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GOM TEST Flashcards

1
Q

According to FAR Part 121 performance requirements, what percentage of the effective length of the runway at the destination must a turbojet airplane be able to make a landing and come to a complete stop?

A

According to FAR Part 121 performance requirements, what percentage of the effective length of the runway at the destination must a turbojet airplane be able to make a landing and come to a complete stop?

60%

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2
Q

Regarding dry ice, we can carry up to __ lbs per package and a total of __ lbs per aircraft.

A

Regarding dry ice, we can carry up to __ lbs per package and a total of __ lbs per aircraft.

5,5 lbs
441 lbs

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3
Q

When cleared to “line up and wait”, the PIC shall turn on all lights except?

A

When cleared to “line up and wait”, the PIC shall turn on all lights except?
Landing lights

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4
Q

The de-icing procedures can be found in…

A

The de-icing procedures can be found in…

GOM

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5
Q

Per Mesa operations, when does a flight duty period (FDP) begin and end?

A

45 min prior to scheduled departure; when the aircraft blocks in

and ends when the
aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further
aircraft movement by the same flight crewmember

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6
Q

While descending on an instrument approach, the PM states “approach lights in sight”. The PF responds “continuing”. What can the crew descend to?

A

While descending on an instrument approach, the PM states “approach lights in sight”. The PF responds “continuing”. What can the crew descend to?

100 feet above touchdown zone elevation

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7
Q

Unless prior authorization is granted, a pilot must submit their medical to crewquals no later than…

A

By the 25th of their due month

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8
Q

During ground de-icing, the holdover time begins

A

During ground de-icing, the holdover time begins

At the start of the final application of the de-ice/anti-ice fluid

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9
Q

Mesa Airlines 90% HOT tables are located in

A

GOM appendix C

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10
Q

T/F Passports are only required to be in your flight kit when you are scheduled to fly international.

A

FALSE

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11
Q

When is a full approach briefing required?

A

When is a full approach briefing required?

Whenever IMC might be encountered, and as a backup for a visual approach in night VMC

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12
Q

As a first officer, what is the lowest visibility you can perform a takeoff?

A

As a first officer, what is the lowest visibility you can perform a takeoff?

1 sm

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13
Q

category D item is good for…

A

120 days

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14
Q

category B item is good for…

A

category B item is good for…

3 days, with a 3 day extension

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15
Q

The three methods used to defer maintenance discrepancies are…

A

The three methods used to defer maintenance discrepancies are…
MEL, CDL, NEF manuals

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16
Q

T/F RVSM airspace also includes Canada and Mexico?

A

T/F RVSM airspace also includes Canada and Mexico?
True

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17
Q

During a non-critical phase of flight, if one crewmember leaves their seat for physiological needs, the other crewmember must don the oxygen mask in the aircraft is above…

A

above FL 410,

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18
Q

Anytime we have cargo onboard, we must be dispatched within ___ minutes of a suitable airport.

A

60 min

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19
Q

T/F Regarding FAA 117 rest requirements all part 91 flying done on behalf of the 121 certificate carrier must be applied?

A

T/F Regarding FAA 117 rest requirements all part 91 flying done on behalf of the 121 certificate carrier must be applied?

TRUE

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20
Q

RVSM airspace required equipment includes…

A

RVSM airspace required equipment includes…

2 air data computers, 2 altitude reporting transponders (1 operational), altitude alerting system, Autopilot,

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21
Q

T/F Mesa airlines may carry more than 1 high risk prisoner?

A

FALSE

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22
Q

If a takeoff is conducted on a runway using the visibility lower than the current suitable landing minimums, a takeoff alternate is required?

A

True

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23
Q

Standard conditions for takeoff under IFR part 121 flight rules (2 engines) is?

A

Standard conditions for takeoff under IFR part 121 flight rules (2 engines) is?

1 sm

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24
Q

T/F as a first officer, you can perform a takeoff using less than standard condition, provided the captain is a qualified IOE check airman?

A

T/F as a first officer, you can perform a takeoff using less than standard condition, provided the captain is a qualified IOE check airman?
TRUE

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25
Q

If a particular component or equipment that is missing from the aircraft (which does not affect the safe operation), where would you find any pertinent limitation?

