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Gross Q1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is myology

A

branch of anatomy that deals with skeletal muscular system

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2
Q

how much of body weight is skeletal muscle

A

40-50 percent

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3
Q

Functions of skeletal muscle

A 
Movement, 
stability, 
communication, 
control of body openings and passages, and
heat production
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4
Q

what other systems is skeletal muscle closely interrelated with?

A

bones and joints, respiratory and digestive systems, the integumentary system, and the nervous system

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5
Q

what is a muscle cell called?

A

a muscle fiber

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6
Q

muscle fibers are grouped into bundles known as…

A

fasciculi

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7
Q

what are muscles fibers and fasciculi bound together by?

A

connective tissue

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8
Q

Functions of connective tissue in muscle

A
  1. connect muscle to bone or other structures
  2. provide route for nerves and blood vessels to supply muscle
  3. Provide non-contractile framework to transmit contraction to a bone
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9
Q

Three layers of connective tissue in skeletal muscle

A
  1. Epimysium
  2. Perimysium
  3. Endomysium
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10
Q

Function of Epimysium

A

wraps around the muscle fiber

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11
Q

Function of perimysium

A

wraps around the fascicle

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12
Q

Function of endomysium

A

wraps the muscle—> becomes tendon

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13
Q

T/F? There are multiple nuclei in a muscle fiber

A

True

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14
Q

what is a myofilament?

A

contractile unit of muscle, every muscle cell will contain dozens to hundreds of these.

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15
Q

What is a muscle fiber’s membrane called?

A

a sarcolemma

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16
Q

how much larger are adult muscles than neonate muscles?

A

10x larger

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17
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in the size of each individual muscle fiber

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18
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increase in the number of muscle fibers

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19
Q

what is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell called?

A

sarcoplasm

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20
Q

type I muscle fibers

A

Long, sustained muscle contraction is required. Associated with endurance. Specialize in aerobic metabolism

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21
Q

Type II muscle fibers

A

used in quick powerful activities- speed and strength. Associated with anaerobic metabolism.

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22
Q

called a fast twitch muscle fiber

A

Type II fibers

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23
Q

fatigue resistent fibers

A

Type I

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24
Q

Muscle fiber with Extensive capillary beds

A

Type I

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25
Q

muscle cell that uses more glycogen, less fatty acids

A

Type II

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26
Q

fiber that atrophies with aging

A

Type II

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27
Q

fiber type with more mitochondria

A

Type I

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28
Q

intermediate fibers

A

b/w type I and type II. They contract faster than type I but slower than type II. greater fatigue resistance but resemble type II fibers.

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29
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

an elaborate, tubular network that stores and transports Ca++ to myofibrils

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30
Q

transverse tubules

A

invaginations in the sarcolemma, allow action potentials to make their way into the muscle fibers and to the myofibrils

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31
Q

myoglobin

A

red protein pigment found in sarcolemma. almost indistinguishable from hemoglobin. stores O2 needed for aerobic respiration. greater affinity for O2 than hemoglobin

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32
Q

myofibril

A

contractile apparatus of the muscle fiber

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33
Q

I-Bands

A

light areas at the ends of sarcomeres

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34
Q

A-bands

A

the entire dark part of the contractile unit

35
Q

H-bands

A

light areas in the middle of the A-bands

36
Q

M-line

A

Dark band in the middle of the the A-band

37
Q

Z-line

A

Dark line in the middle of the I-band

38
Q

sarcomere

A

smallest functional unit of muscle, runs Z-line to Z-line

39
Q

Actin

A

contractile protein mainly found in the I bands

40
Q

Myosin

A

contractile protein mainly found in the A-bands

41
Q

process of muscle contraction

A

nerve sends action potential, acytlcholine diffused across neuromuscular junction, binds to receptors. action potential travels down t-tubules, stimulates release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum. Ca++ binds to troponin on actin filaments, changes the shape of tropomyosin and exposes myosin binding site. ATP allows myosin to interact with actin and cause a muscle contraction.

42
Q

T/F? 1 ATP is required for myosin to bind to actin, but 1 ATP is not required to release actin.

A

false

 

43
Q

preferred fuel source for aerobic metabolism

A

fatty acids

44
Q

how are fatty acids stored in fat cells?

A

triglycerides

45
Q

Phase One of cardiovascular exercise

A

lasts for a couple minutes. Creatine phosphate and glycogen are primary fuel. 20% of glycogen will be depleted

46
Q

Phase two

A

shift to aerobic metabolism to utilize fatty acids and make ATP

47
Q

Phase three

A

As fatigue sets in, shift back to anaerobic cycle to make ATP. Remaining glycogen is utilized. Lactic acid accumulates.

48
Q

Ergogenic aid

A

a technique or substance used for the purpose of enhancing performance

49
Q

Glycogen/Carb loading

A

Aims to increase intramuscular glycogen
day 1: work to exhaustion, deplete glycogen
days 2-4: continue to exercise. eat diet low in carbs
days 5-7: no exercise, high carb diet.

