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GMAC 2019 > GMAC 2017 > Flashcards

GMAC 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

What UN class are Bio Hazards?

A

Class 6

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2
Q

What are the four classes of Bio Hazards?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Protozoa
  4. Fungi and spores
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3
Q

What are the four ‘hazard groups’ for bio hazards according to the Advisory Committee on Dangerous Pathogens (ACDP)?

A

Group 1: unlikely to cause human disease

Group 2: Can cause human disease; is unlikely to spread; usually treatable/prophylaxis

Group 3: Can cause severe human disease; may spread; usually treatable

Group 4: Causes severe human disease; likely to spread; usually no effective treatment.

Groups 2-4 must display the hazard signage

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4
Q

How can Bio Hazards enter the human body?

A

Ingestion
Inhalation
Injection
Absorption

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5
Q

How can we achieve basic good hygiene?

A
  1. Washing hands before eating, drinking and smoking
  2. Cover all new and existing cuts/grazes
  3. Avoid hand to mouth or eye contact
  4. Take rest and meal breaks away from the area of risk
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6
Q

Will premises with a biological risk attract a greater PDA?

A

No.

Only premises with a recorded bio hazard will have the bio hazard PDA attached.

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7
Q

What message should be sent when bio hazards are involved?

A

Priority message - “Biohazard Involved”.

Control will mobilise a level 2 hazmat attendance

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8
Q

In some instances, on site specialists may not be willing to give ICs information regarding bioHazards. this these cases who should the IC contact?

A

Request the attendance of a ILO.

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9
Q

What physical signs will suggest a positive or negative pressurised system in a bio hazard facility?

A
  1. Double door ‘air lock’ system
  2. Heavy robust doors with gas tight seals
  3. Pressure controls by doorways
  4. Ducting entering/exiting the facility
  5. Sterile changing rooms/requirements for specialised clothing
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10
Q

What is the minimum initial cordon for a bio hazard incident?

A

25m

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11
Q

How long should water run off be contained at a biohazard incident?

A

Should be contained for the first hour while the EA and local water undertakers are contacted and the HMEPO can liaise with the EA

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12
Q

Who should the IC liaise with regarding smoke plumes from biohazard fires?

A

The Police and PHE.

The HMEPO/SA/RRT can assist with plume predictions via the met office

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13
Q

Can we remove animals from a biohazard testing facility?

A

Not without strict consultation between the HMEPO/SA and on site specialists.

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14
Q

How long can CBRN (gas tight) body bags work for?

A

Minimum of 48 hours

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15
Q

How can we contact specialist agencies to assist with biohazard incidents?

A

Via the duty ILO

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16
Q

How long should personnel wear the PN411 wristband?

A

Minimum 7 days

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17
Q

What is the EA responsible for?

A
  1. Main drainage and pollution control relating to sewers
  2. Pollution control over the river Thames, all its tributaries and all open water sites in greater London
  3. Navigation control over the non-tidal Thames upstream of Toddington
  4. Flood control within Greater London
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18
Q

What is LFBs policy re protecting the environment?

A

To take all reasonable steps within its powers to preserve and protect the environment

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19
Q

When should the EA be notified of incidents?

A

Anything above normal domestic quantities.

25ltr of oil, fuel, detergents, disinfectants, paints
More than 25ltrs of cooking oils
250 ltr of food products, sugar, cream, milk and vinegar
More than 250ltr of any beverage or organic liquid eg blood and slurry
More than 500ltrs of sand, cement or chalk

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20
Q

What are the three groups of pollutants?

A
  1. Eco toxic materials e.g. Acids, solvents, oils, disinfectants
  2. Organic materials e.g. Milk, beer, blood, firefighting foam.
  3. In organic solids e.g.cement, silt, plaster, sand
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21
Q

What is DEFRA?

A

Department of the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs

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22
Q

Each PA should carry an environmental grab pack. what does the grab pack contain?

A 
1 x tub of dammit
1 x clay drain mat
20 x blue absorbent mats
2 x blue booms
1 x 10m poly boom
2 x disposable bags and ties
1 x roll of EA tape
2 x pairs of gloves
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23
Q

Who is responsible for the safe removal of hazardous/contaminated waste?

A
  1. LA for public footpaths, roads and public land
  2. Highways agency for motorways
  3. EA for non tidal rivers
  4. PLA main tidal rivers
  5. TfL for GLA road network
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24
Q

What defence do ICs have when failing to prevent contamination to the environment?