A

If a particular component or equipment that is missing from the aircraft (which does not affect the safe operation), where would you find any pertinent limitation?

CDL

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26
Q

If a pilot has participated in scuba diving, he/she must wait ___ hours before reporting for duty.

A

If a pilot has participated in scuba diving, he/she must wait ___ hours before reporting for duty.

24H

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27
Q

When conduction domestic operations, which of the following is dispatcher responsibility?

a. Monitoring the flights progress
b. Re-dispatching the flight enroute if the flight cannot be completed safely
c. Supplying the flight crew with necessary information enroute

A

d. All of the above

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28
Q

A dispatch release is valid for…

A

2 hours from proposed time of departure

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29
Q

“Marginal conditions” is defined as ___ about the lowest suitable landing minimums

A

500 and 1

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30
Q

An aircraft is considered airworthy until one of two things happens

A scheduled maintenance task comes due (per ops-specs)

C An unscheduled mechanical discrepancy occurs

A

An aircraft is considered airworthy until one of two things happensa.

A scheduled maintenance task comes due (per ops-specs)

C An unscheduled mechanical discrepancy occurs

Both A and C is correct

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31
Q

Per Mesa policy, a crewmember must wait ___ hours after donating blood before reporting for duty.

A

72 hours

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32
Q

For consolidation of knowledge and skills, a pilot must complete ___ hours of line operating flight time within ___ days from the date of the check ride.

A

100/120

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33
Q

If a takeoff alternate is required for dispatch, it must be located no more than ___ from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

A

f a takeoff alternate is required for dispatch, it must be located no more than ___ from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

60 minutes

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34
Q

Which statement is true regarding exemption 17347?

a. The main body of the forecast must show the required weather
b. The remarks section of the forecast may show no less than 50% of the required weather c.
c. The dispatch release must indicate the flight is dispatched under 17437

A

Which statement is true regarding exemption 17347?

d. All of the above

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35
Q

On a FAR Part 121 flight, what is required to proceed past the FAF?

A

On a FAR Part 121 flight, what is required to proceed past the FAF?
a. Required visibility for the approach

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36
Q

Before an FAA inspector is allowed access to the flight deck, he/she must present their

A

Before an FAA inspector is allowed access to the flight deck, he/she must present their

FAAform110A

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37
Q

For FAR Part 121 flights, what is the minimum rest period required in a 168 consecutive hour period (immediately prior to beginning reserve or flight duty period)

A

For FAR Part 121 flights, what is the minimum rest period required in a 168 consecutive hour period (immediately prior to beginning reserve or flight duty period)

30 hours

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38
Q

Within a minimum rest period, what is the minimum uninterrupted sleep opportunity that a pilot must be provided? (FAA 1

A

8Hours

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39
Q

When flying in an area of thunderstorms, unless the captain can determine closer passage is safe, the aircraft should pass at least ___ miles from the storm

A

20

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40
Q

Refueling with engine running is permitted with authorization from the VP of Flight Operations and the Airport Authority.

A

FALSE

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41
Q

Determine the lowest suitable derived alternate minimums for the following airport.

A

800 2

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42
Q

The major responsibility for Operation Control of a Mesa Airlines aircraft is:

A

Director of Operations and the PIC

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43
Q

What are the restrictions for a First Officer (FO) takeoff and landings?

A
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44
Q

Pre-takeoff Contamination Check

A

Is not allowed at Mesa Airlines

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45
Q

While deicing for a two-step deicing process, snow fall ceases and no further snow is falling, select the true statement.

A

While deicing for a two-step deicing process, snow fall ceases and no further snow is falling, select the true statement.

