Gram-Positive Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

is Gram-positive Cocci

A
  • Staphylococci*
  • Streptococci*
  • Enterococci*
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2
Q

staphylococci

A

gram-positive cocci that gorw in grape-like clusters

  • Staphylococcus aureus* - one of the most important human pathogens
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis* - normal inhabitant of skin, nose, and mouth of humans, adept at attaching and growing on prospthetic divices such as intravenous catheters and prosthetic joings, coagulase-negative
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus* - urinary tract infections in young women
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3
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

facultative anaerobe

most virulent of the staphylococci

Toxic shock syndrone toxin 1 (TSST-1)

causes staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

grow at isolated site - eg vagina of a menstruating woman

toxin produced and enters bloodstream

causes systemic effects in the absence of bateremia

exotoxin instead of endotoxin

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4
Q

superantigen

A

causes proliferation of entire subsets of T cells (those with T cell receptors with specific Vbeta domains)

results in the release of large amounts of cytokines such as interleukin-1beta and tumor necrosis factor - alpha

cytokines cause fever, shock, and organ failure

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5
Q

Staphylococcal enterotoxins A-E and G-I

A

cause staphylococcal food poisoning

act directly on neural receptors in the upper gastrointestinal tract -> stimulate vomiting center in the brain -> cuase vomiting 2-5 hours after ingestion

toxins are resistant to boiling for 30 minutes as well as digestive enzymes

superantigens

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6
Q

exfoliatin

A

causes scalded skin syndrome

distrupts intercellular junctions in the skin -> splitting of the epidermis between the stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum

Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

alpha-toxin (alpha-hemolysin)

A

a factor that causes the lysis of red blood cells when bacteria are grown on blood agar plates

a lipid-binding toxin that inserts into lipid bilayers of mammalian cells and forms pores -> cell death and tissue destrcution

thought to lyse other types of host cells or act as transporters during infections

Staphylococcus aureus

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8
Q

Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)

A

pore-forming toxin associated with many community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) strains

throught to contribute to cell lysis, resulting in severe, necrotic infections caused by mant CA-MRSA strains

PVL gene is carried by a phage

Staphylococcus aureus

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9
Q

coagulase

A

binds to prothrombin to fomr a complex that initiates the polymerization of fibrin to form a clot

contributes to the fibrin capsule surrounding many abscesses

prevents neutrophils from accessing bacteria

Staphylococcus aureus

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10
Q

Protein A

A

binds to Fc portion of IgG molecules

prevents antibody-mediated clearance

Staphylococcus aureus

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11
Q

furuncle and carbuncle

A

furuncle - a boil caused by the blockage of a hair follicle or sweat gland, subsequently becomes infected

carbuncle - when infection spreads from a furuncle and causes the formation of multiple abscesses in adjacent tissue

Staphylococcus aureus

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12
Q

joint and bone infections

A

if bacteria gains access to the bloodstream, it can cuase infections at distant sites such as joints (septic arthritis) and bones (osteomyelitis)

Staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q

endocarditis

A

infection on the valves of the heart

forms biofilm on the heart valve

difficult to treat, frequently leads to death

especially common in intravenous drug users

Staphylococcus aureus

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14
Q

clinical signs of endocarditis

A

Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, conjunctival hemorrhages, and heart murmurs

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15
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

A

symptoms include high fever, vomiting, diarrhea, sore throat, muscle pain, rash, hypotension or shock, organ failure

desquamation of the skin occurs upon resolution

associated with tampon use -> colonizes the vagina -> produce TSST-1

wound infections can also lead to TSS, but usually associated with enterotoxins

Staphylococcus aureus

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16
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning

A

self-limited episode of vomiting and diarrhea

begins 2-5 horus after ingestion of food contaminated with enterotoxins

Staphylococcus aureus

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17
Q

scalded skin syndrome

A

characterized by desquamation

usually in infants and children under the age of 5

results from exfoliatin secretion

usually localized but if toxin reaches the bloodstream, can see exfoliation at remote sites

Staphylococcus aureus

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18
Q

nosocomial infections

A

infections that are acquired after people are admitted to the hospital and have undergone procedures such as mechanical ventilation, surgery, or catheter placement

