Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MS2 Unit 3 > Goljy 26: Nervous System and Special Sensory Disorders > Flashcards

Goljy 26: Nervous System and Special Sensory Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

intracellular edema

A

water moves into cells
caused by:
1. dysfunctional Na+/K+-ATPase pump
2. Hyponatremia causing osmotic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

extracellular edema

A

d/t increased vessel permeability
caused by:
1. acute inflammation
2. metastasis, trauma, lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is a person with head trauma purposely hyperventilated?

A
  • to produce respiratory alkalosis –> cerebral vessel constriction
  • decreases risk of increased vessel permeability and edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What effect do respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia have on cerebral vessels?

A
  • vasodilation –> increased vessel permeability –> edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Signs of increased intracranial pressure

A
  1. papilledema
  2. headache, projectile vomiting w/o nausea
  3. sinus bradycardia, hypertension
  4. potential for herniation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pseudotumor cerebri

A
  • increased intracranial pressure without evidence of tumor/obstruction d/t decreased CSF resorption in arachnoid villi (equilibration in inflow/outflow eventually occurs)
  • papilledema is present, no mental status change/focal neurologic signs
  • MC young obese women, other risks: ATRA used for APML, hypothyroid, Cushing disease, BC pills, isotretinoin, tamoxifen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pseudotumor cerebri Sx, Dx, Tx

A

Sx: headache, rhythmic sound in one/both ears, diplopia, blurry vision

Dx: MRI - flattening of posterior globe
CSF pressure increased, decreased CSF protein

Tx: carbonic anhydrase inhibitor or systemic corticosteroids if visual disturbances present, lumboperitoneal shunt, optic nerve sheath fenestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cerebral herniation

A

a complication of intracranial hypertension where portions of the skull become displaced through either openings in the dural partitions or openings of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

subfalcine herniation

A
  • cingulate gyrus herniates under the falx cerebri

- herniation causes compression of the anterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

uncal herniation

A
  • medial portion of the temporal lobe herniates through the tentorium cerebelli
  • Can cause:
    1. Compression of the midbrain –> Duret hemorrhage
    2. Compression of CN III –> eye deviates down and out, pupil is dilated d/t compression of parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
    3. compression of posterior cerebral artery –> hemorrhagic infarction of occipital lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tonsillar herniation

A
  • cerebellar tonsils herniate into foramen magnum
  • “coning” of cerebellar tonsils
  • cardiorespiratory arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hydrocephalus

A

increase in CSF volume –> enlargement of ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

production and movement of CSF

A
  • produced by choroid plexus in ventricles
  • exists fourth ventricle thru foramina of Luschka and Magendia and enters subarachnoid space
  • reabsorbed by arachnoid villus into dural venous sinuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Communicating hydrocephalus

A
  • open communication btwn ventricles and subarachnoid space
  • Causes:
    1. increased CSF production
    2. obstruction in reabsorption of CSF by arachnoid villi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

A
  • obstruction of CSF flow out of ventricles
  • Causes:
    1. stricture of aqueduct of Sylvius
  • MCC in newborns –>paralysis of upward gaze
  • pineal gland tumor
    2. Tumor in fourth ventricle
    3. scarring at base of brain
    4. colloid cyst in 3rd ventricle
    5. various developmental disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical findings in hydrocephalus

A

Newborns: ventricles dilate and enlarge head circumference

Adults: ventricles enlarge but NO increase in head circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A
  • dilated appearance of the ventricles when the brain mass is decreased from cerebral atrophy, eg. Alzheimer’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Dilated ventricles and “wet wide and wacky” sx:

  • urinary incontinence
  • wide based gait
  • dementia

Causes:
idiopathic
secondary to subarachnoid hemorrhage, intracranial surgery, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathogenesis of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • subarachnoid space volume is increased
  • ventricular dilation is out of proportion to sulcal atrophy
  • wide based gait and urinary incontinence d/t stretching of sacral nerve fibers near dilated ventricle
  • dementia d/t stretching of limbic fibers near dilated ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

normal pressure hydrocephalus dx and tx

A

Dx: MRI shows ventriculomegaly, sulcal atrophy
Large volume of CSF is removed at lumbar puncture, symptoms improve w/ removal of fluid

Tx: ventriculoperitoneal or ventriculoatrial shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neural tube defect

A
  • Failure of the fusion of the lateral folds of the neural plate
  • Rupture of a previously closed neural tube
  • Maternal folic acid levels must be adequate BEFORE pregnancy to prevent open neural tube defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maternal findings in neural tube defect

A

Increased maternal AFP in serum and/or amniotic fluid in anancephaly, meningocele, or myelomeningocele but NOT spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anancephaly

A
  • complete absence of the brain
  • frog-like appearance
  • open spinal canal
  • maternal polyhydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Spina bifida occulta

A
  • defect in closure of the posterior vertebral arch

- dimple or tuft of hair in the skin overlying L5-S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

meningocele

A
  • spina bifida with cystic mass containing meninges

- MC in lumbosacral region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

meningomyelocele

A
  • spina bifida with cystic mass containing meninges and spinal cord
  • MC in lumbosacral region
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Arnold-Chiara malformation