Hold over time is not applicable and may be exceeded if no further precipitation is falling

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46
Q

The maximin airspeeds in flight:

A

The maximin airspeeds in flight:

May be exceed if the minimum safe airspeed is higher than the maximum speed prescribed

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47
Q

During abnormal operations in which the QRH requires an increase to the landing distance, the following may be used:

a. The TLR
b. Speed Cards
c. ACARS factored landing distance

A

d. All of the above

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48
Q

During a repositioning flight (part 91) for a Mesa Airlines aircraft:

A

a. The PIC must be landing current
b. The SIC must be landing current
c. Both pilots must be current with operational procedure applicable to systems, performance, normal and emergency procedures, company flight manual.
d. All of the above

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49
Q

Operations in heavy snow:

A

Are never authorized with operations at Mesa Airlines

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50
Q

If the runway conditions change from what is on the release:

A

a. You may reassess the landing conditions using ACARS
b. You may reassess the landing conditions using the TLR provided the airport is the same
c. You may reassess the landing distance using the charts in the CFM
d. All of the above
e. A and C are correct

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51
Q

Under Part 91 the minimum safe altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft must be maintained:

a. Over congested area of a city, town or settlements
b. Over any open air assembly of persons
c. Over sparsely populated areas
d. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to person or property on the surface

A

e. A and B

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52
Q

Mesa Airlines, Inc. will not conduct a Part 91 flight carrying passengers unless:

A

a. Each person has unobstructed access from his seat to a regular or emergency exit
b. Before takeoff, the PIC ensures that each passenger has been briefed on: 1)Smoking
2)The use of seat belts
3)The location and operation of emergency exits
4)The use of oxygen and emergency equipment
c. An approved letter is issued by the CMO (FAA)
d. All of the above

e. Both a and b are correct

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53
Q

Where is Mesa Airlines Safety Policy Statement located?

A

Where is Mesa Airlines Safety Policy Statement located?

B. Behind the cover page of each manual

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54
Q

14 CFR 121.434 requires that Consolidation of Knowledge and Skill occurs within:

A

14 CFR 121.434 requires that Consolidation of Knowledge and Skill occurs within:
120Days

100 Hours in 120 Days

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55
Q

A First Officer with less than 100 in the type of aircraft being flown may not perform takeoffs
or landing when:
A. The crosswind component is in excess of 10knots
B. The runway is contaminated
C. Visibility is reported to be less than 2 statute miles
D. He/she has not flown to or from that particular destination/departure airport

A

A First Officer with less than 100 in the type of aircraft being flown may not perform takeoffs
or landing when:

The runway is contaminated

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56
Q

For a First Officer who is less than 60 years of age, a First Class Medical Certificate must be renewed every:
A. 6Months
B. 12Months
C. 18Months
D. Only a Second Class Medical Certificate Is required to operate are SIC

A

For a First Officer who is less than 60 years of age, a First Class Medical Certificate must be renewed every:

B. 12Months

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57
Q

A crewmember’s FAA Medical Certificate that expires in a given month must be renewed and submitted to Crew Qualifications by the 25th day of that month.
A. True B. False

A

A crewmember’s FAA Medical Certificate that expires in a given month must be renewed and submitted to Crew Qualifications by the 25th day of that month.
A. True

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58
Q

Crewmembers shall not participate in scuba diving within _____ hours prior to reporting for duty:

A

24 hours

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59
Q

It is recommended that crewmembers not donate blood unless absolutely necessary. If necessary, the crewmember shall not report for duty within____hours of giving blood
A. 12Hours
B. 24Hours
C. 48Hours
D. 72Hours

A

It is recommended that crewmembers not donate blood unless absolutely necessary. If necessary, the crewmember shall not report for duty within____hours of giving blood

D. 72Hours

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60
Q

Alcoholic beverages may not be served to:
A. Passengers who appear to be intoxicated
B. InternationalPassengers
C. LEOs
D. Both A.and C

A

Alcoholic beverages may not be served to:

D. Both A.and C.

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61
Q

Mesa Airlines, Inc. will provide a child restraint system only if pre-requested and a seat has been purchased for the child.
A. True B. False

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc. will provide a child restraint system only if pre-requested and a seat has been purchased for the child.

B. False

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62
Q

A passenger must be at least___ years old to occupy a exit row seat
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 15

A

15

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63
Q

Before allowing an FAA Inspector access to the flight deck, what form must be verified?
A. 8430-1
B. 110A
C. 8710-1
D. AFS280

A

Before allowing an FAA Inspector access to the flight deck, what form must be verified?