Staphylococcus aureus

leading cause

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19
Q

Staphylococcus aureus diagnostic laboratory tests

A

Gram-stain of tissue specimens - gram-positive cocci

culture on blood agar plates - colonies will have gold color

catalase-positive

coagulase-positive (S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are coagulase-negative)

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20
Q

treatment of Staphylococcus aureus

A

drainage of collections of pus

penicillin, now almost all produce beta-lactamase

antistaphylococcal penicillins such as methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin

cephalosporins such as cefazolin and cefuroxime

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21
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin-resitant Staphylococcus aureus

widely found in hosptials

contain a variant penicillin-binding protein called PBP2’

does not bind most beta-lactam antibitics

encoded by mecA gene

treat with vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin, or quinupristin/dalfopristin

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22
Q

CA-MRSA

A

community-acquired MRSA

common and genetically distinct from most hospital-acquired MRSA

produce PVL toxin

may be associated with mroe severe infections

Staphylococcus aureus

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23
Q

treatment of S. epidermidis

A

most isolates are resistant to antistaphylococcal penicillins and cephalosporins

referred to as MRSE (methicillin-resistant S.epidermidis)

treated with the same agents that are effective against MRSA

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24
Q

Streptococci

A

gram-positive cocci

catalase-negative

categorized by hemolysis

not strict anaerobes because can use catalase in medium such as blood

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25
Q

three types of streptococci hemolysis

A

alpha-hemolysis

beta-hemolysis

gamma-hemolysis

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26
Q

alpha-hemolysis

A

partial hemolysis with greenish tint, includes the viridans streptococci and Streptococcus pneumoniae

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27
Q

beta-hemolysis

A

complete, clear hemolysis

includes most of the “groubable” streptococci such as S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae, and several other species

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28
Q

gamma-hemolysis

A

a misnomer - no memolysis

includes S. bovis and many of the enterococci

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29
Q

Viridans streptococci

A

alpha-hemolytic

more than 20 species, generally nongroupable

some colonize oropharynx and cause dental caries or bacterial endocarditis following transient bacteremia

others are associated with deep tissue abscess formation

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30
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

alpha-hemolytic stretococci

leading cause of community-acquired pneumonia

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31
Q

beta-hemolytic streptococci

A

often broken down as “groups” based on surface carbohydrates

Group A - S. pyogenes

Group B - S. agalactiae

Group D - S. bovis and enterococci

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32
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Extracellular pathogen

called “pyogenic” because it causes purulent (lots of pus) infections

also referred to as “group A streptococci”

gram-positive cocci in chains

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33
Q

streptolysin

A

two types - streptolysin O (SLO) and streptolysin S (SLS)

SLO forms pores in the plasma membranes of human cells

responsible for the beta-hemolysis seen on blood agar

diagnosis through ASO titers

Streptococcus pyogenes

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34
Q

M-proteins

A

fibrillar molecules that extend out beyond the surface of the bacterium

anchored in the peptidoglycan

used to serotype S. pyogenes

prevent phagocytosis

Streptococcus pyogenes

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35
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs)

A

also called “erythrogenic toxins”, “scarlet fever toxins”

3 major types (SPE A, B, and C)

rash of sarlet fever, may play a role in stretococcal toxic shock syndrome

share sequence homology and biological activity with some of the Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxins

superantigens (except for SPE B) - may contribute to hypotension and shock

SPE A and SPE C are carried by phage

SPE B is a protease - may contribute to tissue destruction in necrotizing fasciitis

Streptococcus pyogenes

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36
Q

streptokinase

A

causes lysis of fibrin clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin

used to lyse artery clots in patients with acute myocardial infarctions

Streptococcus pyogenes

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37
Q

C5a peptidase

A

extracellular enzyme that cleaves the complement component C5a

prevents the recruitment of phagocytes to sites where bacteria are

Streptococcus pyogenes

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38
Q

clinical disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

scarlet fever

streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

impetigo

cellulitis

necrotizing fasciitis

nonsuppurative sequelae

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39
Q

clinical disease of Staphylococcal aureus

A

furuncles and carbuncles

joint and bone infections

endocarditis

toxic shock syndrome

staphylococcal food poisoning

scalded skin syndrome

cellulitis

hospital-acquired infections

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40
Q

determinants of pathogenicity for Staphylococcus aureus

A

toxic shock syndrome toxin 1

staphylococcal enterotoxins A-E, G-I

exfoliatin

alpha-toxin

PVL

coagulase

protein A

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41
Q

Determinants of pathogenicity for Streptococcal pyogenes

A

streptolysin

M-protein

streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins

streptokinase

C5a peptidase

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42
Q

streptococcal pharyngitis

A

common, especially in children

sore throat, fever, headache, swollen erythematous tonsils, sometimes with puruelent xudates, cervical lymphadenopathy

