
    b. Posterolateral neck dissection
    c. Lateral neck dissection
    d. Central compartment neck dissection
  4. Selective neck dissection (SND), as specified by the surgeon -“SND” with levels and sublevels
    designated
  5. Extended radical neck dissection, as specified by the surgeon
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18
Q

THYROID: Describe the lymph node levels of the neck

A

Level I.

  • *Submental Group (IA)** (ant. digastric/hyoid bone)
  • *Submandibular Group ( IB)** (post. digastric/mandible)

Level II.

Upper Jugular Group (Sublevels IIA and IIB)
(upper 1/3 int. jug. vein and spinal acc. nerve, from carotid bifurc. to hyoid/skull base)
(post. boundary is the post. border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, anterior boundary is the lat.border of the sternohyoid muscle)

Level III. Middle Jugular Group
middle 1/3 of the int. jug. vein extending from the carotid bifurcation superiorly to the omohyoid muscle (surgical landmark)

Level IV. Lower Jugular Group
lower 1/3 int. jugular vein extending from the omohyoid muscle superiorly to the clavicle inferiorly.

Level V. Posterior Triangle Group (Sublevels VA and VB)
lower half of the spinal acc. nerve and the transverse cervical artery. The supraclavicular nodes are also included in this group. The post. boundary is the anterior border of the trapezius muscle, the
ant. boundary is the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, inf. boundary clavicle

Level VI. Anterior (Central) Compartment
paratracheal nodes, precricoid (Delphian)
node, and the perithyroidal nodes, including the lymph nodes along the recurrent laryngeal nerve. The
superior boundary is the hyoid bone, the inferior boundary is the suprasternal notch, the lateral
boundaries are the common carotid arteries, and the posterior boundary by the prevertebral fascia.

Level VII. Superior Mediastinal Lymph Nodes
Metastases at Level VII are considered regional lymph node metastases

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19
Q

THYROID: Name 3 IHC stains that can be used in the diagnosis of papillary ca

A
  • CK19
  • Galectin 3
  • HBME-1
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20
Q

THYROID: Name molecular mutations and associated histological subtypes of papillary CA of thyroid

A

RET/PTC1 translocations: 60% papillary carcinomas.
carcinoma with predominant papillary architecture and papillary microcarcinoma;

RET/PTC3 fusion: tall cell and solid variants, as well as to radiation-induced tumors.

BRAF mutation: can be seen from 30%-70% of papillary ca, esp. classic type, tall cell variant, Warthin-like, oncocytic type

RAS gene mutations/PAX8/PPAR translocation: follicular variant, rare to have RET/PTC or BRAF in this variant

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21
Q

PARATHYROID: Describe specimen grossing

A
  • Weigh & record dimensions of each specimen
  • Describe: color (brown-yellow), lesions, entire gland vs biopsy
  • Normal weight: 27-33 mg men, 30-40 mg women
  • any gland >50 mg is enlarged
  • normal size 2x2x2mm
  • either submit entirely or representative sections if large
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22
Q

PARATHYROID: What is the typical gross appearance of the following lesions:

  • Adenoma
  • Hyperplasia
  • Carcinoma
A

Adenoma (85%): solitary lesion, >300mg, size 1-3 cm, loss of stromal fat and compression of normal gland

Hyperplasia (15%, mostly secondary): multiple glands, fat may be decreased, all enlarged to varying degrees.

Carcinoma (2%): large, >40 GRAMS, 2-6cm, firm, lobulated grey-tan mass adherant to soft tissue +/- apparent capsular invasion

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23
Q

PARATHYROID: What histologic features can help distinguish between adenoma, atypical adenoma, carcinoma?

A
  1. Relationship to surrounding tissue (adenomas encapsulated, carcionmas invade)
  2. Thick fibrous bands (present in carcinoma)
  3. Mitotic activity: <5/50 HPFs and ki <3% in atypical adenomas, >5/50 HPFs and ki >6% in carcinomas
  4. Perineural invasion: absent in adenoma
  5. Vascular invasion: absent in adenoma
  6. Necrosis: present in 1/3 of carcinomas
  7. Nuclear atypia: scattered in adenomas, marked pleomorphism with macronuclei in 1/2 of carcinomas
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24
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Name 5 features of a lipoma that raise the likelyhood of malignancy:

A
  1. large size >5cm
  2. infiltration into surrounding tissues
  3. Location in deep tissue/near spermatic cord
  4. History of recurrence
  5. Unusual gross appearance (white, homogenous, firm, fibrotic areas, attached tissue)
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25
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Describe the grossing protocol for a liopma

A
  • Record size, thinly section for ususual findings
  • Sample 1/cm and areas of varying appearance
  • Consider touch preps or sending for FISH in cases of: deep seated location, unusual apperance, surgeon request
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26
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Describe types of resections possible

A

Intralesional: tumor debulking

Marginal: tumor + pseudocapsule w/ small amnt. surrounding tissue. Usually tumor @ margin microscopically.