A
  1. Contamination was caused or allowed to continue in order to avoid danger to human health, providing:

A). The IC took all reasonably practicable steps to minimise pollution
B). The regulator was informed as soon as reasonably practicable

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25
Q

What must be done following every use of the grab pack or major spill kit?

A

The environmental pollution notification form must be completed and emailed to the EA and HMEP team mailboxes to assist the EA in recovering costs from the polluter.

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26
Q

Who is responsible for the overall control and coordination of terrorist incidents?

A

The Police IC

The LFB IC is responsible for fire fighting and rescues

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27
Q

What are the cordon sizes at IED incidents?

A

More than 100m. Up To a suitcase

More than 200m. Car/ light vehicle

More than 400m. HGV/ lorry

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28
Q

What are the component parts of an IED?

A

The packaging

The main filling I.e. Explosive

The means of ignition, which must include a switch, detonator or igniters.

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29
Q

What are the three categories of calls to IEDs?

A
  1. No warning - device actuated
  2. Warning given - device actuated
  3. Warning given - device not actuated, made safe.
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30
Q

Safe radio distances at IED incidents?

A

50m main scheme radios
10m hand held radios

Pagers may be worn

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31
Q

Considerations for siting appliances at IED incidents

A 
Not in direct line of sight
Away from glass
Away from secondary hazards
Behind hard cover
Upwind
Beware of secondary devices
Request the police
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32
Q

Name the organisations on the Thames

A
  1. Maritime CoastGuard Agency are the coordinating authority for S&R on the tidal Thames, however they can delegate the role of on scene coordinator to another agency including LFB.
  2. PLA is the statutory harbour authority for the tidal Thames
  3. EA is the navigational authority for non tidal
  4. MPS is responsible for S&R on the non tidal Thames but this will likely be delegated to LFB
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33
Q

where is the MCAs coordination centre?

A

Thames Barrier Navigation Centre with the PLA London vessel traffic service control room.

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34
Q

Which order includes duties for dealing with HazMats and rescues on the Thames?

A

Fire and rescue services (emergencies) (England) order 2007

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35
Q

Hazards associated with the Thames can be grouped under what four headings?

A

Working environment
River structures
Types of river traffic
Fire

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36
Q

What hazards are associated with locks and weirs?

A 
Fast flowing water
Dangerous undercurrents
Lock mechanism
Falls from height
Access and egress issues
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37
Q

Where can crews obtain BA compatible life jackets?

A

OSUs

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38
Q

What are the tidal and non tidal parts of the Thames?

A

Tidal. From Teddington Lock (Kingston) to Dayton drive (Erith)

Non Tidal. Footbridge road (Twickenham) to Teddington lock

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39
Q

How many access points do we have on the Thames?

A

21 primary access points

Plus 30 alternatives

Each AP is suitable for appliance and fire boat access and suitable as casualty landing points (CLP)

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40
Q

What is a recon point on the Thames?

A

An initial mobilising location where LFB a land crews can view a section of river to assist rescues and deploy to an AP as necessary

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41
Q

What is available at Tfl piers and pontoons?

A

LFB PIBs

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42
Q

What is SOLAS?

A

The international convention for the Safety of life at sea.

This requires any vessel to offer assistance to any other vessel in distress (on the tidal Thames only)

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43
Q

What radio channel is used by MCA and RNLI?

A

Channel 0

44
Q

Define fires alongside and midstream

A

Mid stream fires are those that cannot be accessed by land

Alongside refers to vessels that are secured to land based mooring

45
Q

Who takes charge of LFB during fires on the Thames?

A

The most senior land based officer.

46
Q

What must the IC consider before allowing personnel to board a vessel midstream?

A
  1. The depth and flow of the tide
  2. The ability of the fire boat to maintain contact with the vessel for safe access/egress
  3. The close proximity of other river traffic
  4. Obstacles in the river, including bridges, piers, buoys etc
47
Q

When dealing with midstream HazMat incidents, where do crews don Hazmat PPE?

A

At the AP, prior to transporting on the fire boat.

When returning with contaminated gear, the fire boat or vessel used for transport will be considered the hot zone. Fire boat crew may be confined to the pilot house.

48
Q

Who is responsible for environmental protection on the Thames?