self-limiting

impossible to clinically differentiate from viral pharyngitis

suppurative complications - peritonsillar and retropharyngeal abscesses

non-suppurative sequellae - rheumatic fever and post-stretpococcal glomerulonephritis

Streptococcus pyogenes

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43
Q

Streptococcal scarlet fever

A

an erythematous, “sand-paper” rash that may accompany streptococal pharyngitis

usually involves the face but spares the area around the mouth (circumoral pallor)

rash is accentuated in skin areas

strawberry tongue

Streptococcus pyogenes

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44
Q

Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

similar to the staph one except rash is rarely present and not associated with tampon use

fever, hypotension, and multi-organ failure

majority of patients are bacteremic and have associated soft-tissue infection

Streptococcus pyogenes

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45
Q

impetigo

A

infection of the epidermis

usually in small children

begins as small vesicles on exposed areas of the skin -> vesicles enlarge -> become pustular -> rupture to form a yellow crust

Streptococcus pyogenes

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46
Q

cellulitis

A

deeper form of skin infection

involves dermis and subcutaneous tissues

associated with fever and lymphangitis

often located at anatomic sites with compromised lymphatic drainage

special form of group A streptococcal cellulitis: erysipelas - indurated, erythematous rash, well cemarcated, rapidly enlarging, usually on the face

Streptococcus pyogenes

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47
Q

necrotizing fasciitis

A

involves deeper tissues, including the superifical and/or deep fascia of the muscles - life-threatening

source of infection may be a minor break in the skin or a surgical wound

abrupt onset - severe pain at site of infection, fever, malaise, only minimal physical findings

tissue damage progresses rapidly

skin becomes mottled and dusky as the underlying tissues become necrotic

bullae may develop on the surface of the skin

Streptococcus pyogenes

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48
Q

acute rheumatic fever

A

acute rheumatic fever

thought to be an autoimmune disease following S. pyogenes infections

most notable for permanently damaging the valves of the heart

begins 3 weeks after onset of pharyngitis

does not follow soft-tissue infections

JONES criteria

Streptococcal pyogenes

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49
Q

Jones criteria

A

for diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever

major criteria - polyarthritis (J), carditis (O - heart), subcutaneous nodules (N), erythema marginatum (E), sydenham chorea (S)

minor criteria - arthralgia, fever, elevated sedimentation rate of C-reactive protein, prolonged PR-interval on EKG

must have 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor criteria

must also have evidence of a recent group A streptococcal infection

Streptococcal pyogenes

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50
Q

poststreptococcal glumerulonephritis

A

characterized by edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria

follows infection with either respiratory or skin strains

usually self-limited

Streptococcal pyogenes

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51
Q

diagnostic laboratory tests for Streptococcal pyogenes

A

gram-stain of tissue specimens - gram-positive cocci in chains

culturable on blood agar plates - causes beta-hemolysis and are catalase-negative

rapid strep tests are used to diagnose pharyngitis

anti-streptolysin-O antibody titers

52
Q

treatment for Streptococcal pyogenes

A

penicillin is the treatment of choice

macrolides are alternatives

some reccomend that severe infections should be treated with penicillin plus clindamycin because clindamycin inhibits the production of SPEs, which may play a role in these diseases

immediate surgical debridement in necrotizing fasciitis

intravenous immunoglobin in STSS - contains antibodies against streptococcal toxins

53
Q

prevention of Streptococcal pyogenes

A

no vaccines currently available

penicillin prophylaxis is used to prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever during most susceptible ages

54
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

A

also referred to as “group B stretococci”

causes neonatal sepsis and neonatal meningitis

normally colonize the vagina -? passed to the newborn during delivery

pregnant women who screen positive for GBS are often treated with penicillin G or vancomycin before delivery to prevent infection of newborn