B. 110A

64
Q

The illusion experienced with a pitch up sensation during acceleration is:
A. The Leans
B. Somatogravic Illusion
C. Inversion Illusion
D. Elevator Illusion

A

The illusion experienced with a pitch up sensation during acceleration is:

B. Somatogravic Illusion

65
Q

A firearm may be store in the overhead bin by a passenger who is a participant of the Trust and Verify program.
A. True
B. False

A

A firearm may be store in the overhead bin by a passenger who is a participant of the Trust and Verify program.

B. False

66
Q

An Occurrence Report is required for the following:

A. When an emergency is declared
B. A bird strike occurs
C. A missed approach is conducted
D. All of the above

A

An Occurrence Report is required for the following:

All of the above

67
Q

What is the Maximum Flight Hours for a crewmember who’s report time was 0525L?
A. 8 Hours
B. 9 Hours
C. 10 Hours
D. 11 Hours

A

9 Hours

68
Q

How many hours may a crewmember fly in any consecutive 672 hours?
A. 1,000Hours
B. 100Hours
C. 60Hours
D. 190Hours

A

100 Hours

69
Q

What is the Maximum Flight-Duty Period for a crewmember who’s report time is 0515L with 4 Flight Segments scheduled?
A. 9Hours
B. 10Hours
C. 11Hours
D. 12Hours

A

What is the Maximum Flight-Duty Period for a crewmember who’s report time is 0515L with 4 Flight Segments scheduled?

D. 12Hours

70
Q

For Short Call Reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed:
A. 12Hours
B. 13Hours
C. 14Hours
D. 16Hours

A

For Short Call Reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed:

C. 14Hours

71
Q

The minimum required rest period between Flight Duty period is:
A. 8Hours
B. 9Hours
C. 10Hours
D. 12Hours

A

The minimum required rest period between Flight Duty period is:

C. 10 Hours

72
Q

How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity must be provided to a crewmember?
A. 8Hours
B. 9Hours
C. 10Hours
D. 11Hours

A

How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity must be provided to a crewmember?

A. 8Hours

73
Q

31) The TWO NAVAID RULE derive a ceiling by adding_____ feet and ____ statue mile to the applicable straight in precision or non precision approach.
A. 200/1⁄2
B. 400/1
C. 600/1

A

31) The TWO NAVAID RULE derive a ceiling by adding_____ feet and ____ statue mile to the applicable straight in precision or non precision approach.

A. 200/1⁄2

74
Q

A FAR 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and/or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the Remarks Section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA under Exemption_______
A. 3585
B. 15460
C. 17347
D. 911

A

A FAR 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and/or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the Remarks Section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA under Exemption_______

C. 17347

75
Q

Flight crews must utilize Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts when available and visibility is:
A. <1800RVR
B. <1400RVR
C. <1200RVR
D. <1s/m

A

Flight crews must utilize Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts when available and visibility is:

C. <1200RVR

76
Q

Sterile Cockpit is defined as:

A. Flight below 10,000feet MSL

B.All flight after take off up to cruise and flight beginning at gradual descent ending with breaks set at the gate

C. Cruise flight if below 10,000 feet MSL

D. Flight during high work load events

A

Sterile Cockpit is defined as:

A. Flight below 10,000 feet MSL

77
Q

Cruise flight below 10,000 is not considered sterile cockpit.
A. True B. False

A

True

78
Q

When landing behind large aircraft, plan to fly above the flight path and touch down beyond the preceding aircrafts touchdown point.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

79
Q

RVSM reduces the vertical separation of aircraft to____ feet when they’re flying at altitudes from FL290 (29,000 feet) to FL410 (41,000 feet).

A. 500Feet

B. 1000Feet

C. 2000Feet

D. 3000Feet

A

B. 1000Feet

80
Q

The Global Positioning System (GPS) consists of_____ satellites orbiting at 10,898 nautical miles above earths surface.
A. 12
B. 15
C. 24
D. 36

A

The Global Positioning System (GPS) consists of_____ satellites orbiting at 10,898 nautical miles above earths surface.