50
Q

Side effects of carb-loading

A

dizziness, light-headedness, lethargy, lower mental acuity, increase in weight due to increased glycogen and water in muscles

51
Q

Caffeine benefits

A

2 cups of coffee used 1:30 before a race can allow fatty acids to be broken down more efficiently. delays phase 3

52
Q

caffeine cons

A

it is a diuretic and can cause nervousness

53
Q

Blood doping process

A

blood cells are drawn from the athlete and stored several months before. on the day of the race, cells are reintroduced into the blood to allow greater O2 carrying capacity

54
Q

Doping risks

A

can cause rashes and fevers, acute hemolysis, transmission of viruses and can cause fluid buildup leading to kidney damage or clotting

55
Q

Erythropoetin (EPO)

A

hormone that causes production of red blood cells in bone marrow. can thicken blood to dangerously high levels

56
Q

Anabolic steroids

A

synthetic forms of testosterone that cause anabolic effects but less androgenic effects. less rapidly broken down than regular testosterone.

57
Q

oil-based steroids

A

injected with fewer side-effects but can be tested months after stopping

58
Q

water-based steroids

A

taken in pill form with more side-effects. cleared from system in 3-4 weeks.

59
Q

patches/gels

A

another way to administer steroids. more androgenic effects

60
Q

pyramiding

A

user starts at a low dosage, raises to a peak and then tapers down the amount being taken

61
Q

stacking

A

user takes several forms of the drug. Both oil and water based

62
Q

short term side effects of steroids

A

headaches, dizziness and nausea, acne, shrinkage of testes, gynecomastia, tendon damage

63
Q

long term side effects of steroids

A

issues with cardiovascular system, digestive system, prostrate cancer, endocrine system

64
Q

steroid side-effects in females

A

increase clitoral size, decrease mammary gland size, develop facial hair, voice deepen, tendon damage

65
Q

steroid side-effects in adolescents

A

premature closing of growth plates –> shortened stature.

66
Q

anabolic steroids work by…

A

increasing growth hormone production,

increasing protein synthesis and decreasing protein breakdown.

67
Q

Chemical composition of muscle

A

75% water
20% protein (mainly myosin)
5% other

68
Q

What nerves are supplied to every muscle cell?

A

motor nerve (efferent) fiber and a sensory (afferent fiber)

69
Q

Nerve fibers enter and leave a muscle via the ______ _______ components of the muscle

A

connective tissue

70
Q

What is the motor unit?

A

a single neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. It is the smallest part of a muscle that can contract independently

71
Q

What determines the precision of muscle?

A

the smaller the motor unit the more precise its movements will be

72
Q

Where does the motor unit originate and terminate?

A

Originates: in the ventral horn of the gray matter in the CNS.

CNS–>PNS–>muscle fiber sarcolemma

Terminates: in the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber (terminal end)

73
Q

What is the PRE-synaptic portion of the neuromusclular junction (NMJ)?

A

The nerve ending

74
Q

What is the POST-synaptic portion of the NMJ?

A

sarcolemma of the muscle fiber

75
Q

What is the SYNAPTIC CLEFT ?

A

space b/w pre and postsynaptic portions where ACH is released.

76
Q

__________ is released at the presynaptic portion of the NMJ via a __________ potential.

A

Acetylcholine (ACH) ; action potential

77
Q

Once ACH completes its binding, __________ is the enzyme that breaks down ACH.

A

Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)

78
Q

ACHe degrades ACH into _______ & _______.

A

acetate ; choline

79
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

most common NMJ autoimmune disorder. Rogue antibodies damage ACH receptor sites on the sarcolemma. Begins affecting muscles supplied by cranial nerves (e.g. eye/face muscles). May progress to extremities.

Patients may suffer tumor to the thymus gland (removal may = remission)

80
Q

A pregnant women suffering from Myasthenia Gravis has a ____% chance that her infant develops ________ neonatal myasthenia gravis

A

25% ; Transitional Neonatal Myasthenia Gravis

81
Q

How does Nicotine affect the NMJ?

A

Nicotine competes with ACH in receptor sites binding. Its actions are more prolonged than ACH

82
Q

How does Snake Venom affect the NMJ?

A

prevents ACH from binding to receptor sites. Unlike nicotine…snake venom doesn’t cause action potential to occur.

83
Q

How does Organophosphates affect the NMJ?

A

inactivates ACHe. ACH cannot be broken down and accumulates in postsynaptic NMJ. Examples include parathion & malathion found in insecticides.

84
Q

How does Botulin Toxin affect NMJ?

A

released from bacteria: clostridium botulinum . causes food poisoning…botulism.

Blocks release release of ACH from presynaptic portion of NMJ. First affects cranial nerves and can be fatal.

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