55
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

a member of the group D streptococci (gamma-hemolytic)

not enterococci

rarely cause infections

blood infections due to this bacterium are associated with gasto

56
Q

enterococci

A

formerly classified as group D streptococci

reclassified as a separate genus based upon biochemical and growth characteristics

normal inhabitants of the gastrointestinal tract

species of medical significance are E. faecalis and E. faecium

E. faecium tends to be more resistant to antimicrobials, whereas E. faecalis is mroe common

57
Q

Enterococci determinants of pathogenicity

A

low intrinsic virulence

vancomycin-resistant enterococci or VRE

VanA operon - part of a transposon, transposon carried by a self-transferable plasmid, allows for the synthesis and substitution of D-Ala-D-lactate for D-Ala-D-Ala, so vancomycin cannot bind

58
Q

clinical disease of enterococci

A

common cause of hospital-acquired infections

urinary tract, wounds, biliary tract, intra-abdominal infections

bacteremia - intravascular catheters and endocarditis

59
Q

Enterococci diagnostic laboratory tests

A

easily grown on blood agar - gamma-hemolysis and occassionally beta or alpha-hemolysis

grow int he presence of high concentrations of bile salts and sodium chloride

60
Q

treatment of enterococci

A

antibiotic resistance is especially problematic

penicillin or ampicillin are bacteriostatis against enterococci

add aminoglycosides for bactericidal activity

significant reistance to vancomycin

linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin, or daptomycin

overuse of vancomycin predisposes to VRE colonization/infection

61
Q

prevention of Enterococci

A

hand-washing and contact precautions are important in limiting the spread of VRE

judicious use of vancomycin

62
Q

gram-positive rods

A
  • Listeria monocytogenes*
  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae*
  • Bacillus anthracis*
63
Q

Bacillus

A

aerobic gram-positive rods

two are of medical importance:

  • Bacillus anthracis, which causes antrhax
  • Bacillus cereus, which causes food-poisoning
64
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

grow in chains (bamboo rods)

spore-forming, spores are resistant to dry heat and some disinfectants - may persist in dry earth for years

historically, a major agricultural problem, infected animals die and return a high load of spores back to the soil, where they can later infect other animals

65
Q

Bacillus anthracis determinants of pathogenicity

A

virulence factors carried on plasmids

anthrax toxin

capsule

66
Q

Bacillus anthracis capsule

A

composed of D-glutamic acid encoded on pXO2 plasmid

antiphagocytic properties

67
Q

anthrax toxin

A

an A-B toxin, encoded on a plasmid

A (activity) subunit and B(binding) subunit

A = elongation factoer (EL) and lethal factor (LF)

B = protective antigen (PA)

PA binds to cells and facilitates the entry of EF and LF

EF has adenylate cyclase activity and leads to edema and inhibition of neutrophil function - increases cAMP

LF is a zinc protease, cleaves host cell kinase and leads to macrophage cell death

Bacillus anthracis

68
Q

cutaneous anthrax

A

spores are introduced into the skin

small red macule appears

enlarges to form an ulcer

blackened necrotic eschar

expanding zone of edema

painless

surrounded by small satellite vesicles

ususally spontaneously resolve

69
Q

inhalation anthrax

A

spores are inhaled, often following hte handling of contaminated hides, hair, or wool

symptoms similar to those of a severe viral respiratory infection - fever, shortness-of-breath, and hypotension

death results

large necrotic hemorrhagic mediastinal lymph nodes are common

organisms sometimes seen on peripheral blood smears

Bacillus anthracis

70
Q

gastrointestinal anthrax

A

ulcers form at site of infection after ingestion of contaminated mean

disease is rare in humans

the GI tract is the common route of infection in herbivores

mortality rates between those of cutaneous and inhalation anthrax

Bacillus anthracis

71
Q

diagnostic laboratory tests for Bacillus anthracis

A

large numbers of organisms can be seen by Gram-stain of cutaneous lesions

between 10^7 and 10^8 bacteria/mL can be seen in the blood in late-stage disease

the bacterium will also grow from pus or sputum streaked onto blood agar plates

serologic tests are available

Bacillus anthracis

72
Q

treatment of Bacillus anthracis

A

penicillin

because of concerns regarding weaponized strains, now ciprofloxacin and doxycycline are recommended

for inhalational anthrax, add a second agent, such as rifampin, vancomycin, penicillin, clarithromycin