A
  • caudal extension of the medulla and cerebellar vermis through foramen magnum
  • noncommunicating hydrocephalus
  • platybasia
  • a/w meningomyelocele, syringomyelia
  • Tx: decrompression surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dandy-Walker malformation

A
  • partial or complete absence of the cerebellar vermis
  • cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle
  • noncommunicating hydrocephalus
  • Tx: shunt to treat hydrocephalus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

syringomyelia

A
  • degenerative disease of the spinal cord
  • Sx usually appear in 3rd of 4rd decade
  • fluid-filled cavity (syrinx) within cervical spinal cord
  • produces cervical cord enlargement
  • cavity expands and causes degeneration of spinal tracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pathogenesis of syringomyelia

A
  • obstruction of outflow from fourth ventricle

- birth injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clinical findings in syringomyelia

A
  • disruption of the crossed lateral spinothalamic tracts –> pain and temp lost in the hands, tactile sense preserved
  • destruction of anterior horn cells –> atrophy of intrinsic muscle of the hands, often confused with ALS
  • Charcot joint in shoulder, elbow, or wrist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dx and Tx of syringomyelia

A

Dx: MRI shows enlarged cervical cord and a cystic cavity

Tx: drainage of syrinx slows progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Phakomatoses

A
  • neurocutaneous syndromes including:
    1. disordered growth of ectodermal tissue
    2. malformationf or tumors of the CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Neurofibromatosis

A

AD w/ incomplete penetrance, no gender predominance

  • Type 1: MC, mutation on chromosome 17 coding for neurofibromin
  • Type 2: mutation on chromosome 22 coding for merlin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

NF1

A
  • cafe au lait spots
  • optic gliomas
  • Lisch nodules
  • axillary and inguinal freckling
  • mild scoliosis
  • pigmented plexiform neurofibromas
  • pigmented cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas

a/w: pheochromocytoma, Wilms tumor, juvenile CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

NF2

A

a/w bilateral acoustic neuromas (CN8 benign tumor –> hearing loss, tinnitis), meningiomas, spinal schwannomas, juvenile cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

AD, mental retardation and seizures beginning in infancy

  • angiofibromas on the face
  • hypopigmented skin lesions called shagreen patches/ash leaf spots
  • subungal or periungal fibromas
  • hamartomas: astrocyte proliferations, angiomyolipomas in kidneys, rhabdomyoma in the heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sturge- Weber syndrome

A
  • somatic mosacism or sporadic
  • vascular malformation on the face in trigem nerve distribution
  • some patients have ipsilateral AV malformation in meninges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cerebral contusion

A

permanent damage to small blood vessels and the surface of the brain, most often secondary to an acceleration-deceleration injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Coup injury

A

occurs at site of impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Contrcoup injury

A

occurs opposite the site of impact, MC tips of frontal and temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

epidural hematoma

A
  • arterial bleed creates a blood-filled space between the bone and dura
  • caused by a fracture of the temporoparietal bone –> severance of the middle meningeal artery
  • increased ICP –> herniation and death
  • Dx: CT
  • hematoma rarely crosses suture line
  • Tx: burr holes to relieve pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

subdural hematoma

A
  • venous bleeding between the dura and arachnoid membranes
  • MC d/t blunt trauma, also: medical anticoagulation, hemophilia, child abuse, spontaneous
  • Risk factors: old people and alcoholics with brain atrophy
  • tear in bridging veins between brain and dural sinuses are torn, causes venous blood clot
  • herniation and death, chronic: dementia
  • Tx: burr holes to relieve pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 categories of cerebrovasular diseases:

A
  1. thrombosis
  2. infarction
  3. hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Causes of cerebrovascular disease:

A
  • Reduced blood supply and O2 of tissue

- CNS hemorrhage from rupture of cerebral vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Global hypoxic injury

A

Causes: cardiac arrest, hypovolemic shock, septic shock, CO poisoning

Complications: cerebral atrophy (necrosis of neurons in layers 3, 5, 6 of cerebral cortex), Watershed infarcts at the junctions of arterial territories, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stroke

A

sudden loss of blood circulation to an area of the brain resulting in a loss of neurologic function
- risk increases w/ age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Atherosclerotic stroke

A

MC type of stroke

  • ischemic type of stroke caused by a platelet thrombosis that develops over a disrupted atherosclerotic plaque
  • Common locations: MCA, internal carotid artery near bifurfaction, basilar artery
  • Prevention: aspirin, clopidogrel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Gross/microscopic findings in atherosclerotic stroke

A
  1. Develops at the periphery of the cerebral cortex –> pale infarct
  2. Swelling of the brain, loss of demarcation btwn grey and white matter, myelin breakdown
  3. Gliosis
  4. Cystic area develops after 10 days-3 weeks d/t liquefactive necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Transient ischemic attack

A

Transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain/spinal cord/retinal ischemia without infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

a retinal TIA caused by microembolization of atherosclerotic material to a bifurcation of the retinal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tx of TIA

A
  • Antithrombic therapy
  • Antiplately therapy
  • possible carotid endarectomy/stenting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Strokes involving MCA

A
  • contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss in the face and upper extremity
  • expressive aphasia if Broca’s area is involved in L hemisphere
  • visual field defects
  • head and eyes deviate toward site of lesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Strokes involving ACA