Wide: Intracompartmental, with 2cm normal tissue/fascial plane

Segmental/on-bloc: portion of involved bone with cuff of normal bone

Radical: entire soft tissue compartment/bone removed. INCLUDES amputations/disarticulations

27
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Describe grossing of soft-tissue resection specimens

A
  • Identify structures present (muscle, bone, nerve, vessels, organs) and record measurements
  • Selectively ink close margins (2cm or less), and sample margins closer than 5cm
  • Measure distance to all margins; for most soft tissues should be 6 (ant, post, sup, inf, med, lat) but for amputations will have proximal bone, soft tissue, vascular nerve
  • Examine and submit all lymph nodes
  • Fix in adequatate volume of formalin
  • sample 1/cm of tumor + varying appearance
  • Map out section of bone with photograph to document necrosis
  • Take perpendicular margins
28
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Name 2 sarcomas that are grossly difficult to assess for margins

A
  • Epithelioid sarcoma
  • Angiosarcoma
29
Q

SOFT TISSUE: What items are included in the synoptic report?

A
  • Procedure (i.e. type of resection)
  • Tumor site
  • TUmor size
  • extent (superficial or suprafascial, deep, intraabdominal head and neck)
  • Histologic type (WHO)
  • Mitotic rate (#/10 HPF in most active area)
  • necrosis (%)
  • Histologic grade (FNCLCC).
  • Margins
  • LVI
  • TNM
  • preexisting lesion/other lesions present
30
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Name 5 sarcomas that are NOT graded with the FNCLCC

A
  • MPNST
  • embryonal/alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
  • angiosarcoma (EXCEPT IN BREAST)
  • extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma
  • Alveolar soft part sarcoma
  • Clear cell sarcoma
  • Epithelioid sarcoma
31
Q

SOFT TISSUE: What is the TNM staging for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Tx: not assessed/ T0: no evidence of tumor

T1: < 5cm

T1a: superficial, T1b: deep

T2: >5cm

T2a: superficial, T2b: deep

N0: no + nodes

N1: + node(s)

32
Q

SOFT TISSUE: What are the elements of the pediatric rhabdomyosarcoma synoptic report?

A
  • Procedure ( type of resection)
  • Laterality
  • Tumor site (bladder, cranial, extremity, genitourinary, head and neck
  • size
  • depth: dermal, subcutaneous, subfascial, intramuscular, intraabdominal etc.
  • Histologic type
    • Embryonal: botyroid, spindle cell, NOS
    • Alveolar: solid, NOS
    • Mixed
    • Undifferentiated
  • Anaplasia: focal (single-few), diffuse (sheets)
    • Any histologic type
    • Large, lobate, hyperchromatic at least 3x greater than neighbour with atypical mitoses
  • Margins
  • Mitotic rate (#/10 HPF in highest area)
  • Necrosis
  • Stage
33
Q

SOFT TISSUE: What are the features of the FNCLCC staging system for soft tissue tumors

A
  1. Tumor differentiation:
    1. normal
    2. certain histology
    3. synnovial sarc, embryonal sarc, undiff or doubtful
  2. Mitotic count:
    1. 0-9/10 HPF
    2. 10-19/HPF
    3. >20/HPF
  3. Necrosis: 0= no necrosis, 1=<50%, 2=>50%

Grade 1= Total 2-3

Grade 2= Total 4-5

Grade 3=6-8

34
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Which tumors should NOT be graded with FNCLCC?

A
  • Treated tumors
  • Benign lesions
  • Bone sarcoma
  • Uterine/GI sarcomas
  • Pediatric sarcomas
  • DFSP
  • Atypical fibroxanthoma
  • FNA/core biopsy specimens
35
Q

For GIST, what are the tumor parameters and associated risk of progression by site?

A

Assess tumor parameters by mitoses, then size, then location

Mitoses: <5/ 50 HPF vs >5/ HPF

Size: <2, >2 but <5, >5 but <10, >10

Location: gastric, duodenum, jejunum/ileum, rectum

36
Q

SOFT TISSUE: Describe the handling of an abdominal fat pad biopsy for amyloid.

What other specimens can be used to establish a diagnosis of systemic amylodosis?