C. 24

81
Q

Clearance to “descend via” authorizes pilots:

A. To vertically and laterally navigate on a STAR/RNAV
B. To execute the specified approach procedure and subsequent missed approach
procedure should the crew not acquire adequate visual reference to land.
C. To disregard publish speeds and altitudes while descend ingto the lowest altitude on the arrival OR the Initial Approach Fix Altitude, whichever is lower.
D. None of the above

A

A. To vertically and laterally navigate on a STAR/RNAV

82
Q

Takeoff is authorized down to____RVR with two transmissometers operational.
A. 1800
B. 1600
C. 1200
D. 500

A

Takeoff is authorized down to____RVR with two transmissometers operational.

D. 500

83
Q

The minimum visibility required for the First Officer to conduct the takeoff is:
A. 1800RVR
B. 2400RVR
C. 1s/m
D. 500RVR

A

The minimum visibility required for the First Officer to conduct the takeoff is:

C. 1s/m

84
Q

When conducting a non-precision approach using CANPA procedures,____feet must be added to MDA.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200

A

When conducting a non-precision approach using CANPA procedures,____feet must be added to MDA.

A. 50

85
Q

Which of the following is true regarding CANPA procedures:
A. The glide path must coincide with the final approach fix
B. When conducting a missed approach, no turns maybe commenced until the MAP
C. When conducting a missed approach, turns maybe commenced at DDA
D. Both a.and b

A

A. The glide path must coincide with the final approach fix
B. When conducting a missed approach, no turns maybe commenced until the MAP
D. Both a and b.

86
Q

A Continental Polar air mass is characterized by warm moist air.
A. True
B. False

A

A Continental Polar air mass is characterized by warm moist air.

B. False

87
Q

Generally, prior to the passage of a warm front, the follow weather phenomena can be observed:
A. Cirriform Clouds
B. Fog
C. Rain
D. All of the above

A

Generally, prior to the passage of a warm front, the follow weather phenomena can be observed:

D. All of the above

88
Q

An occluded front occurs when:

A

Fast moving cold front over takes a slow moving warm front

89
Q

The three conditions required for radiation fog are: Circle all that apply

A

A. Light wind
C. Moistair
D. Clear skies

90
Q

Thunderstorms should be avoided by at least___ NM
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

A

B. 20

91
Q

A Downburst that is created by an area of significantly rain-cooled, descending air that, after hitting ground level, spreads out in all directions producing strong winds is called a

A

Microbust

92
Q

When approaching a microburst, an aircraft will experience and increase in performance prior to experiencing a decrease in performance.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

93
Q

A state of oxygen deficiency in the blood is defined as _____________.

A

HYPOXIA

94
Q

Symptom of hypoxia may include: Circle all that apply.
A. Euphoria
B. Tiredness
C. Excessive Yawning
D. Inner ear pressure

A

A. Euphoria
B. Tiredness

95
Q

Any condition that interrupts the flow of O2O2into the lungs. This is the type of hypoxia encountered at altitude due to the reduction of the partial pressure of O2f O2.
A. Hypemic Hypoxia
B. Histotoxic Hypoxia
C. Stagnant Hypoxia
D. Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

D. Hypoxic Hypoxia

96
Q

According to FAR Part 121 performance requirements, what percentage of the effective length of the runway at the destination must a turbojet airplane be able to make a landing and come to a complete stop?
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 60%

A

D. 60%

97
Q

Regarding dry ice, we can carry up to_____ Ibs per package and a total of___lbs per aircraft.
A. 11/110
B. 5.7/200
C. 5.5/441
D. NoamountofdryiceisallowedonMesaAirlines,Inc.aircraft

A

C. 5.5/441

98
Q

De-Icing procedures can be found in:
A. OpSpecs B. CFM
C. GOM
D. AML

A

De-Icing procedures can be found in:

C. GOM

99
Q

While descending on an instrument approach, the PM states “approach lights in sight.” The PF responds “continuing”. To what altitude can the crew descend?