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss in lower extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Strokes involving vertebrobasilar arterial system

A
  • vertigo, ataxia
  • ipsilateral sensory loss in the face
  • contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss in trunk and limbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Embolic stroke

A
  • Ischemic type of stroke due to embolization
  • Emboli MC originate from L side of heart
  • produces a hemorrhagic infarction (MC in MCA, reperfusion after lysis of embolic material –> hemorrhage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sources of emboli

A
  1. Mural thrombi in LV after AMI, aortic/mitral valve vegetations, L. atrium in a fib
  2. A fib d/t thrombus formation in LA from stasis of blood
  3. “Shower” embolization (emboli blocking numerous small vessels)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Most often d/t stress imposed on vessels by hypertension

  • branches of lenticulostriate vessels develop Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms
  • rupture of aneurysms –> intracerebral hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Common sites of intracerebral hemorrahage

A

Basal ganglia, thalamus, pons and cerebellar hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Slit hemorrhage

A

A/w hypertension
Rupture of small caliber penetrating vessels, producing hemorrhages that resorb blood, leaving slit-like spaces with a brownish-red pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A
  • Majority secondary to rupture of berry aneurysm

- Can also be d/t bleeding from an AV malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Berry aneurysm

A

yum yum berries

Risk factors: normal hemodynamic stress, hypertension, coarctation of aorta, atherosclerosis, smoking

Most develop at junctions of communicating branches with main cerebral artery - junctions lack internal elastic lamina and smooth muscle

MC site is junction of the anterior communicating branch with ACA

Rupture releases blood into subarachnoid space

Blood in CSF is broken down into bilirubin pigment –> xanthochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Clinical findings in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

“Worst headache ever”
Nuchal rigidity from blood irritating meninges
50% mortality
Complications: further hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, neurologic defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Lacunar infarct

A
  • Cystic area of microinfarction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Dx of stroke

A

CT scan without contrast, distinguishes hemorrhage from nonhemorrhagic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tx of stroke

A

Acute: Thrombolytic therapy in thromboembolic strokes (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pathogenesis of CNS infections

A
  1. Hematogenous (MC)
  2. Traumatic implantation
  3. Local extension from nearby infection
  4. Ascent via peripheral nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Meningitis

A
  • Inflammation of pia mater covering the brain

- Usually d/t hematogenous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pathogenesis of bacterial meningitis

A

Adherence of bacteria to mucosa of nasopharynx >
Bacteremia >
Translocation through the BBB using bacterial lysins >
Bacterial in the subarachnoid space attract neutrophils >
Acute meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Risk factors for bacterial meningitis in kids

A
  1. undernutrition, otitis media
  2. pneumonia, immunodeficiency
  3. viral infection, sickle cell
  4. craniofacial abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Viral meningitis

A

Mostly fecal-oral, respiratory less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Clinical findings and complications of meningitis

A

Clinical: Fever, nuchal rigidity, headache

Complications: Seizures, focal neurolog deficits, cranial nerve palsies, sensorineural hearing loss, communicating and noncommunicating hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lab findings in viral meningitis

A
  1. Increased CSF protein
  2. Increased total CSF leukocyte count (lymphocytes)
  3. Normal CSF glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Lab findings in bacterial meningitis

A
  1. Increased CSF protein
  2. Increased total CSF leukocyte count (neutrophils)
  3. Decreased CSF glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Lab findings in fungal meningitis

A
  1. Increased CSF protein
  2. Increased total CSF leukocyte count (lymphocytes)
  3. Decreased CSF glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Encephalitis

A
  • Inflammation of the brain
  • Fever, headache, impaired mental status, drowsiness
  • Meningoencephalitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cerebral abscess

A
  • Either spreads from an adjacent focus of infection OR hematogenous spread
  • Single or multiple lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Demyelinating disorders pathogenesis

A
  1. Destruction of normal myelin
  2. Production of abnormal myelin
  3. Destruction of oligodendrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A
  • MC demyelinating disease, MC in females 20-40

- An autoimmune disease with genetic (HLA-DR2) and environmental (microbial pathogens, vitamin D, sun exposure) factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pathogenesis of MS

A
  1. CD4+ TH1 cells and TH17 cells react against self myelin antigens (type IV hypersensitivity)
  2. CD4+ TH1 cells secrete IFN-gamma–> activates macrophages, TH17 releases cytokines to recruit neutrophils + monocytes
  3. Leukocytes + TNFa attack myelin sheath and oligodendrocytes –> demyelination
  4. Antibodies produced by autoreactive B cells are directed towards myelin sheath and oligodendrocytes as well (type II hypersensitivity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Gross and microscopic findings in MS

A
  • Demyelinating plaques in white matter of brain/spinal cord, white matter looks like grey matter
  • Inflammatory infiltrate in plaques is composed of CD4+ T-cells, monocytes, and microglial cells w/ phagocytosed lipid
82
Q