A

EA = non tidal

PLA = tidal

49
Q

Who can assume the role of On Scene Coordinator at S&R incidents on the Thames?

A

MCA is lead agency but my delegate the fire boat IC or TAR as the on scene coordinator.

50
Q

What is a TIRR?

A

Towable, inflatable rescue rafts.

There are 4 on the Thames at Chiswick, Westminster, tower and charlton. Managed by the MCA for multiple casualty recovery

51
Q

Radio channels on the Thames?

A

0 for incidents

14 for general radio traffic

52
Q

What are the two methods of towing on the Thames?

A

Towing astern (dragging from front)

Towing Abreast ( side by side)

53
Q

Search patterns on the Thames?

A 
Parallel line search
Creeping line ahead search
Expanding square
Wide river search
Holding line search
54
Q

What is LFBs responsibility at major incidents?

A

Managing safety of the inner cordon

55
Q

Who agrees the area to be designated as the inner cordon at a major incident?

A

Fire and police tactical commanders

The police counter terrorism command scene manager must be consulted at terrorist incidents

56
Q

Who is responsible for designating the inner cordon controller?

A

Sector safety.

ICC is minimum WMA plus an assistant at each entry/exit point (FF)

57
Q

Who picks the armband colours at major incidents?

A

The police incident commander

58
Q

What is the role of inner cordon recorders (ICRs)

A

Minimum WMs

To identify any people already in the cordon working when it is erected. Recorded on the IC2

59
Q

Who provides national guidance on mass fatality planning?

A

Home Office Emergency Preparedness Planning Team

60
Q

When considering structural damage, buildings may be divided into two classes…..

A
  1. Framed buildings. These have a greater resistance to collapse and in general, failures that occurs are more localised.
  2. Unframed buildings. The walls carry the structural load. If load bearing walls collapse the result is extensive collapse with a large area of debris.
61
Q

Types of internal collapse

A

Pancake collapse
Lean to collapse
V collapse
Tent collapse

62
Q

Types of external collapse?

A

90 degree angle collapse
Curtain fall collapse
Inward/outward collapse
Total collapse

63
Q

Which local authorities have powers to deal with collapsed structures?

A

Borough councils, through the DSE for inner and outer boroughs

The City Corporation

64
Q

Who investigates collapsed structure incidents?

A

Police and HSE

65
Q

What are the five USAR modules?

A
  1. Structural collapse
  2. Major transport
  3. Breaching and breaking
  4. Multi purpose vehicle (MPV)
  5. Timber
66
Q

What can USAR trained staff provide at an incident?

A
  1. Mapping and planning the incident
  2. Technical searches including visual, seismic and audio
  3. Breaching and breaking to explore voids
  4. Shoring unsafe structures
  5. Lifting and moving heavy loads
67
Q

What are the six stages of rescue at USAR incidents?

A 
Reconnaissance and survey
Elimination of utilities
Primary surface search and rescue
Exploration of voids and spaces
Access by selected debris removal
Terminate by General debris removal
68
Q

Who are the key organisations in railway incidents?

A
  1. Network rail - responsible for the operations and maintenance of the main line track, power supplies and signalling.
  2. Train Operating Companies. The companies that run the trains and stations.
  3. LUL. Responsible for all issues and equipment relating to both surface and subsurface rail operations.
69
Q

What are the implications of isolating current and stopping trains?

A
  1. Passengers alighting outside stations and walking along tracks
  2. Overcrowding of stations and platforms
  3. Physical and mental distress
  4. Widespread direction to train services
70
Q

What is the safe distance from over head line equipment?

A

3m

Staff must not come closer than 1m to perform a rescue.

71
Q

Who can place SCDs?

A

FRU staff in an emergency. But these should never be removed by LFB staff post incident.

72
Q

What is TOPS?

A

Total Operations Processing System

TOPS info can be obtained via control. This includes location, destination, contents, and other info

73
Q

Define ‘trains run under caution’

A

The driver is warned that personnel are on the tracks and they must proceed at a speed which will enable them to stop if necessary. This can be up to 50mph on long straight stretches.

74
Q

How do brigade lookouts warn train drivers of persons on the track?

A

In daylight by holding both arms straight above head

At night by waving a bright light from side to side

75
Q

Who can agree the restoration of traction current?

A

Only the named LFB officer and rail controller who agreed to the isolation can agree restoration.

76
Q

What communication systems are available in railway incidents?