A. 100feet below MDA

B. DDA+50feet

C. 100feet above HAT

D. TheRA+50feet

A

C. 100feet above HAT

100
Q

During Ground de-icing, the holdover time begins:

A

During Ground de-icing, the holdover time begins:

At the start of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid

101
Q

A category B MEL item is valid for:

A

A category B MEL item is valid for:

3 days, with am3 day extension

102
Q

During a non-critical phase of flight, if one crewmember leaves their seat for physiological needs, the other crewmember, must don the oxygen mask if the aircraft is above:
A. FL310
B. FL210
C. FL250
D. FL410

A

D. FL410

103
Q

Anytime there is cargo onboard, we must be dispatched within____ minutes of a suitable airport to land.
A. 45
B. 30
C. 60
D. 15

A

C. 60

104
Q

RVSM airspace requires the following equipment:

A

1 Autopilot,
1 Altitude alerting system,
2 Altitude reporting transponders and
2 Airdata computers

105
Q

A dispatch release is valid for:

A

2 hours from proposed time of departure

106
Q

Standard conditions for takeoff under IF part 121 flight rules (2 engines) is:

A

1 statute mile

107
Q

Marginal Conditions is defined as____ above the lowest suitable landing minimums.

A

500’ and 1 sm

108
Q

If a particular component or equipment that is missing from the aircraft (which does not affect the safe operation), where would you find any pertinent limitation?

A

CDL

109
Q

How many high risk prisoners may be carried by Mesa Airlines, Inc.?

A

1

110
Q

Which statement is true regarding Exemption 17347? Circle all that apply

A

Themainbodyoftheforecastmustshowtherequiredweather.
B. Theremarkssectionoftheforecastmayshownolessthan50%oftherequiredweather

Thedispatchreleasemustindicatetheflightisdispatchedunder17347

111
Q

On an FAR 121 flight, what is required to proceed past the FAF?

A

Required Visibility

112
Q

f a takeoff alternate is required for dispatch, it must be located no more than _____ from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

A

1 Hour

113
Q

The Accountable Executive for Mesa Airlines, Inc. is:

A

Jonathan Ornstein; CEO

114
Q

METAR KABC 121755Z AUTO 21016G24KT 180V240 1SM R11/P6000FT -RA BR BKN015 OVC025 06/04 A2990 RMK A02 PK WND 20032/25 WSHFT 1715 VIS 3/4V1 1/2 VIS 3/4 RWY11 RAB07 C
013V017 CIG 017 RWY11 PRESFR SLP125 PO003 60009 T00640036 10066 21012 58033 TSNC

Define the “$” in the above METAR

A

MaintenanceNeeded

115
Q

Decode the following from the above METAR: “-RA BR

A

Light Rain and Mist

116
Q

METAR KABC 121755Z AUTO 21016G24KT 180V240 1SM R11/P6000FT -RA BR BKN015 OVC025 06/04 A2990 RMK A02 PK WND 20032/25 WSHFT 1715 VIS 3/4V1 1/2 VIS 3/4 RWY11 RAB07 C
013V017 CIG 017 RWY11 PRESFR SLP125 PO003 60009 T00640036 10066 21012 58033 TSNC

What time was rain observed to begin?

A

None of the above

117
Q

When conducting a CAT II Approach, DH is determined by:

A

Radar Altimeter

118
Q

What are the 4 pillars of Safety Management Systems?

A

Safty

Policy
Risk Management
Assurance
Promotion

119
Q

How will you determine the currency of your manuals?

A

APCL Aircraft Publication Currency List
MCL Minimum Currency List

120
Q

If a FO has less than 100 Hours

A

visibility less than 1 sm
Braking action less than good
Windshear
Crosswind more than 15 kts
Contaminated Runway

121
Q

Which of the following is true regarding fueling procedures?

A

The aircraft door will remain open
FA will establish s secondary exit and keep it clear
In the event of a fuel spill, the aircraft will be immediately evacuated

All of the above are true

122
Q

List the requirements for an approach to be considered stabilized

A

No more than 1000 FPM decent

Fully configured.The planned landing configuration is gear down and locked, final landing flaps, and flight spoilers are retracted.

No more corrections

+- 10 kts not less than VREF

Stabilized Approach Criteria

Flights will be stabilized by 1,000 feet AFE.

All appropriate briefings and checklists have been accomplished.

The planned landing configuration is gear down and locked, final landing flaps, and flight spoilers are retracted.