Clinical findings in MS

A
  1. Episodic course w/ acute relapses and remissions
  2. Sensory dysfunction: paresthesias, loss of pain, temp, vibratory sensation
  3. UMN dysfunction: spasticity, increased DTRs, muscle spasms, Babinski, weakness
  4. Autonomic dysfunction: urge incontinence, sexual dysfunction, bowel motility probs
  5. Optic neuritis
  6. Cerebellar ataxia
  7. Scanning speech
  8. Intention tremor, nystagmus
  9. Bilateral internuclear opthalmoplegia (demyelinated MLF)
  10. Flexion of neck –> electrical sensation down spine
83
Q

Lab findings in MS

A
  1. Increased CSF leukocyte count
  2. Increased CSF protein
  3. Increased CSF MBP
  4. Normal CSF glucose
  5. High-res electrophoresis: oligoclonal bands (sign of demyelination)
  6. MRI sensitive to demyelinating plaques
84
Q

Dx and Tx of MS

A

Dx: spinal tap, MRI with gadolinium

Tx: Acute relapse: high dose methylprednisolone
Chronic: DMARDs, monoclonal antibody, cytotoxic drugs

85
Q

Central pontine myelinolysis

A
  • MC in alcoholics w/ hyponatremia
  • Rapid IV correction causes demyelination in basis pontis
  • Tx: supportive
86
Q

Group B strep neonatal meningitis

A
  • Gram + coccus
  • MCC neonatal meningitis
  • Spreads from focus of infxn in maternal vagina
  • Tx: penicillin G or ampicillin
87
Q

E. coli neonatal meningitis

A
  • Gram - rod
  • 2nd MCC neonatal meningiti
  • Tx: ceftazidime + gentamicin
88
Q

Listeria neonatal meningitis

A
  • Gram + rod, tumbling motility, actin rockets
  • Soft cheese and hot dogs
  • Tx: ampicillin + gentamicin
89
Q

Strep pneumoniae meningitis

A
  • Gram + diplococcus
  • MCC meningitis in patients over 18
  • Tx: ceftriaxone + vanc + dexamethasone
90
Q

Neisseria meningitidis meningitis

A
  • Gram - diplococcus found in posterior nasopharynx
  • MCC meningitis in people under 18
  • Tx: ceftriaxone
  • prophylaxis: cipro/rifampin/ceftriaxone
91
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis meningitis

A
  • Complication of primary TB
  • Involves base of brain
  • Vasculitis and scarring
  • Tx: isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, dexamethasone
92
Q

Trepona pallidium meningitis, encephalitis, myelitis

A
  • Gram - spirochete
  • Types of neurosyphilis: Meningovascular, General paresis, Tabes dorsalis
    Tx: penicillin G
93
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis, encephalitis

A
  • Immunocompromised host
  • MC fungal infxn in AIDS
  • Budding yeasts visible with India ink
    Tx: fluconazole non-AIDS, amphotericin + flucytosine
94
Q

Mucor species frontal lobe abscess

A

Occurs in DKA, spreads from frontal sinuses

Tx: amphotericin B

95
Q

Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis

A
  • Protozoa
  • Involves frontal lobes
  • Contracted by swimming in freshwater lakes
  • Tx: amphotericin B
96
Q

T. brucei encephalitis

A
  • Protozoa
  • Transmission from bite of tsetse fly
  • Diffuse encephalitis, starvation MC death
  • Dx: trypanosomes in blood, CSF; blood test
  • Tx: pentamidine early, melarsoprol in encephalitis stage
97
Q

Taenia solium cystericercosis

A
  • Helminth transmitted by pigs
  • Patient eats food or water containing eggs –> larval form invades brain –> calcified cysts cause seizures and hydrocephalus
  • Tx: albenzadole + dexamethasone
98
Q

T. gondii encephalitis

A
  • Protozoa
  • MC CNS space-occupying lesion in AIDS, ring-enhancing lesions on CT
  • Congenital toxoplasmosis produces basal ganglia calcification
  • Tx: pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
99
Q

Leukodystrophies

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

100
Q

Adrenoleukodystrophy

A
  • XR disorder
  • Enzyme deficiency in B-oxidation of fatty acids in peroxisomes –> accumulation of long chain fatty acids
  • generalized loss of myelin in brain, adrenal insufficiency
101
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

AR lysosomal storage disease

- deficiency of arylsulfatase A resuls in accumulation of sulfatides

102
Q

Krabbe disease

A
  • AR LSD
  • Galactocerebroside B-galactocerebrosidase deficiency, leads to accumulation of galactocerebroside
  • Brain shows large multinucleated histiocytic globoid cells
103
Q

Alzheimer disease epidemiology

A
  • MCC dementia, 3 types:
    1. sporadic late onset type (MC)
    2. sporadic early onset type (related to apolipoprotein E)
    3. familial early onset type (mutations of APP on chromosome 21, presenilin 1 on chromosome 14, presenilin 2 on chromosome 1)
  • Prevalence increases with age
  • Down syndrome has strong a/w Alzheimers
104
Q

Where does B amyloid damage neurons?

A
  • medial temporal lobe
  • frontal cortex esp. entorhinal cortex, hippocampus
  • occipital lobe spared
105
Q

Role of activated glycogen synthase kinase-3B in neurotoxicity of B amyloid

A
  1. Activation of GSK causes phosphylation of AB –> neurotoxic
  2. Phosphorylated AB has positive feedback on GSK
  3. Initial activation of GSK traced to dysfunction within Wnt
  4. Normal Wnt signaling pathway inactivates GSK, preventing phosphorylation of AB
  5. When Wnt is dysfunctional, GSK stays activated –> phosphorylation of AB –> neurotoxicity
106
Q

How does AB stain?