73
Q

prevention of Bacillus anthracis

A

a nonliving vaccine with PA as its active component is used in humans

recommended for certain agricultural workers, veterinary perosnnel and others at risk for exposure to anthrax

a live attenuated vaccine containing spores is used in domestic animals

post-exposure prophylaxis - ciprofloxacin for 60 days for presumed exposure to control

74
Q

listeria

A

only one species

Listeria monocytogenes - of signiciant medical importance

75
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

metabolically facultative

grows well at refrigeration temperatures

infects many animals, causes curling disease adn stillbrith in sheep and cattle

foodborne transmission - through unpateurized milk, hceestek

76
Q

Listeria monocytogenes determinants of pathogenicity

A

facultative intracellular pathogen

internalin

listeriolysin O

ActA

77
Q

facultative intracellular pathogen

A

can grow and replicate in teh environment

the ability to invade eukaryotic cells is an essential step in pathogenesis

other facultative intracellular pathogens include Salmonella, Shigella, Legionella, and Mycobacteria

Listeria monocytogenes

78
Q

internalin

A

mediates attachment of and invasion of mammalian cells

factors that mediate adherence of bacteria to eukaryotic cells are called adhesins

Listeria monocytogenes

79
Q

listeriolysin O

A

a pore-forming toxin

initially, bacteria reside inside the vacuoles

quickly escape via the action of this protein

Listeria monocytogenes

80
Q

ActA

A

bacterial protein that help bactera propel themselves around the cytoplasm

forms and pushes against actin tails

helps form protrusions into neighboring epithelial cells

membranes surrounding this protrusions are lysed

bacteria enter the cytoplasm of the adjacent cell

net result - spread without exposure to the external environment (or the humoral immune system)

Listeria monocytogenes

81
Q

clinical disease of Listeria monocytogenes

A

meningitis - elderly, young, immunocompromised (rarely associated with a monocystosis)

fetal infections - premature labor and intrauterine fetal demise

causes neonatal infections such as sepsis, respiratory distress, and disseminated abscesses

82
Q

diagnostic laboratory tests for Listeria monocytogenes

A

growth of the organism from cerebral spinal fluid, blood, or amniotic fluid

small, smooth colonies surrounded by a narrow rim of beta-hemolysis when grown in blood agar plates

catalase positive

83
Q

treatment of Listeria monocytogenes

A

ampicillin is the treatment of hoice - may be used in combination with an aminoglycoside

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole - alternative

84
Q

prevention of Listeria monocytogenes

A

avoid raw meat and unpasteurized milk

thoroughly wash raw vegetables

85
Q

Corynebacteria

A

aerobic Gram-positive bacilli

irregular swelling on one end - “club shape”

Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria

other corynebacterium species are normal inhabitants of the skin

86
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

nonspore-forming

infects only humans

87
Q

Diphtheria toxin (DT)

A

gene carried on phage, A-B toxin

fragment A inhibits peptide chain elongation by ADP-ribosylating EF-2

inhibits protein synthesis in pharyngeal epithelial cells, leading to necrosis -> pseudomembrane formation

ADP-ribosylating toxins transfer ADP-ribose from NAD to host cell proteins -> alters the activity of these proteins

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

88
Q

ADP-ribosylating toxins

A

exotoxin A of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

cholera toxin of Vibrio cholerae

heat labile toxin of Exherichia coli

pertussis ctoxin of Bordetella pertussis

diphtheria toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

89
Q

clinical disease of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

diphtheria:

  • person-to-person spread by direct contact or droplets
  • sore throat, fever, difficulty swalling, cough, hoarseness, and rinorrhea
  • pseudomembrane on oropharnx, palate, nasopharynx, nose, or larynx
  • composed of necrotic cell debris, fibrin, and blood cells
  • may lead to airway obstruction
  • DT may be absorbed into the circulation and lead to distant tissue damage
  • dmage to the heart -> cardiac arrhthmias
  • nerve damage -> paralysis of eye muscles, soft palate, and extremities
  • adrenal damage may lead to hypoadrenalism
90
Q

diagnostic laboratory tests for Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

in stained smears, bacteria lie in clusters at acute angles to each other (“Chinese letter” appearance) or in parallel groups (“palisade” appearance)

tellurite selective medium -> black colony with a surrounding gray-brown halo

all isolates should be checked for DT production through PCR, antisera reactivity, or biological activity in tissue culture or guinea pigs

