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Micro - review > GRAM NEGATIVE BACILLI > Flashcards

GRAM NEGATIVE BACILLI Flashcards

1
Q

H2S producers

A 
Salmonella 
Proteus 
Providencia 
Arizona 
Citrobacter freundii 
Edwardsiella
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2
Q

Gram (‐) rods
• Motile w/ peritrichous flagella EXCEPT
Klebsiella, Shigella
• Facultative anaerobe
• Ferments GLUCOSE
• Often produce gas
• Catalase (+) EXCEPT Shigella dysenteriae
• Oxidase (‐) EXCEPT Vibrio, Plesiomonas
shigelloides
• Reduce nitrate to nitrite EXCEPT Erwina,
Pantoea agglomerans

A

Enterbacteriaceae

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3
Q

Antigenic structure

A

Kag, Oag, Hag

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4
Q

capsular antigen; heat labile

*Salmonella ‐ ViAg

A

Kag

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5
Q

somatic Ag; heat stable; IgM

‐ reacts to H antibodies

A

Oag

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6
Q

flagellar antigen; destroyed by alcohols, heat

denaturation; IgG

A

HAg

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7
Q

Sucrose: Lactose: Glucose ratio in TSI

A

10:10:1

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8
Q

H2S indicator in TSI

A

FeSO4

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9
Q

MR (+) control

A

E. coli

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10
Q

MR (-) control

A

Enterobacter cloacae

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11
Q

reagent in Baritts method (VP)

A

α‐napthol and KOH

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12
Q

reagent in Coblentz method (VP)

A

α‐napthol and 40% KOH in creatine

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13
Q

(+) VP

A

” KESH”

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia

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14
Q

Simmon-Citrate (+) control

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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15
Q

Simmon-Citrate (-) control

A

E.coli

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16
Q

Acetate (+) control

A

E.coli

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17
Q

Malonate (+) control

A

Salmonella

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18
Q

Acetamide (+) control

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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19
Q

Rapid Urease

A

“PPM”

Proteus
Providencia
Morganella

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20
Q

Slow Urease

A

“CKEYS”

Citrobater
Klebsiella
Enterobacter gergovae
Yersinia
Serratia
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21
Q

Rapid lactose fermenters enzymes

A

B- galactosidase

Lactose permease

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22
Q

Rapid lactose fermenters

A

“EKE”

Escherichia
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

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23
Q

Late Lactose Fermenters enzyme

A

B- galactosidase

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24
Q

Late Lactose Fermenters

A

”: S2HYCS”

Salmonella arizonae
Shigella sonnei
Hafnia
Yersinia
Citrobacter
Serratia
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25
Q

Non‐lactose Fermenters

A

All salmonella except S. arizonae
All shigella except S. sonnei
the rest of enterobacteriaceae

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26
Q

rapid test to detect B- galactosidase

A

ONPG

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27
Q

ONPG (+)

A

Late Lactose Fermenters

“S2HYCS”

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28
Q

; (‐) control for ONPG

A

S. typhimurium

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29
Q

(+) control for ONPG

A

E.coli

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30
Q

Methyl Umbelliferyl β‐D‐
Glucoronide (MUG)
(+) RESULT

A

Electric blue fluorescens

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31
Q

Methyl Umbelliferyl β‐D‐
Glucoronide (MUG)
(+)

A

All escherichia spp. except E. coli O157:H7

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32
Q

1 cause of UTI

A

Escherichia

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33
Q

shigella-like infection

A

EIEC

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34
Q

Cholera-like toxin

A

ETEC

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35
Q

“Childhood diarrhea”

A

ETEC

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36
Q

Virulence test for EIEC

A

Sereny test

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37
Q

HUS causing E. coli

A

EHEC / VTEC

38
Q

Mucoid colonies on MAC

A

Klebsiella

39
Q

K. pneumoniae new name

A

Klebsiella quasipneumoniae subsp.

similipneumoniae

40
Q

Friedlandler’s bacillus

A

Klebsiella quasipneumoniae subsp.