A

Stains positive with Congo red, has apple-green birefringence with polarization

107
Q

What is AB a metabolic product of?

A
  • APP
  • APP normally coded for on chromosome 21
  • Defects in metabolism of APP –> increase in AB
  • a-secretases cleave APP into fragments that cannot produce AB
  • B- secretases followed by g-secretases cleave APP into fradments that are converted to AB
108
Q

Insulin degrading enzyme

A
  • involved in the clearance of AB

- insulin resistance syndromes have increased risk for Alzheimers

109
Q

Role of tau protein in Alzheimers

A
  • Normal fxn is to main microtubules in neurons

- Activated GSK enhances hyperphosphorylation of tau protein –> protein changes shape into NF tangles in cytoplasm

110
Q

How are NF tangles visualized?

A

Silver stain

111
Q

What do NF tangles do?

A

Produce neuronal dysfunction including death of the neuron

112
Q

PIN1 enzyme

A

Strips excess phosphate molecules from NF, restoring it to its original shape
- Deficient in some cases of Alzheimers

113
Q

Gross and microscopic findings in Alzheimers

A
  1. Cerebral atrophy with dilation of ventricles
  2. NF tangles in cytoplasm of neurons
  3. Senile plaques
  4. Amyloid angiopathy
  5. Confirmation of AD requires postmortem exam of brain
114
Q

Clinical findings in Alzheimers

A
  • Decline in short term memory
  • loss of smell
  • Reduced ability for self care
  • No focal neurologic deficits early in disease
  • pts usually die from infxn
115
Q

Dx, Tx of Alzheimers

A
  • presumptive dx made with mental status testing
  • PET used for DDx of dementia

Tx: Cholinesterase inhibitors, Memantine

116
Q

Parkinsonism

A
  • a group of disorders that alter dopaminergic pathways involved in voluntary muscle movement
117
Q

What part of the brain is involved in voluntary muscle movement?

A

The striatal system, includes: substantia nigra, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamus, thalamus

118
Q

What is the principal NT of the nigrostriatal tract?

A

DOPAMINE

- connects the substantia nigra with the caudate and putamen

119
Q

Causes of Parkinsonism

A
  1. idiopathic (MC)
  2. encephalitis, ischemia
  3. Chronic CO poisoning
  4. Wilson disease
  5. Addiction to MPTP
  6. Antipsychotic drugs
120
Q

Pathophys of Parkinson disease

A
  1. Degeneration/depigmentation of neurons in the substantia nigra
  2. Causes deficiency of dopamine
  3. Most cases are sporadic
121
Q

Clinical findings in Parkinson disease

A
  1. Muscle rigidity (bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity)
  2. Resting tremor (“pill rolling”, illegible handwriting)
  3. Expressionless face, stooped posture
  4. Difficulty in initiating first step, shuffling gait
  5. Blepharospasm, postural instability
  6. Commonly have severe seborrheic dermatitis
  7. Dementia in some cases
122
Q

Tx for Parkinson disease

A
  • avoid drugs that worsen Parkinsonism (neuroleptics, antiemetics, MAOIs)
  • Levodopa
  • Carbidopa, benserazide - dopa decarboxylase inhibitor
  • Bromocriptine, pergolide - dopamine agonist
  • Selegiline, rasagiline - inhibit MAO-B
  • Surgical procedures
123
Q

Huntington disease

A
  • AD trinucleotide repeat disorder (CAG) involving chromosome 4
  • delayed appearance of Sx until age 30-40
  • no gender difference
  • Atrophy/loss of striatal neurons (caudate, putamen, globus pallidus)
124
Q

Clinical findings in Huntingtons

A
  • Chorea
  • Oculomotor abnormalities
  • Parkinsonism in later stages
  • Depression
125
Q

Dx and Tx of Huntingtons

A

Dx: genetic testing, imaging studies show atrophy of caudate and putamen

Tx: supportive :(

126
Q

Friedreich ataxia

A
  • AR trinucleotide repeat disorder (GAA)
  • Frataxin deficiency –> impaired mitochondrial iron homeostasis –> cells more prone to apoptosis
  • Sites of degeneration: dorsal root ganglia, posterior columns, spinocerebellar tract, lateral corticospinal tracts, large sensory peripheral neurons
  • Hypertrophic cardiomegaly
  • T1DM
127
Q

Clinical findings in Friedreich ataxia

A
  • Progressive gait ataxia
  • Loss of deep tendon reflexes, initially at ankles
  • Loss of vibratory sensation and proprioception
  • Muscle weakness in legs
128
Q

Dx and Tx of Friedreich ataxia

A

Dx: Genetic testing, MRI shows spinal cord atrophy

Tx: supportive :(

129
Q

ALS

A
  • degenerative disease involving loss of upper and lower motor neurons
  • Sx usually appear between age 40-60
  • Most cases are sporadic
  • Possibly d/t mutated or misfolded superoxide dismutase 1 or misfolded leading to apoptosis of neurons
130
Q