91
Q

treatment of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

horst antisera against DT

antibiotics do not increase the rate of healing in people who have received antitoxin, but they are given to prevent spread of the organism

macrolides, penicillin G, rifampin, and clindamycin

monitored closely for respiratory or cardiac failure

close contacts should be cultured and given a vaccination booster if required

92
Q

prevention of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

diphtheria toxin vaccine - treatment of DT with formaldehyde

a toxoid is a chemically treated toxin that is no longer toxic but retains immunogenicity

diphtheria toxoid vaccine has led to a dramatic reduction in cases of diphteria in the US

vaccinated individuals, although protected from disease, may still be colonized

93
Q

anaerobes and related bacteria

A
  • Clostridium* spp.
  • Actinomyces israelii*
  • Nocardia* spp. (not an anaerobe but closely related)
  • Peptostreptococcus* spp.
94
Q

Clostridia

A

Clostridium tetani, C. botulinum, C. perfirngens, and C. difficile

each is associated with its own characteristic medical manifestations

Gram-positive anaerobic rods, spore-forming

95
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

cause of tetanus

found in soil and animal feces

spores remain viable in soil for many years

96
Q

Clostridium tetani determinants of pathogenicity

A

Tetanus toxin

97
Q

tetanus toxin

A

an A-B toxin

blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters

homologous to botulnum toxin

Clostridium tetani

98
Q

clinical disease of Clostridium tetani

A

cause of tetanus

follows inoculation of wounds with spores

germination of spores occurs in low oxidation-reduction potential environments such as wounds with devitalized tissue or foreign bodies

toxin produced and binds to peripheral motor neuron terminals

enters axons and is transported to neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system by intra-axonal retrograde transport

toxin blocks the release of presynaptic inhibitory neurotransmitters

net effect is the INCREASE in the resting firing rate of motor neurons, leads to muscle rigidity

symptoms include lockjaw, increased tone of neck, shoulder, and back muscles, and eventually the abdominal and leg muscles

spasms - invoked by minor stimuli, may compromise respiration - sympathetic nervous system affected

leads to hypertension, tachycardia, arrhythmia, sweating, vasoconstriction

neonatal tetanus - infection of umbilical stump

99
Q

diagnostic laboratory tests for Clostridium tetani

A

isolation of organism from woudns not helpful

terminal spores are tennis racket or durmstick shaped

demonstration of tetanus toixn production is necessary for definitive identification of the organism

100
Q

treatment of Clostridium tetani

A

penicillin or metronidazole, although unproven value

human tetanus immunoglobulin

agents to control muscle spasms

101
Q

prevention of Clostridium tetani

A

vaccine - tetanus toxoid

102
Q

Clostidium botulinum

A

cause of botulism

subterminal spores

naturally found in soil, pinds, lakes, and on plants

bees collect C. botulinum spores along with pollen from flowers, resulting in high concentrations of these spores in honey

biological warfare concern - “weaponized” toxin developed that can be absorbed through skin

103
Q

*Clostidium botulinum *determinants of pathogenicity

A

botulinum toxin and some varients encoded by bacteriophages

associates with home-canned food products - spores survive the canning process and germinate in the anaerobic environment of the sealed food containter

toxin is secreted and not destroyed if the food is not reheated (destroyed if boil for 10-15 minutes)

food is ingested, toxin enters bloodstream, reaches cholinergic terminals at perpheral motor endplates, cleaves components of neuroexocytosis apparatus and blocks release of acetylcholine

blocks transmission of nerve impulses and the net effect is DECREASED motor neuron activity