A
  • Fix in formalin, +/- tissue in glutaralhehyde for EM
  • Stain H & E, Congo Red and polarize
  • IHC for subtypes
  • Other specimens: rectal biopsies (most sensitive, >95%), FNA abdominal fat pad, oral biopsy
37
Q

GU: Describe the grossing of the penectomy specimen

A
  • Record dimensions of specimen
  • Describe lesion (size, colour, growth pattern, consistency, distance from proximal resection margin
  • Open the urethra along the ventral aspect, extending cut to bisect penis.
  • Record depth of invasion, involvement of foreskin/frenulum/glans/meatus/corpora carvenosa, corpus spongiosum, urethra
  • Post-fixaiton, take upto 4 blocks of tumor, 2 of proximal resection margin
38
Q

GU: Describe the elements of the synoptic report for penis

A
  • Procedure
  • Type of tumor (usually SCC)
  • Grade
  • Size
  • Extent of invasion (subepithelial, corpus spongiosum, corpora cavernosum, urethra, prostate)
  • LVI, PNI
  • Nodal status
  • Margins (urethral, corpora, skin)
  • Associated lesions: squamous hyperplasia, BXO, condyloma, bowenoid papulosis, paget, BCC
39
Q

GU: What is the TNM staging for penile carcinomas?

A

Tis:

T1: non-invasive verrucous

T1a: subepithelial connective tissue without LVI

T1b: subepithelial connective tissue + LVI or poorly diff.

T2: invades corpus spongiosum/cavernosum

T3: invades urethra

T4: invades other structures

N0: no ndoes

N1: 1LN

N2: multiple inguinal

N3: extranodal extension or pelvic LN

40
Q

Name the sites of extra-adrenal paragangliomas according to their site of origin on the paravertebral sympathetic chain:

A
  • Abdominal, extra-adrenal

* organ of Zuckerkandl

* urinary bladder

  • Paraganglioma of head and neck
  • Carotid body paraganglioma
  • Jugulotympanic paraganglioma
  • Vagal paraganglioma
  • Laryngeal paraganglioma
  • Aortic pulmonary paraganglioma
41
Q

Name 4 features that may suggest malignant behaviour in a paraganglioma

A
  • Extra-adrenal location
  • Coarse nodularity or multiple nodules grossly
  • Confluent tumor necrosis
  • Absence of hyaline globules

* detail tumor size, encapsulation/invasion and necrosis grossly

42
Q

EYE: Name the histologic layers of the retina

A

From outside in:

(1) retinal pigment epithelium
(2) rods and cones (photoreceptors)
(3) external limiting membrane;
(4) outer nuclear layer;
(5) outer plexiform layer;
(6) inner nuclear layer;
(7) inner plexiform layer
(8) ganglion cell layer
(9) nerve fiber layer;
(10) inner limiting membrane;
(11) vitreous

43
Q

Retinoblastoma: How would you stage this tumor?

A
  • Tumjor invades optic nerve head, past lamina cribrosa (so T3)
44
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Retinoblastoma with clinical leukocoria

45
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Retinoblastoma, endophytic growth

46
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Retinoblastoma, extension into anterior chamber

47
Q

In a retinoblastoma, What is the name of these structures?

A

Flexner-Winstersteiner rosettes.

Cells oriented around central lumen, no basement membrane at periphery, apically oriented

48
Q

In a Retinoblastoma, what are these structures? Do they signify differentiation?

A
  • Homer-wright rosettes, and do not signify differentiation
  • Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes and fleurettes imply differentiation
49
Q

NEURO: Describe the grossing protocol for specimens suspected to have CJD

A
  • National Prion Disease Pathology Surveilance Center for help
  • Extreme caution must be exercised by all staff
  • ALL tissue must be fixed in formalin for 24 hours, then formic acid x 1 hr, then formalin
  • Must be labelled as coming from a patient with suspected CJD
  • DO another 1 hr treatment in formic acid followed by another 24 hrs in formalin
  • ALL instruments/materials touching tissue must be soaked in bleach for one hour prior to discarding or washing
50
Q

NEURO: Describe the grossing of a Cavitron Ultrasonic Surgical Aspirator specimen

A
  • Specimen consists of small fragments of tissue in fluid
  • Strain fluid through gauze pads, place in mesh bag or tissue paper.
  • Submit 2-3 cassettes of tissue
51
Q

Neuro: Describe grossing of brain resection specimens

A
  • Determine location of resection and orient specimen. Photograph.
  • Describe meningeal appearance, surface (normal gyral pattern, microgyria, tubers)
  • Identify white/grey matter and comment on junction (blurred vs distinct)
  • Slice perpendicular to pial surface, 1-1.5 cm
  • Take tissue for EM, frozen
  • Photograph slices, then place between paper towels in 20x volume formalin overnight
  • Serially submit sections and maintain orientation (1-1.5 sections/cm of tissue)
52
Q

Neuro: Describe the grossing of an eye specimen

A
  • Orient specimen (posterior surface-inferior oblique is lateral, posterior ciliary vessel is medial)
  • Measures globe (AP/SI/ML), measure optic nerve length, cornea
  • Ink optic nerve resection margin, and amputate nerve 5mm from globe
  • fix x 24 hrs in 10x formalin with optic nerve in separate jar
  • take optic nerve section en-face, take optic-pupillary section (demonstrating deepest invasion of tumor), take calottes (edges of globe)
  • serially section through remaining globe
53
Q

Eye: describe how you would examine lens or corneal specimens

A

Lens: usually examined grossly, describe diameter, opacity, thickness, shape. Order PAS if examining histology.