Clinical findings in ALS

A
  • UMN signs: Spasticity, Babinski
  • LMN signs: Muscle weakness beginning with atrophy of intrinsic muscles of hands, eventual paralysis of respiratory muscles
  • no sensory changes
  • preservation of bowel and bladder fxn
131
Q

ALS Dx and Tx

A

Dx: electromyography and nerve conduction studies

Tx: Riluzole (glutamate antagonist), average survival time is 3-5 years

132
Q

Werdnig-Hoffman disease

A

Lower motor neuron disease that occurs in children

133
Q

Wilson disease

A
  • AR defect of copper excretion in bile
  • Defect in incorporation of copper into ceruloplasmin –> liver cirrhosis, excess free copper in blood
  • CNS findings: atrophy and cavitation of basal ganglia, esp globus pallidus + putamen
  • parkinsonism, chorea, dementia
134
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria

A
  • AD defect in porphyrin metabolism
  • Deficiency of uroporphyrinogen synthase
  • Proximal increase in porphobilinogen and ALA
  • Heme has a negative feedback relationship with ALA synthase, so decrease in heme –> porphyric attack!!!
135
Q

What is super spooky about pee in acute intermittent porphyria

A

When you first void, urine is COLORLESS
Exposure to light oxidizes PBG to porphobilin producing PORT-WINE COLOR
Classic “window sill test”

136
Q

Clinical findings in acute intermittent porphyria

A
  • Recurrent severe abdominal pain simulating acute abdomen –> patient has “bellyful of scars” (wut)
  • Psychosis, peripheral neuropathy, dementia
137
Q

Dx, Tx of acute intermittent porphyria

A

Dx: Enzyme assay in RBCs

Tx: Avoid drugs that precipitate attacks, carbo loading with glucose to inhibit ALA synthase

138
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (posterior column and lateral corticospinal tract demyelination)
- dementia, peripheral neuropathy

139
Q

CNS findings in alcohol abuse

A
  1. Cortical and cerebellar atrophy
  2. Central pontine myelinolysis
  3. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
  4. Tx: Thiamine supplement
140
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A
  • MC d/t thiamine deficiency
  • Hemorrhages of small vessels w// hermosiderin deposits in the mammillary bodies and walls of 3rd and 4rd ventricles
  • Neuronal loss, gliosis
  • Wernicke encephalopathy (reversible)
  • Korsakoff psychosis
141
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

A

Reversible: confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, opthalmoplegia

142
Q

Korsakoff psychosis

A
  • Advanced irreversible stage of Wernicke encephalopathy targeting limbic system
  • Anterograde amnesia
  • Retrograde amnesia
  • Confabulation, hallucinations
143
Q

Primary brain tumors in adults

A
  • Most ABOVE tentorium cerebelli

- In order from greatest freq to least: GBM, meningioma, ependymoma

144
Q

Primary brain tumors in children

A
  • 2nd MC cancer in kids
  • Most BELOW tentorium cerebelli
  • In order from greatest freq to least: Cystic cerebellar astrocytoma, medulloblastoma, brainstem glioma
145
Q

Risk factors for brain tumors

A

Turcot syndrome, neurofibromatosis, cigarette smoking

146
Q

General clinical findings in brain tumor

A
  • Headache: worse during night, a/w nausea + vomiting
  • Seizures
  • Signs/Sx intracranial HTN
147
Q

Imaging studies for brain tumor

A
  • MRI w/ gadolinium enhancement
  • CT if calcium or hemorrhage is present
  • fMRI for lesions in vital areas
  • PET
148
Q

Tx for brain tumors

A

Surgery, irradiation, chemo

149
Q

Astrocytoma

A
  • Accounts for ~70% of all neuroglial tumors
  • Usually involves frontal lobe in adults, cerebellum in kids
  • Grades I and II are low grade, III and IV are high grade
150
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A
  • High grade astrocytoma, may arise de novo OR from dedifferentiation of a low-grade astrocytoma
  • Hemorrhagic tumor: multifocal areas of necrosis and cystic degeneration, commonly crosses corpus callosum
  • May seed neuraxis via CSF, rarely mets outside CNS
  • Generally shit prognosis
151
Q

Meningioma

A
  • MC benign brain tumor in adults
  • MC in females (tumor has estrogen and progesterone receptors), some have androgen receptors
  • Derived from meningothelial cell within arachnoid membrane that lines but is not adherent to the dura: MC has parasagittal location; other sites are olfactory groove and lesser wing of sphenoid
  • A/W NF2, history of radiation
  • Firm tumors that may indent surface of brain, causes increased bone density
  • swirling masses of meningothelial cells encompass psammoma bodies
  • New-onset focal seizures
152
Q

Enpendymoma

A
  • Benign tumor derived from ependymal cells

- Arises in cauda equina in adults, 4th ventricle in kids (can produce non-communicating hydrocephalus)

153
Q

Medulloblastoma

A
  • Malignant small cell tumor, primarily in kids
  • Arises from external granular cell layer of cerebellum
  • Often seeds neuraxis and invades 4th ventricle
154
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A
  • Benign tumor derived from oligodendrocytes, primarily in adults
  • Frontal lobe tumor that frequently calcifies
155
Q

CNS lymphoma

A
  • Majority are metastatic high grade B-cell non Hodgkins lymphomas
  • Primary CNS lymphomas: MC a/w AIDS, also: EBV-mediated B-cell lymphomas
156
Q

Most common cancer in the brain

A
  • Metastasis!