The aircraft is on the correct track.
The correct track includes normal maneuvering required to align with the final approach course.

The power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration.

After glidepath intercept, or after the FAF, the pilot flying (PF) requires no more than normal corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the touchdown zone.
NOTE
Normal bracketing corrections relate to bank angle of not more than 30°, rate of descent ±300 fpm.

123
Q

What is the max FDP in any 168 consecutive hours?

A

60

124
Q

Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, a crew member must be given at least ….. hours free from all duty within the past 168 hour period.

A

30

125
Q

What is the lowest RVR authorized for takeoff below standard minimums?

A

500 RVR

126
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding takeoff below 1600 RVR?

A

A minimum of 2 operative RVR reporting systems are required

127
Q

The takeoff alternate airport selected must be within

A

60 minutes of the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

128
Q

1 navigation facility

2 navigation facility

A

400 1

200 1/2

129
Q

When is a second alternate airport required?

A

When the forecast weather at destination and first alternate are both marginal.

The 2 alternate must be 100% in ceiling and visibility

130
Q

Surface Guidance Movement and Control. System
SMGCS

A

When surface visibility is less than 1200 RVR

131
Q

Marginal

A

500 1

A ceiling within 500ft of the lowest landing minimums
Visibility within 1 mile above the lowest landing minimum

132
Q

CRM cornerstone

A

Authority with Participatation

Assertiveness with Respect

133
Q

When arriving at uncontrolled airports, flight crew must monitor the CTAF for at least …. minutes and state position and intentions mo less than …. miles from the airport.

A

10 min
10 miles

134
Q

The systematic approach to the mental process

A

Aeronautical decision making

135
Q

CRM 6 components

A

Communication
Coordination
Decision Making
Task and Info Management
Mission Planing
Situation Awareness

136
Q

DECIDE

A

DETECT
ESTIMATE
CHOOSE
ID
DO DELEGATE
EVALUATE

137
Q

An aircraft becomes airworthy again

A

Maintenance is completed and discrepancies are corrected or deferred

138
Q

Maintenance discrepancies must be documented in the

A

AML
Aircraft maintenance log

139
Q

Maintenance discrepancies must be documented in the

A

AML
Aircraft maintenance log

140
Q

What does it mean when MEL contains (M)

A

There is a procedure that mechanics must complete as part of deferral

141
Q

IF an aircraft has a maintenance issue that requires travel to a maintenance base repair the equipment

A

A ferry permit can be authorized for the aircraft to fly to the repair station without revenue passengers

143
Q

There are how many classes of hazardous materials

A

9

144
Q

What is the maximum amount of small arms ammunition permitted in checked baggage?

A

11 pounds per package limited to 110 pounds total per aircraft

144
Q

Which statement is true regarding the carriage of motorized wheelchairs powered by lithium ion batteries?

A

The battery must be removed from the wheelchair and carried as carry on baggage

145
Q

Portable oxygen concentrators

A

Portable oxygen concentrators POC are not considered hazardous materials and are accepted

146
Q

The captain is not required to be notified if the aircraft is a Category B infectious/ biological substances.

A

True

147
Q

On a Cat 1 precision approach, the missed approach must be executed upon reaching

A

DA

148
Q

Upon reaching MDA on a traditional nonprecision approach

A

It is permissible to level off an maintain that altitude until the MAP

149
Q

CAT 1 /DA
CAT 2/ DH

A
150
Q

Holding speeds

A

Up to 6000 /200 Kts
From 6001 to 14000/ 230 kts
From 14001 /265 kts

151
Q

What is required to descend below MDA/DA

A

Runway environment in sight and their judgment a safe landing can be executed.
One of the approved visual references of the runway environment distinctly visible and identifiable

152
Q

if the approach light system, which does not have red terminating or red side row bars, is in sight

A

The pilot is authorized to descend to not less than 100 Ft above TDZE

153
Q

What approach light systems have red side row or red terminating bars?

A

ALSF1/2

154
Q

Loc
Standard service volume of a Loc extends

A

18 miles within 10* of the centerline

155
Q

When conducting PRM approaches

A

Dual VHF receivers are required

175 E (21 decks)

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