Cornea: Embed and cut on edge, perpendicular to epitelial surfaces, with PAS stain.

54
Q

PERIHPERAL NERVE: Describe the gross processing for a peripheral nerve specimen

A
  • EM: Submit 5-6mm legnth (from center) for EM in glutaraldehyde
  • Frozen: Cross-section in embedding medium
  • LM: after special studies, keep remainder intact, wrap in lesns paper; longitudinal and cross- section with H & E x 2 and trichrome
55
Q

MUSCLE: Describe the gross handling of muscle biopsies

A

2- unclamped:

  • 2 unfixed specimens wrapped in saline-soaked gauze are submitted: #1 on clamp, #2 unclamped
  • # 1 (clamped):
  • EM: place in glut., long enough to be oriented for cross-sections
  • histochemistry: cross- section frozen in isopentane
  • Paraffin: submit cross section and longitudinal section
  • Freeze additional section for special studies
56
Q

MUSCLE: Describe how you freeze/cut muscle biopsy specimens:

A
  1. Label scintillation vial and palce in cryostat
  2. Pour liquid nitrogen in flask
  3. Pour cold isopendane in small metal cup, and immer base of clamp in liquid nitrogen
  4. isopentane ready when white drops on bottom
  5. cut one section from middle of specimen, 5-7mm
  6. On piece of cardboard, form L shaped wedge and place drop of freezing medium
  7. place muscle biopsy on drop of freezing medium
  8. immerse paper and specimen in isopentane x 10 s., then store in -70 freezer
57
Q

LYMPH NODES: Name 5 situations in which benign keratin positive cells are seen in LNs

A
  • Mullerian inclusions (pelvic)
  • Breast lobules (rare)
  • Mesothelial cells
  • thyroid follicles (anterior neck)
  • interstitial reticulum cells (Cam 5.2)
  • plasma cells
58
Q

Name 4 benign cells staining for S100 in sentinel lymph nodes for melanoma

A
  • Nevus cells
  • Dendritic cells
  • Nerves
  • ganglion cells
59
Q

What are the risks of infection from various tissues for CJD?

A

Level of Infectivity Tissues, Secretions and Excretions
High Infectivity :Brain, spinal cord, dura mater, pituitary, eye*, (including optic nerve and retina)

Low Infectivity CSF ** kidney, liver, lung, lymph nodes, spleen, placenta

No Detected Infectivity Adipose tissue, skin, adrenal gland, heart muscle, intestine, peripheral nerve, prostate, skeletal muscle, testis, thyroid gland, feces, milk, nasal mucus, saliva, serous exudates, sweat, tears, urine, blood, bone marrow, semen.

60
Q

SPLEEN: Describe the grossing of the spleen

A
  • Weigh and measure (normal 125-195 g)
  • describe capsule, intactness and any lesions
  • remove hilar lymph nodes and submit
  • slice very thinly perpendicular to long axis, and place in formalin OR B5 solution
61
Q

SPLEEN: What is the gross appearance of the following lesions:

ITP

CML/Hairy cell leukemia

CLL

Lymphoma

A

ITP: normal to mildly enlarged

CML/Hairy cell: massively enlarged (possibly>5000g) with splenic infarcts. Deep red parenchyma and enlarged hilar nodes.

CLL: mild enlargement, prominent malpighian corpuscules.

Lymphomas: miliary pattern (minute white nodules) or diffuse. Single or multiple large nodules.

62
Q

FOREIGN BODIES: How would you handle a bullet taken from a patient?

A
  • Chain of evidence is important; doctor/nurse should transfer from OR to pathologist
  • Do not touch bullets/fragments with metal tools (scratches obscure rifling marks).
  • Describe as conical metallic fragment, size and shape
  • photograph with specimen # and ruler
  • Submit any soft tissue/bone present
  • Should be locked in secure storage compartment until requested by police
  • Document date, time, and police badge # accepting transfer
  • Seek legal advice from lab manager
63
Q

Name 5 incidental findings in hernia sacs:

A
  • Endometriosis
  • Incarcerated bowel
  • vas deferens/epidydimis
  • mullerian renant
  • lymph nodes
  • mesothelial hyperplasia
  • cord lipoma/liposarcoma
64
Q
A