- In order of decreasing frequency: lung, breast, skin, kidney

157
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A
  • Associated with demyelination and axonal degeneration
  • Demyelination is often segmental –> sensory change often in “glove and stocking” distibution
  • Axonal degenerations –> muscle fasciculations, atrophy
158
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

A
  • MC hereditary neuropathy, AD
  • Peroneal nerve neuropathy –> causes atrophy of muscles in lower legs, legs have “inverted bottle” appearance
  • Tx: supportive
159
Q

Guillain-Barré Disease

A
  • MC acute peripheral neuropathy
  • MCC acute flaccid paralysis
  • Predominantly motor involvement
  • Autoimmune demyelination syndrome involving nerve roots and peripheral nerves
  • Common preceding infections: M. pneumoniae pneumonia, Campylobacter jejuni enteritis, viral infections
160
Q

Sx of Guillain-Barré

A
  • Rapidly progressive ascending motor weakness usually starting at proximal muscles and moving distally
  • Danger of respiratory muscle paralysis and death
  • Depressed or absent deep tendon reflexes in arms and legs
  • Glove and stocking paresthesias/anesthesia
161
Q

Lab findings in Guillain-Barré

A
  • Increased CSF protein, oligoclonal bands present on hi-res electrophoresis
  • CSF glucose, cell count normal
162
Q

Dx, Tx, Prognosis of Guillain-Barré

A

Dx: Spinal tap w/ increased CSF protein, electromyography + nerve conduction studies

Tx: Infusion IVIG or plasma exchange, mechanical vent if necessary

Prognosis: 5-10% mortality, full recovery 60%, residual weakness 15% (these numbers don’t add up wtf)

163
Q

Diabetes mellitus neuropathy

A
  • MCC peripheral neuropathy, d/w osmotic damage of Schwann cells
164
Q

Idiopathic Bell Palsy

A
  • LMN palsy causing unilateral facial paralysis
  • Inflammatory reaction of facial nerve
  • May be associated w/ HSV, HIV, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease (often bilateral), pregnancy
165
Q

Sx of LMN Bell palsy

A
  • ipsilateral upper and lower face involvement
  • drooping of corner of mouth
  • difficulty speaking
  • inability to close eye
  • inability to wrinkle forehead
  • hyperacusis in some cases
166
Q

Sx of UMN Bell Palsy

A
  • Contralateral lower face involved

- Contralateral upper face spared

167
Q

Drugs that cause peripheral neuropathy

A

Vincristine, hydralazine, phenytoin

168
Q

Vitamin deficiencies that cause peripheral neuropathy

A

Deficiency of thiamine, B12, pyridoxine

169
Q

Tx of peripheral neuropathies

A
  • Antiseizure meds: gabapentin, carbamazepine
  • Lidocaine patch
  • Tricyclic antidepressants: amitriptyline, nortriptyline
170
Q

Schwannoma

A
  • Benign tumor derived form Schwann cells
  • CN V and VIII may be involved
  • Spinal nerve roots, peripheral nerves may be involved
171
Q

Acoustic neuroma

A
  • Schwannoma of CN VIII
  • MC located in cerebellopontine angle
  • Encapsulated tumors, usually unilateral, alternating dark + light areas under microscope
  • Sx: associated w/ NF2 (bilateral), tinnitus, sensorineural deafness, sensory changes in CN V d/t nerve impingemtn
  • Tx: surgery
172
Q

Arcus senilis

A
  • MC in elderly
  • Grey-opaque ring at corneal margin
  • Cholesterol deposits in corneal stroma, may indicate hypercholesterolemia if under
173
Q

Opthalmia neonatorum

A

COnjunctivitis in newborn
Pathogens: Gonorrhea (first week), Chlamydia (2nd week)
Tx: ceftriaxone (gon), erythromycin (chlam), erythromycin eye drops for irritation

174
Q

Bacterial conjunvtivitis

A
  • Purulent conjunctivitis, pain but no blurry vision
  • Pathogens: Staph aureus, Strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae
  • Tx: gatifloxacin drops
175
Q

Viral conjunctivitis

A
  • Watery exudate
  • Adenovirus: viral cause of pinkeye, painful periauricular adenopathy, no tx
  • HSV1: keratoconjunctivitis with dendritic ulcers noted with fluorescein staining, tx: trifluridine opthalmic
176
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis

A
  • Seasonal itching of eyes

- Tx: antihistamine opthalmic solutions, olopatadine

177
Q

Acanthamoeba infection

A
  • Severe keratoconjunctivitis in patients who do not clean their contacts properly
  • Tx: propamidine + polymyxin/neomycin/granmicidin opthalmic
178
Q

Stye

A
  • Infection of the eyelid most commonly d/t staph aureus

- Tx: hot packs, dicloxacillin

179
Q

Chalazion

A
  • Granulomatous inflammation involving the meibomian gland in the eyelid; usually disappears on its own w/in 2 months
  • Tx: if it doesn’t go away on its own, intralesional corticosteroid injection or surgical removal
180
Q