A 
Head wall telephones LUL
Signal post telephones Network rail
Overhead line equipment NR
PAS.  LUL and NR
Leaky feeder systems.  LUL
77
Q

What types of ventilation systems are available in subsurface rail stations?

A

Mechanical
Natural
Manual override

78
Q

What risk control measures may be considered with regard to passenger safety at rail incidents?

A

Preventing trains from stopping at affected stations
Disembarking passengers at adjacent stations
Using trains to evacuate areas below the incident
Stopping trains at other stations

79
Q

What do LFB plans boxes contain at rail stations?

A

Two sets of station plans
A communication status indicator
A key to adjacent IV points

These are opened by a FB 14 key or by cutting the l shaped quick release bolt with bolt croppers.

LUL do not hold the keys

80
Q

Where are IPs situated in rail tunnels?

A

Where the distance between sub surface stations exceeds 1km

81
Q

What size is the falling main provided at IPs?

A

150mm. With outlets sighted approximately 60m apart. Pressure is no more than 4.5 bar.

Isolation valves are situated every 180m to prevent accidental flooding

82
Q

Where are 110v DC outlets situated in the rail infrastructure?

A

Head and tail wall cabinets on platforms and along the tunnels in JLE

83
Q

What is the safe distance from a DLR track?

A

2m

84
Q

What speed can trams run up to?

A

50mph

They are however limited to normal road speeds where appropriate and even more limited in pedestrian areas.

85
Q

At what temperature do cylinders loose their tensile strength?

A

300 *C for steel

200-250 * C for aluminium

86
Q

When is a steel cylinder at risk of failure?

A

When it has been substantially heated
Or is being subjected to direct flame impingement

In this case an initial 200m hazard zone must be implemented

87
Q

If a cylinder fails, how big is the fire ball?

A

Upto 25m with debris flying 200m

88
Q

Define substantial cover at cylinder incidents

A

Double skin brick wall

89
Q

Should composite cylinders be extinguished?

A

No. They should be allowed to burn off

90
Q

What must be established before an IC can consider cylinders at no immediate risk of failing and reduce a 200m cordon?

A

The fire has been extinguished
The cylinders are definitely not acetylene
All cylinders have been located
The cylinders involved are receiving direct cooling

91
Q

What is the CAP process?

A
  1. Stop cooling water after one hour
  2. Monitor with TIC and record temperature
  3. Observe for any violent steaming
  4. Leave cooling water off for 15 mins

Apply a momentary spray of water then stop and repeat 1-4 above a total of four times (1 hour)

92
Q

When can the hazard zone be reduced at acetylene cylinder incidents?

A

After the first successful test in the CAP process following advice and a RA with the HMEPO

The full CAP test must still be completed.

93
Q

What are the three layers of a composite cylinder?

A

Gas barrier layer
Composite layer
Outer protection layer

94
Q

What are the principles of FSG advice from control?

A

Escape
Assess
Protect
Rescue

95
Q

FSG PDA?

A

1 x CU
1 x SM
1 x PA with WMA in charge

These resources are not included in the incident size and is in addition to the ‘persons reported’ PDA - CU, SM and FIT, that is ordered.

96
Q

What is the role of the FSG coordinator?

A

Minimum SM

To collate, record, and retain all information on FSG a calls recieved

To share this info and feedback on progress with the IC, sector commanders or the search coordinator when established

97
Q

What term is used to describe someone authorised to isolate electric supplies and remove residual charge?

A

Authorised person

98
Q

Safe distances from live electrics

A

30m for water monitors (ALP or ground)
20m for hand held branches
10m corridor from overhead power lines
20m for aerials in training (10 when fire fighting)
5m when performing a rescue/ to save life

99
Q

If battery banks are involved in fire what PPE is required?

A

Electric gloves as the banks will normally be low voltage

100
Q

What voltage to electrical gloves protect against?

A

3300v and below

101
Q

Where is high voltage apparatus normally found?

A

Seldom less than 2.5m above ground

102
Q

Define high voltage

A

Greater than 1000 AC or 1500v DC

103
Q

Cordons for explosives?

A

200m upto 250kg
600m 251 - 2000kg
1000m over 2000kg

104
Q

What is the safe distance from the hot zone in a MTFA incident?

A

1000m

105
Q

What is COSHH?

A

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations 2002

GMAC 2019 (23 decks)

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