104
Q

botulinum toxin

A

homologous to tetanus toxin

A-B toxin

protease

one of the most potent toxins known

some variants are encoded by bacteriophages

Clostidium botulinum

105
Q

three types of botulsim

A

food-borne botulism

wound botulism

infant botulism

Clostidium botulinum

106
Q

food-borne botulism

A

ingested toxin leads to:

symmetric descending paralysis

cranial nerve involvement - diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia, respiratory failure

nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

fever is unusual

Clostidium botulinum

107
Q

wound botulism

A

occurs when a wound is contaminated with C. botulinum spores

symptoms are similar too food-borne botulism but no GI findings

Clostidium botulinum

108
Q

infant botulism

A

C. botulinum colonizes the infant intestine

toxin produced and absorbed

paralysis

infants less than 6 months of age are particularly susceptible because they lack normal flora

no honey to infants less than 12 months of age

Clostidium botulinum

109
Q

Clostidium botulinum diagnostic laboratory tests

A

compatible history and clinical symptoms

isolation of toxin or the organism

ocasionally, toxin can be isolated from the blood of patients

110
Q

treatment of Clostidium botulinum

A

respiratory support

trivalent equine antitoxine

antibiotics to eliminate residual bacteria from the bowel are of unproven efficacy

111
Q

prevention of Clostidium botulinum

A

no vaccine is available

proper canning techniques

112
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A

causes food-poisoning

associated with ingestion of contaminated meat, poultry, or vegetables

also causes gangrene

113
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

causes diarrhea associated with antibiotic use

114
Q

Actinomycetes

A

true bacteria that resemble funcgi

related to the mycobacteria - some members are partially acid-fast

medically important - Nocardia spp., Actinomyces spp.

note that Nocardia are aerobic

115
Q

medically important Nocardia spp.

A
  • N. farcinica*
  • N. asteroides*
  • N. brasilliensis*
116
Q

Norcadia spp.

A

gram-positive bacilli, aerobic

cells remain together after division and form elongated chains or filaments with occasional branches

branched filaments irregularly take up gram stain and have “beaded” appearance

common inhabitants of the soil

117
Q

Nocardia spp. determinants of pathogenicity

A

neutralize oxidants, prevent phagosome acidification, and inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion

lesions ar extensively infiltrated with neutrophils, but bacteria not killed

cell-mediated immunity is needed to control the infection

118
Q

Nocardia spp. clinical disease

A

infects individuals with deficient cell-mediated immunity

pulmonary nocardiosis - causes subacute pneumonia, nodules, cavitation, and empyema, dissemination to the central nervous system, skin, and soft tissue, and other organs, dissemination leads to abscess formation

transcutaneous inoculation - inoculation of the organism into the tissues of the foot, fistula formation, discharge of serous or purulent material containing small “sulfur” granules

lesions spread slowly to involve skin, subcutaneous tissue, and bone

119
Q

Nocardia spp. diagnostic laboratory tests

A

gram staining of lesion speciments (filaments with beaded appearance)

routine laboratory media such as blood agar plates

requires 2 weeks to grow

will partially stain using acid-fast technique

120
Q

Nocardia spp. treatment

A

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and other sulfa drugs

minocycline and amikacin are alternatives

prone to relapse, so treatment is often continued for 6 to 12 months

drainage of brain abscesses and debridement of actinomycetomas

121
Q

Nocardia spp. prevention

A

no vaccine is currently available

122
Q

Actinomyces israelii

A

gram-positive bacilli

non-spore-forming

similar to Nocardia spp. except anaerobic

normal flora, found in the mouth and gastrointestinal tract and female genital tract

123
Q

Actinomyces israelii determinants of pathogenicity

A

iundolent, suppurative infections with fistulas and sulfur granules

infected foci spread contiguously, ignoring tissue planes

124
Q

Actinomyces israelii clinical disease

A

poor dentition or trauma leads to oral-cervicofacial disease

aspiration of mouth contents leads to involvement of the pulmonary parenchyma and pleural space

infection may spread and involve bone and chest wall

often mistaken for malignancy

abdominal or pelvic disease may follow intestinal rupture or UID use

125
Q

Actinomyces israelii diagnostic laboratory tests

A

gram-stained sulfur granules

growth of the organism from culture of these specimens

in the absence of sulfur granules, it is difficult to determine if the organism is causing disease

not particularly acid fast

126
Q

Actinomyces israelii treatment

A

penicillin

prolonged treatment regimens - up to 12 months

tetracycline/doxycycline is used in penicillin allergic patients

127
Q

Actinomyces israelii prevention

A

no vaccine is currently available