similipneumoniae

41
Q

– causes purulent sinus

infection

A

K. ozaenae

42
Q

[the only spp. of Klebsiella

that is indole (+)

A

K. oxytoca

43
Q

only Urease (+) Enterobacter

A

E. gergoviae

44
Q

i – produces yellow colonies at

25οC

A

E. sakazaki

45
Q

Bacterias that are known to cause upper respiratory

tract infections

A

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia

46
Q

Serratia

Known to produce these three enzymes:

A

‐ DNase
‐ Lipase
‐ Gelatinase

47
Q

Serratia pigment

A

Prodigiosin

48
Q

produces colonies with potato

odor

A

Serratia odornifera

49
Q

blood bag contaminant, arabinose

+

A

Serratia liquifascien

50
Q

Salmonella sources of infection:

A

H2O, dairy products, poultry, pet

house

51
Q

Salmonella on SSA

A

Black colonies

52
Q

‐ BSA (Bismuth Sulfite Agar) is for

A

S. typhi

53
Q

Nonmotile Salmonella

A

Salmonella gallinarum and Salmonella

pullorum

54
Q

(H2S and LDC negative Salmonella

A

S. paratyphi

55
Q

specimen collection for Salmonella typhi

A

1st week - Blood and urine
2nd - stool
best specimen: bone marrow

56
Q

paratyphoid fever

A

*Salmonella paratyphi A and B

57
Q

known to cause bacteremia /

septicemia

A

*Salmonella cholerasuis

58
Q

– known to cause

enterocolitis / gastroenteritis

A

*Salmonella typhimurium (enteritidis)

59
Q

tube agglutination test for Salmonella

A

Widal test

60
Q

Widal test antigens

A

O
H
VI

61
Q

O antigen

A

Somatic antigen
titer = 1:160
ACTIVE SALMONELLA INFECTION

62
Q

H

A

Flagellar antigen; past infection / immunity

IgM

63
Q

VI

A

Capsular antigen; carrier (IgG)

64
Q

Differentiates Shewanella from Salmnonella

A

Sucrose

65
Q

Inert Bacteria

A

Shigella

66
Q

only Ornithine (+) Shigella

A

S. sonnei

67
Q

dysentery

A

Shigella

68
Q

Culture of Shigella

A

fresh stool with mucous flecks and rectal

swab of ulcer

69
Q

natural habitats of Shigella

A

Primates and Humans

70
Q

resembles Salmonella (LDC+)

A

Citrobacter

71
Q

only specie of Citrobacter that is H2S (+)

A

C. freundii

72
Q

nursery outbreaks , neonatal meningitis

A

C. diversus

73
Q

Only ornithine (+) Proteus

A

P. mirabilis

74
Q

Proteus associated with what renal stone

A

Triple Phosphate calculi

75
Q

swarming phenomenon on BAP

A

P. mirabilis

76
Q

P. vulgaris vs mirabilis

A

Indole test

77
Q

source of OX2 and OX19

A

P. vulgaris

78
Q

source of OXK (“K” means Kingsbury

A

P. mirabilis

79
Q

can be isolated from cold and warm blooded animals

A

Edwardsiella tarda

80
Q

bioterrorism agent

A

Yersinia

81
Q

Plague Bacillus

A

Yersinia pestis

82
Q

‐ V and W Antigens

A

Yersinia pestis

83
Q

‐ causative agent of Bubonic, Pneumonic, Septicemic
Plague (Black Death, Famine) ‐ infection of wild rats /
rodents

A

Yersinia pestis

84
Q

vector for Yersinia pestis

A

Xenopsylla cheopsis

85
Q

stalactite pattern in broth culture

A

Y. pestis

86
Q

Bipolar bodies

A

Yersinia
Pasteurella
-

87
Q

1 blood bag contaminant

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

88
Q

bull’s eye appearance / colony

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

89
Q

CIN (+) but Oxidase (+)

A

‐ Aeromonas

90
Q

motile at 22◦C but not at 35◦C

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

Micro - review (4 decks)

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