Orbital cellulitis

A
  • Periorbital redness and swelling often secondary to sinusitis
  • Pathogens: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
  • Fever, proptosis, periorbital swelling, opthalmoplegia, normal retinal exam
  • Tx: nafcillin + ceftriaxone + metronidazole
181
Q

Orbital fracture

A
  • MC a/w blunt trauma to eye that produces orbital floor fracture
  • Often a/w edema and ecchymoses of eyelids and periorbital region
  • Vertical diplopia, prolapse of orbital contents into maxillary sinus, damage to infraorbital nerve
  • Tx: varies w/ severity
182
Q

Pterygium

A
  • Raised, triangular encroachment of thickened conjunctiva on the nasal side of conjunctiva, may grow onto cornea
  • D/t excessive exposure to wind, sun, sand
  • Tx: surgical removal
183
Q

Pinguecula

A
  • Yellow-white conjunctival degeneration at the junction of the cornea and sclera on the temporal side of the conjunctiva
  • Does NOT grow onto the cornea like pterygium does
  • Usually doesn’t require tx
184
Q

Optic neuritis

A
  • Inflammation of optic nerve
  • Causes: MS, methanol poisoning
  • Blurry vision or loss of vision, may cause optic atrophy
  • Tx: corticosteroids
185
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion

A

Causes: embolization of plaque from ipsilateral carotid or opthalmic artery, giant cell temporal arteritis involving opthalmic artery

Sx: Sudden, painless, complete loss of vision in one eye, pallor of optic disk d/t narrowed arteries, “boxcar” segmentation of blood in retinal veins, cherry red macula

Tx: acetazolamide to lower intraocular pressure, carbogen, hyperbaric O2 therapy

186
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion

A
  • Causes: hypercoagulable state

Sx: Sudden painless unilateral loss of vision, swelling of optic disk, engorged retinal veins w/ hemorrhage

Tx: intravitreal injections, laser photocoagulation

187
Q

Chronic open angle glaucoma

A
  • Decreased rate of aqueous outflow into canal of Schlemm
  • Common in persons with severe near-sightedness
  • Bilateral aching eyes, pathologic cupping of the optic disks, night blindness and gradual loss of peripheral vision leading to tunnel vision and blindness
  • Tx: 1st: Beta blockers, 2nd: prostaglandins, a-adrenergic agonists, pilocarpine, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, laser trabeculoplasty
188
Q

Acute closed angle glaucoma

A
  • Narrowing of the anterior chamber angle
  • Medical emergency
  • Precipitated by mydriatic agent
  • Uveitis, lens dislocation, severe pain a/w photophobia and blurry vision
  • Red eye with steamy cornea (wut), pupil fixed and nonreactive to light
  • Tx: pilocarpine + systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor to lower pressure to allow for laser surgery
189
Q

Optic nerve atrophy

A

Pale optic disk
MC d/t optic neuritis or glaucoma
No effective treatment

190
Q

Uveitis

A
  • Inflammation of the uveal tract (iris, ciliary body, choroid)
  • Causes: sarcoidosis, ulcerative colitis, ankylosing spondylitis
  • Pain w/ blurry vision, miotic pupil, circumcorneal ciliary body vascular congestion, normal intraocular pressure, adhesions between iris and anterior lens capsule
  • Tx: corticosteroids, atropine
191
Q

Macular degeneration

A
  • MCC permanent visual los in elderly
  • Disruption of Bruch membrane in retina
  • Dry: thinning of retina and formation of yellowish white deposits (drusen)
  • Wet: extension of dry type, vessels under retina hemorrhage –> retinal cells die –> blind spots or distorted central vision
  • Antioxidants may lower risk
  • Tx: antiangiogenics, insertion of special lens
192
Q

CMV retinitis

A
  • MCC blindness in AIDS, usually when CD4 count
193
Q

Cataracts

A
  • Opacity in the lens
  • Causes: advanced age, diabetes, infection
  • Common in congenital infections
  • Tx: cataract extraction
194
Q

Malignant eye tumors

A
  • Retinoblastoma in children
  • Malignant melanoma
  • Tx: enucleation
195
Q

Meniere disease

A
  • Increased endolymph in inner ear and loss of cochlear hairs
  • Dizziness, vertigo, tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss
  • Tx: HCTZ + triamterene, surgery
196
Q

Sensorineural defect

A

Weber test: lateralizes to normal ear

197
Q

Conduction defect

A

Weber test: lateralizes to affected ear

  • D/t degeneration of cochlear hairs
  • Tx: amplification devices, cochlear implants
198
Q

Otosclerosis

A
  • MCC conduction deafness in elderly
  • D/t fusion of ossicles
  • Tx: amplification devices, surgery
199
Q

Otitis media

A
  • MCC conduction deafness in children
  • Usually d/t Strep pneumoniae
  • Tx: antipyrine and benzocaine drops for pain, controversy over use of abx
200
Q

External otitis

A
  • Inflammation of outer ear canal
  • Swimmers ear –> tx: ear drops – polymixin B + neomycin + hydrocortisone + selenium sulfide shampoo
  • Malignant external otitis: severe infection of outer ear canal in patients w/ diabetes, tx: imipenem-cilastatin

MS2 Unit 3 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions