Global 6500 - Oral Questions Flashcards

Question

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

Answer 1

18,000 feet

Answer 2

300 feet AGL

Answer 3

MAX spoilers is restricted to abnormal or emergency procedures

Answer 4

The 3A pumps which operate continuously

Answer 5

Systems 1 and 2 by pumps 1A and 2A

Answer 6

Turn on the "B" pump to pressurize the system ## Footnote The quantity indications are only accurate when the system is pressurized.

Answer 7

SKYDROL LD-4 HYJET IV-A

Answer 8

3A - 3B - 2B - 1B

Answer 9

Either slats or flaps not IN/0° position and motion has stopped System low pressure is detected (1800 psi Smart-fix)

Answer 10

Minimum of 5 minutes after normal pressure is restored ## Footnote Pressure dipping below 1800 psi will reset the clock. Pilot selection of the applicable ACMP control switch to either ON or OFF cancels the 5-minute timed sequence.

Answer 11

Selecting the (L) or (R) HYD SOV switch "closed" Pulling the fire DISCH handle ## Footnote Note: Hydraulic fluid is both lubrication and cooling for the hydraulic pump. Closing the SOV will destroy the pump.

Answer 12

1B - AC Bus 3 2B - AC Bus 2 3B - AC Bus 1 3A - AC Bus 4

Answer 13

System 3 ## Footnote Note: The landing gear, steering and brakes are isolated from the number 3 system when the RAT deploys. The RAT only powers the flight controls.

Answer 14

1000 psi at 15° C. White gage A placard near the accumulator shows the correct pressure for the current outside temperature

Answer 15

500 psi at 15° C. Black gage A placard near the accumulator shows the correct pressure for the current outside temperature

Answer 16

Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks ## Footnote Note: Left wing - systems 1 and 3; right wing - system 2.

Answer 17

Four 40 kVA engine driven generators (60kVA for 5 minutes and 80kVA for 5 seconds) One 40 kVA APU generator (45kVA on the ground) One 9 kVA Ram air turbine (when all other AC sources have been lost)

Answer 18

Eight total Four primary buses: 1, 2, 3, 4 4 secondary buses: 1A, 2A, 3A, AC ESS. The secondary buses are actually extensions of the primary buses. Bus 4 is divided into bus 4 and AC essential. ## Footnote 4, 8, or 9 are all valid answers.

Answer 19

Protects, controls and distributes AC power to the main AC buses ## Footnote Note: Located in the baggage compartment

Answer 20

AC Buses 2 and 3 ## Footnote Note: This results in AC buses 2A and 3A also being shed. Loosing 2 TRUs will cause the shedding of one DC bus also.

Answer 21

External AC power is connected Power is the correct phase, voltage, and frequency External Power is not on line

Answer 22

AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 4

Answer 23

Aft Service Control Panel ## Footnote Note: Left rear, aft of the hydraulic access panel.

Answer 24

All AC and DC buses are powered

Answer 25

Under the APU

Answer 26

APU Start controller bus. You can start the APU only.

Answer 27

TRU 1, TRU 2, ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2 Avionics Battery APU Battery

Answer 28

2 buses ## Footnote 1 & 4 (AC ESS) are powered with 1 generator. Busses 2 & 3 are shed during single generator operations.

Answer 29

DC Bus 1 and 2 DC ESS Bus BATT Bus ## Footnote Note: There are two battery direct buses in addition to the list above.

Answer 30

Minimum of 15 minutes ## Footnote Note: With AC power - DC power is supplied through the battery chargers to power the two Battery Direct buses, BATT and DC ESS buses.

Answer 31

An amber "CHARGER" indication next to the battery on the ELEC synoptic page A cyan message in the CAS window, "APU or AV BATT CHGR FAIL"

Answer 32

DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 ## Footnote Note: The remaining TRU will power the BATT bus and ESS bus. With 1 TRU failure, no buses are lost.

Answer 33

During loss of all DC power (i.e. complete failure of the DCPC) Allows ESS TRU 1 and 2 to bypass the DCPC and power the SPDA's directly through contactors within ADCPD boxes

Answer 34

No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location

Answer 35

A cyan "CB TRIP" CAS message

Answer 36

EMS CDU no location mean an "electrical CB" or relay EMS CDU location listed for a physical CB

Answer 37

1. Immediately with loss of all AC power when flaps & slats are not fully up 2. Immediately after failure of both engines 3. After a 14 sec delay with loss of all AC power when flaps & slats are up

Answer 38

Completion or cabin item ## Footnote Note: This includes all the items on the CB panel above the pilot's head.

Answer 39

Below 147kts

Answer 40

When the flaps are moving Not more than 45 seconds

Answer 41

Turn the RAT generator OFF

Answer 42

Accessory gear box Engine core Fixed cowl ## Footnote Note: There are two separate "loops". Each "loop" has three "elements". Each of the "elements" has a different temperature.

Answer 43

The respective fire DISCH handle illuminates "L or R ENG FIRE" CAS with master Warning lights Fire box in the EPR indicator Aural warning voice message, "Left or Right Engine Fire"

Answer 44

* Fuel feed SOV closes * Hydraulic SOV closes * Pneumatics PRSOV closes * AC Variable Frequency Generators (VFG) are de-powered * Fire bottle squibs armed

Answer 45

Move the lockout pin to the right, while rotating the DISCH handle to the opposite direction

Answer 46

Press the release button (manual override) under the handle

Answer 47

APU Fuel SOV closes APU Ignition shut off Pneumatics PRSOV closes APU power shutoff (to FADEC) Fire bottle squibs armed ## Footnote “FIRE Is Pretty Freaking Scary” • FIRE = Fuel SOV closes • Is = Ignition off • Pretty = Pneumatics PRSOV closes • Freaking = Power to FADEC cut • Scary = Fire bottle squibs armed

Answer 48

No. The fire handle closes the fuel feed SOV; the engine will run a few seconds to empty the line. ## Footnote Immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch

Answer 49

Automatic shutdown of the APU, but NO fire bottles

Answer 50

No. There is no provision for automatic fire discharge

Answer 51

Forward avionics bay Aft avionics bay Baggage compartment (not connected until the interior is installed) | Avionics rack (Global 5000 only) ## Footnote Note: Additional detectors are installed per customer specifications.

Answer 52

Portable fire extinguishers Smoke detectors

Answer 53

< 19,450 fuel tank load: 1100# 19,450 - 20,250 fuel load: 1100-600# > 20,250 fuel tank load: 600#

Answer 54

**Total load: 45,100 lbs** Wing: 15,050 lbs/tank Center: 12,700 lbs Aft Aux: 2,300 lbs ## Footnote Note: On hot days (above approximately 12° C), the tanks will fill to maximum volume before reaching the specified weight.

Answer 55

Each wing is full at departure and planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300 ## Footnote Note: Dependent on power setting, fuel flow below FL300 may be higher than the transfer rate from the center or aft tanks.

Answer 56

Each wing contains at least 5500 lbs. fuel at departure and the planned cruise altitude is greater than FL300

Answer 57

500 lbs to ensure transfer-pump priming ## Footnote Note: Advisory wires discuss a replacement of the center wing pumps with lower fuel inlets to allow more complete emptying of the Center Wing tank. All of the aircraft in the Vision fleet should have the new pumps.

Answer 58

600 lbs./wing ## Footnote Note: This assumes a max pitch attitude of 10° .

Answer 59

* Operation limited to 13,000 feet until the bulk fuel temperature is below 15° C * Re-circulation is prohibited when using wide cut fuels

Answer 60

* Prohibited when using **wide cut** or **CIS fuels** * Asymmetric operation is prohibited

Answer 61

+5° C ## Footnote Note: minimum bulk fuel temperature for start is -40° C

Answer 62

Takeoff and Landing

Answer 63

Forward or aft aux tanks

Answer 64

Ram air via NACA scoops ## Footnote Note: On the ground, the NACA scoops provide ventilation and relieve build-up of vapor pressure.

Answer 65

Wing tank greater than 11,800 lbs Center tank greater than 8,000 lbs ## Footnote Note: There is a placard next to the valves to indicate this limitation. The aft tank does not incorporate a pull handle.

Answer 66

Difference between FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity reading greater than 2% of the BOW (approx. 1080 lbs.) ## Footnote Note: This is your only indication of a possible leak.

Answer 67

On the PFD, inside the HSI Also an amber "MSG" appears | There are no checklists for messages appearing in the HSI.

Answer 68

Above 34,000 feet Any individual fuel temp sensor below -20° C Average of all temp sensors below -9° C | Cannot use with Wide-Cut or CIS fuels. ## Footnote Note: Activated by the FMQGC; automatically deactivated when wing tank temp is greater than 5 C, or when the altitude is below 33,800'.

Answer 69

ENGINE RUN switches to "on" **XFEED SOV is selected open** AC power is available ## Footnote Note: There are 2 AC pumps per wing tank; each AC pump is capable of providing 900-6500lbs/hr depending on the frequency of the VFG providing the AC power.

Answer 70

Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead, installed in the engine feed line Closed via the associated fire discharge handle

Answer 71

Wing tank quantity below 93% Continues until wing reaches 97% full ## Footnote Note: Fuel transfer is controlled by the FMQGC, and commands the applicable center transfer pump on. There are no pilot controls.

Answer 72

If either wing tank falls to below 5,500 lbs ## Footnote Note: The FMQGC opens both aft aux transfer SOVs and starts the 2 AC transfer pumps; automatic transfer stops when quantity is less than 100 lbs. in the AFT tank.

Answer 73

All 4 AC primary fuel pumps will operate, regardless of the ENG RUN switch position.

Answer 74

XFEED SOV to open ## Footnote Note: This ensures both main tanks feed during engine inoperative operation.

Answer 75

Right wing tank ## Footnote Note: After the APU creates a 400lb imbalance, the fuel system will balance the mains. Once airborne, fuel transfer from the center tank will balance the mains.

Answer 76

Center tank transfer pumps

Answer 77

Transfer ejector receiving motive flow during fuel movement from the center to a wing feed tank via gravity flow at a slower rate ## Footnote Note: FCOM2 Chapter 12−10−23 Fuel stored in the forward auxiliary tank is automatically transferred to the center tank as the center tank is emptied. A transfer ejector receives motive flow during fuel movement from the center to a wing feed tank. This creates a low pressure in the ejector, allowing it to draw fuel fromthe auxiliary tank and route it to the center tank. Fuel is also able to move, at a lower rate, from theforward auxiliary tank to the center tank via gravity. There are no EICAS indications or messages relating to this transfer system. There is no pilot control of the forward auxiliary tank transfer system. Fuel stored in this tank is considered part of the center tank for fuel quantity indications on EICAS.

Answer 78

Lateral fuel imbalance of 400 lbs or more ## Footnote Note: A transfer SOV opens and the onside DC pump starts (on heavier side).

Answer 79

Flap position greater than 0° Low fuel condition less than 600 lbs wing DC aux pump is supplying fuel feed to an engine (AC primary fuel pump failure, etc.)

Answer 80

No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection provided to stop operation

Answer 81

APU battery direct bus through a DC power source Note: No requirement for AC power.

Answer 82

Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full ## Footnote Note: Stop the fuel tender pump to make sure that fuel does not spill. During the test, the fuel load increase should not be visible on the tank displays within 30 seconds.

Answer 83

BMW/Rolls-Royce BR700-710A2-21

Answer 84

700° C (Ground) 850° C (Air) ## Footnote Note: Auto shutdown happens at 700° C **on the ground only**.

Answer 85

Max ITT - 890° C / 900° C for 2 minutes N1 - 102.1% N2 - 101.6% | 5 minutes AEO | 10 minutes OEI ## Footnote Note: The numbers turn red when the limitations are exceeded and the FADEC automatically adjusts the power setting appropriately for the condition.

Answer 86

Max ITT - 850° C N1 - 102.1% N2 - 99.9% ## Footnote Note: The numbers turn red when the limitations are exceeded.

Answer 87

The numbers turn red

Answer 88

Steady operation between 66-80% N1 prohibited ## Footnote The FADEC will not let you operate in this range.

Answer 89

42% N2 ## Footnote Note: The starter can't engage above 42% RPM. The FACEC commands the starter air valve closed above 45% N2.

Answer 90

3 minutes on, 15 seconds off 3 minutes on, 15 seconds off 3 minutes on, 15 minutes off ## Footnote Note: * After 3 minutes of operation, the start valve closes automatically. * A 15 second period with the starter valve closed will reset the clock. * The start valve will not open until the 15 second wait timer has expired.

Answer 91

+ 20° C ## Footnote Note: This is the point the number changes from amber to green.

Answer 92

+ 160° C ## Footnote Note: The readout turns red when the limitations are exceeded.

Answer 93

* 15,125 lbs | @ SL up to ISA +15° C

Answer 94

Full authority digital engine control (FADEC) An electronic engine controller (EEC). | The EEC is a major component of the FADEC. ## Footnote Note: The terms EEC and FADEC are used interchangeably

Answer 95

Single-stage LP fan driven by a two-stage LP turbine Ten-stage HP compressor driven by a two-stage HP turbine

Answer 96

There is a dedicated Generator for the FADEC on the accessory gearbox. | Should the Dedicated Generator fail, the FADEC reverts to aircraft power ## Footnote Note: Aircraft power operates the FADEC below 45% N2 rpm

Answer 97

Cowl anti-ice Cabin pressurization Generator operation Protection against water ingestion ## Footnote Note: Idle speed is not adjusted for wing anti-ice; however, the N2 display will turn white below 76%. Wing anti-ice may be operated at any RPM unless the wing indications become amber.

Answer 98

0.2 liters/hour or 0.21 US quarts/hour

Answer 99

Between 5 and 30 minutes after shutdown ## Footnote Note: Oil quantities are displayed before engine start and after shutdown, not necessarily when servicing is allowed.

Answer 100

* BATT BUS on * On the ground (WOW) with both engines OFF. * Reservoir quantity greater than 1.5qt * For engines: between 5 and 30 minutes after shutdown * OAT -12° C or above * Tank contains < 10.8 qt. ## Footnote Note: *One ENG/APU at a time

Answer 101

Run the engine for 10 min to reset the clock to replenish

Answer 102

Oil quantity is displayed on the Status page below the EICAS A visual sight gauge on the side of the oil reservoir behind a small access door

Answer 103

In the aft equipment bay, left side, forward of the door

Answer 104

Fuel cooled oil heat exchanger

Answer 105

12.8 quarts max ## Footnote Note: Typically fill to approximately 11.0 quarts via oil replenishment system. This is the automatic shutoff point.

Answer 106

Between 5.2 and 9.0 quarts

Answer 107

HPSOV within the fuel metering unit

Answer 108

Airplane is in the approach configuration If the EEC cannot determine the configuration ## Footnote Note: When a steep approach is selected in the FMS, the engines are allowed to reduce to low idle in flight. If the cowl anti-ice is ON, engine idle will be advanced to maintain proper temperature.

Answer 109

Uneven cooling of the HP spool may cause the turbine shaft to bend slightly Motoring the engine will cause more even temperatures within the engine core and less vibrations during the start

Answer 110

Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of engine shutdown ## Footnote Note: If you are in a rotorbow situation and have a tailwind for the start, there are no indications for the pilot to know the rotorbow procedure will be followed. Turning the battery off may clear the FACEC clock.

Answer 111

The EEC determines if an **ATS ENVELOPE (≤ 269 knots) or WINDMILL ENVELOPE (≥ 270 knots) ** is to be performed and the type of start is displayed on the EICAS, see Figure 18−10−43. ## Footnote Note: A cyan message tells you which envelope you are in. The ECL will automatically display the correct checklist. Note from FCOM Volume 1 02−05−8: The engine driven hydraulic pump (1A or 2A) is designed to depressurize (OFFLOAD) during an engine failure. If this does not occur due to an EDP OFF LOAD failure, the WINDMILL ENVELOPE minimum speed below 22,000 feet moves from 270 KIAS to 290 KIAS. In this case, ATS ENVELOPE will remain posted up to 290 KIAS below 22,000 feet.

Answer 112

ENGINE RUN switch to OFF N2 speed not greater than 15% after 120 sec from ENG RUN to ON Idle speed not achieved after 120 sec after HPSOV open Starter cutout not reached within starter duty timer (180 sec after starter valve open) ITT exceeding start limit (700° C) ## Footnote Note: What is important; if the start is abnormal, the FACEC will abort the start automatically. Allowing the FADEC to command the aborted start will also record and event. Pressing the event button and then manually aborting the start will yield the same results without passing an engine limitation.

Answer 113

If the ENG RUN switch is placed to OFF, then returned to ON within 30 sec, the engine will relight

Answer 114

When the N2 reduces abnormally and Automatic relight has failed.

Answer 115

30,000 feet

Answer 116

After the EEC tried to auto-relight the engine by turning on the IGN's. If N2< 35% the EEC shuts off the IGN and closes the fuel HPSOV, then the flameout CAS is posted.

Answer 117

70% N1 for 30 seconds ## Footnote Note: The EEC controls this value and reduces power appropriately

Answer 118

Must not be selected in flight. Not permitted for touch-and-go landings. May not back up the airplane.

Answer 119

Controlled by the EEC Actuated by the respective engine hydraulic system.

Answer 120

EICAS message Aural Warning "L or R Reverser Unlocked" Thrust retarded to idle (regardless of thrust lever position) Red REV icon if the door is open ## Footnote Note: In normal operation, all valves are aligned for closing and locking the reverser. To unlock the reverser, the reverser must be: powered closed, unlocked, then powered open. Multiple failures must happen in a particular order to cause a reverser to become unlocked.

Answer 121

106% ## Footnote Note: At 106%, the APU will automatically shut down. The APU is governed by the FADEC to 100%.

Answer 122

Max Operating ALtitude: 45,000 ft. Starting: 37,000 ft. Electrical load is limitation: 37,000 ft. Pneumatic operation: 30,000 ft. ## Footnote Above 37,000 ft the Associated Hyd pumps must be turned off

Answer 123

37,000 feet

Answer 124

30,000 feet

Answer 125

3 per hour ## Footnote Note: Maintenance instructions say: 5 minutes between starts and a 60 minute rest after the third start. A cold soaked APU may require more than 3 start attempts in-flight. (fuel lines could be frozen)

Answer 126

45° C ## Footnote Note: The aircraft and the APU may operate up to 50° C. Start the right engine and use the engine to cool the cabin.

Answer 127

40 KVA up to 37,000 feet without restriction 45 KVA when on the ground

Answer 128

The associated Hydraulic pumps (1B, 2B, 3B, 3A) must be selected "OFF"

Answer 129

In conjunction with an "APU DOOR FAIL" caution message

Answer 130

Yes, with restrictions ## Footnote Note: Located in Airborne Auxiliary Power chapter in DDG. A good lookup question. The primary problem is APU wind-milling without lubrication

Answer 131

15 to 45 min after shutdown

Answer 132

STATUS page indication shows less than 4.5 quarts Low oil level warning illuminates at 3.5 quarts ## Footnote Note: The oil indication system will show quantities before start and after shutdown; not necessarily in the refill envelope. During normal operation, the APU rarely needs additional oil

Answer 133

APU shutdown at least 15 minutes & not more than 45 min Oil reservoir has at least 1.5 quarts APU Oil < 4.5q Batt mstr Sw ON & DC power available from the BATT Bus Both engines off Aircraft is on the ground OAT -12* or greater ## Footnote Note: The oil indication system will not show quantities until aircraft is on the ground with power and the APU shutdown. Disconnecting batteries before servicing oil will delete the clock value and require an additional 15 minute wait before servicing.

Answer 134

The APU returns to 100% and resumes normal operation. ## Footnote Note: Smart Fix advises that bleed air may not be available after the "restart".

Answer 135

Wing anti-ice is active (L) & (R) engine pressure regulating valve are manually opened Cross-bleed valve are manually opened ## Footnote Note: Manually selecting the APU bleed will not power the anti-ice. You would be significantly deviating from normal operations for any of those conditions

Answer 136

APU Fire (shutdown only, no extinguisher) High oil temperature Low oil pressure Low oil pressure (LOP) switch failed Loss of both EGT Sensors Reverse Flow Under-speed (greater than 80%)

Answer 137

FADEC failure Inlet door not in commanded position Loss of Over-speed protection Over-speed 106% Loss of speed sensing DC power loss

Answer 138

BATT MASTER switch selected OFF with no AC power on APU FIRE DISCH handle pulled APU SHUTOFF button (push and release on the external services panel) APU compartment SHUTDOWN button (push and release; red button on forward bulkhead, APU compartment) Slow Start Over-temperature

Answer 139

* Transfer bleed between primary and secondary ports * Control the pressure of the bleed air * Control the temperature of the bleed air * Supply bleed air for engine starting * Supply bleed air for the wing and cowl anti-ice system

Answer 140

* Air conditioning * Pressurization * Cowl and wing anti-ice * Engine starts ## Footnote Notes: The APU is the primary source for engine starting on the ground. The engines are the primary source for starting air in flight. The APU can't supply air for anti-ice operations.

Answer 141

5° to 60° C ## Footnote Note: This condition is driven by a checklist. When selecting MAN control, pack output temperatures appear on the synoptic page. One pack must be selected OFF.

Answer 142

**Normal: 10.33 psi** at FL420 (from Cabin Pressure Chart) **Maximum: 10.73 psi** (From AFM limitations and the opening of the Cabin Safety valves) ## Footnote Note: "CABIN DELTA P" message - 10.85 psi (from warning message list)

Answer 143

37,000 feet ## Footnote Note: AUX PRESS is operated via a checklist containing all the appropriate limitations and restrictions.

Answer 144

LDG ELEV switch to manual and set 0' ## Footnote Note: A supplement contains all the appropriate procedures and restrictions for QFE operations.

Answer 145

On the status page below the EICAS or On the ECS synoptic page

Answer 146

4th stage low-pressure compressor port normally 7th stage high-pressure compressor port when 4th stage flow is too low ## Footnote Note: The PRV limits the bleed pressure supply to 43 'b13 psi. HP air can produce greater volume. HP air is considerably higher temperature than LP air.

Answer 147

When the system needs more flow or volume, typically higher altitude or reduced power settings

Answer 148

APU bleed air

Answer 149

Opposite engine bleed air

Answer 150

Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BMCs ## Footnote Note: Loops A and B are monitored by the L/R BMCs respectively; each BMC has 2 redundant channels.

Answer 151

The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves. ## Footnote Note: Synoptic flow lines are amber until the manual controls are matched to the automatic position. After the checklist is finished, the switches will match the positions of the equipment. The line will turn from amber to clear.

Answer 152

The flow line is amber The corresponding valves are closed ## Footnote Note: The flow lines will show empty when the switch positions match the actual valve position.

Answer 153

No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine

Answer 154

High flow schedule is automatically selected by the BMC The HASOVs close, automatically turning off the trim air

Answer 155

Decrease the air temperature and Decrease the water contained in the hot bleed air

Answer 156

Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting Ditching operation (below 15,000 feet) Pack inlet overheat Compressor discharge overheat Pack discharge over heat or under pressure

Answer 157

Both Hot air shutoff valves (HASOV) All three Trim air valves (cockpit, forward, and aft trim valves)

Answer 158

Provide cooling for the heat exchangers of the cooling packs Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15,000 feet or less ## Footnote Notes: The ram air inlet is at the base of the vertical fin; the ram air may be selected at any altitude. The ram air valve will not open if the aircraft is above 15,000 feet. Below 15,000ft, if the cabin is pressurized greater than the ram air pressure, air will not enter the cabin. Ram air will not enter the aircraft if the packs are operating

Answer 159

Recirculation system maintained "ON" (to reduce supply temps in the distribution ducts) Prohibited greater than 37,000 feet ## Footnote Note: AUX PRESS is operated via a "L/R PACK FAIL" checklist containing all the appropriate limitations and restrictions. Above FL410 or when the power levers are reduced, the HP air is the supply source. This air is significantly hotter.

Answer 160

The cross-bleed valve (CBV) opens automatically so bleed air is provided from one side of the system to the other. ## Footnote Note: The CBV is operated by the BMC; if both PRSOVs are open, the BMC closes the CBV.

Answer 161

FL510: 5,670 feet FL450: 4,500 feet

Answer 162

1. PRIMARY mode (predictive) uses FMS info: Autopilot is on, VNAV engaged, and landing elevation source is selected to FMS 2. SECONDARY mode (reactive) uses airplane altitude and Vertical speed (ADC)

Answer 163

Autopilot ON VNAV ON Landing elevation from FMS ## Footnote Note: if any one of these conditions are not met, the system operates in secondary.

Answer 164

CABIN ALT (Caution): 8200 feet CABIN ALT (Warning): 9000 feet

Answer 165

When the aircraft altitude decreases below 41,000 feet with the landing elevation set to 7230 feet or higher, the limits start to increase proportionally; caution and warning limits occur at 1000 feet and 1800 feet above the landing field elevation, respectively

Answer 166

Both outflow valve position indicators Cabin rate analog gauge Cabin altitude and delta P values are displayed regardless ## Footnote Note: Landing elevation is not displayed; the crew must monitor CAB ALT.

Answer 167

LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selector set to FMS Landing destination programmed in the FMS Flight plan activated

Answer 168

Set the LDG ELEV selector to MAN and use the LDG ELEV UP/DN switch to set the elevation. ## Footnote Note: The status message, "LDG ELEV MAN" will appear on the CAS. On the ground the altitude begins at 0; in flight the altitude begins at 5670.

Answer 169

QFE Operations Airport not in the data base Airport not WGS84 ## Footnote Note: For QFE operations set the elevation to 0. All other conditions set the actual field elevation.

Answer 170

NORM: 500 ft/min climb and 300 ft/min descent rate HIGH: 800 ft/min climb and 800 ft/min descent rate ## Footnote Note: High is limited to 540 ft/min when the aircraft VSI is less than 2,300 ft/min.

Answer 171

10 minutes

Answer 172

Both out flow valves (OFVs) are commanded open Cabin altitude limited to 14,500 feet ('b1500') ## Footnote Note: Cabin altitude rate of climb system limits are inoperative during EMER DEPRESS. In all cases except EMER DEPRESS, cabin rate is limited to 300 ft/min.

Answer 173

Cabin is depressurized Air conditioning pack flow is shut off OFVs are driven to the closed position ## Footnote Note: The AUTO ditching sequence is inhibited above 15,000ft. If the ditching switch is selected above 15,000ft, nothing will happen until the aircraft passes 15,000ft. Then, the ditching sequence will begin. The manual ditching checklist includes PACKS OFF, EMER DEPRESS ON, and both OFVs closed.

Answer 174

Ensures over pressure and negative pressure relief; when max Delta P is reached, the SFV opens to outside pressure ## Footnote Note: A "SAFETY VALVE OPEN" CAS will appear when opened.

Answer 175

On the ground: when OAT is +10 C or below, and visible moisture is present; or while operating on contaminated taxiways/runways In flight: +10 to -40C in visible moisture Anytime the "ICE" CAS is displayed ## Footnote Note: When either CAI is ON, the EVS ice protection system is activated.

Answer 176

For Takeoff (AUTO is inhibited below 400 feet AGL)

Answer 177

* OAT +5 C and visible moisture is present * Operating on contaminated taxiways/runways ## Footnote Note: AUTO is prohibited for Takeoff (AUTO is inhibited below 400 feet AGL); with use of Type II, III or IV fluids, anti-ice is prohibited ON until just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

Answer 178

* Visible moisture * Temperature between TAT +10 C and SAT -40 C * Anytime the "ICE" CAS is displayed

Answer 179

Do not hold with slats extended

Answer 180

76% N2 ## Footnote Note: The FADEC controls the idle speed to ensure proper wing/cowl anti-ice operation. A reduction of engine speed less than 76% N2 is permitted during final approach provided cowl/wing anti-ice green icons remain indicated on the EICAS. With both engines running there is enough heat to maintain proper temperature. N2 rpm will display white when below 76% with wing anti-ice on.

Answer 181

* Wing leading edges * Engine cowls * Windshields & side windows * Air data probes (3) and sensors (located inside engine cowl) ## Footnote Note: Wing & Cowl have an AUTO selection although it is recommended to be either on or off as the auto function does not work below 400ft AGL. Windshield is selected ON by the crew during the preflight and the temperature is automatically controlled. Pitot heat comes on automatically with the battery switch.

Answer 182

When the ice detector system detects ice. ## Footnote Note: There are 2 ice detectors installed on the forward fuselage. Both sensors must sense ice twice before the CAS is posted.

Answer 183

* Below 400 feet AGL * On the ground * During takeoff

Answer 184

If the WING XBLEED is in AUTO

Answer 185

Approximately 2 minutes ## Footnote Note: Timing is completely dependent on OAT. The time shouldn't be longer than 2 minutes

Answer 186

Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be supplied bleed air from a single engine in the event of a failure

Answer 187

LP bleed air from the on-side engine only

Answer 188

It is spring-loaded fully open; designed to operate even if electrical power is lost

Answer 189

All heaters are tested and powered when AC power is applied to the aircraft, as part of the built-in testing

Answer 190

Engine failure Bleed source failure

Answer 191

Test happens when AC power is initially applied The system is ON when one or more engine is operating

Answer 192

Landing gear selected down, or Flaps are not in the 0° position, or Cabin altitude greater than 8000 feet (cabin depressurization)

Answer 193

No power to the DC ESS bus

Answer 194

Yes, provided the passenger door is open ## Footnote Note: These lights are available if the boarding lights have been selected either externally or internally with the door open; power for these lights come from the avionics battery direct (hot) bus.

Answer 195

Switch on the Forward External Service Control Panel When any of the switches in the avionics bay are selected

Answer 196

Activate the toggle switch twice within a 3-second interval By timer. After 15 minutes of normal operation, the lights automatically flash for 10 seconds, then after 20 minutes, they turn off

Answer 197

Carbon Disc brakes

Answer 198

Electrically controlled via brake-by-wire system Hydraulically powered from accumulators

Answer 199

Via two proximity sensors on each gear assembly

Answer 200

Electrically controlled by the landing gear electronic control unit (LGECU)

Answer 201

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

Answer 202

4x heat-sensitive fuse plugs

Answer 203

Single-loop heat sensing elements

Answer 204

Hydraulically by system 3

Answer 205

With the LG Pull handle ## Footnote Note: Pins & collars are available to safe the doors.

Answer 206

The Landing Gear Release Handle is returned to the normal position Number 3 hydraulic system pressure is applied The main gear inboard doors will close immediately The nose gear forward door is closed with a push-button adjacent to the nose gear

Answer 207

Any landing gear is not down and locked, and: Radio altimeter less than 500 feet AGL, and less than 190 knots ## Footnote Note: This is actually part of the TAWS system.

Answer 208

One power lever at idle Radio altimeter inoperative Below 1000ft AGL

Answer 209

200 KIAS ## Footnote Note: 200 KIAS limit is for the doors

Answer 210

250 KIAS .70 M

Answer 211

Mechanically releases the landing gear up-locks and the gear doors Closes shutoff valves to prevent hydraulic pressure from operating the gear Opens bypass valves to allow fluid to return to the reservoir. Applies system 2 pressure to assist in locking the landing gear.

Answer 212

20,000 feet

Answer 213

L-R MAIN GEAR DOOR NOSE DOOR

Answer 214

Free caster mode

Answer 215

Electrically controlled Hydraulically actuated (system 3)

Answer 216

Tiller +/- 75° Rudder +/- 7.5° ## Footnote Note: NWS inputs are summed, but not to exceed 75°

Answer 217

Disconnect the NWS torque link

Answer 218

Parking brake applied with Hydraulic system 3 pressurized, or Hydraulic systems 2 & 3 pressurized and pressing the toe brakes (2 people required)

Answer 219

All four brakes

Answer 220

Hydraulic system 2 (outboard brakes) Hydraulic system 3 (inboard brakes)

Answer 221

Mechanical linkages to the parking brake valve

Answer 222

Both MLG indicate WOW for 5 seconds, or wheel spin up above 50 KIAS Ground spoilers are commanded to deploy Must be set in flight No brake system malfunctions

Answer 223

Pressing the brake pedals Turning the switch off Any system fault (not the crew)

Answer 224

By momentarily pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET, provided the overheat condition no longer exists

Answer 225

4 bottles / 2 masks

Answer 226

The blow out disc is on the left forward nose near the oxygen service panel

Answer 227

It is missing or torn

Answer 228

The service panel is on the left forward nose

Answer 229

Appoximately 14,500 feet cabin altitude | Could not find the reference for (+500'/-750')

Answer 230

Amber "OXYGEN LO QTY" CAS ## Footnote Note: This CAS will also appear if the oxygen cylinder SOV is closed

Answer 231

75% ## Footnote Note: Below this value, it is possible for a single bottle to be completely empty.

Answer 232

Mechanically controlled Hydraulically actuated by power control unit (PCUs)

Answer 233

Left aileron: systems 1 and 3 Right aileron: systems 2 and 3

Answer 234

Via a roll disconnect mechanism (a physical separation) in the torque tube

Answer 235

No, the system must be reset by maintenance

Answer 236

Hydraulic systems 1, 2 and 3 | Synoptic Page

Answer 237

Left elevator: systems 1 and 3 Right elevator: systems 2 and 3 | Synoptic Page

Answer 238

Red CAS, "CONFIG AIL/RUD/STAB TRIM" "No Takeoff" voice message

Answer 239

Manual trim (pilot overrides copilot) Automatic trim (rate set by autopilot 1 or 2) Mach trim (only available when the autopilot is off)

Answer 240

AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected Pitch trim disconnect - held Stall pusher interrupt - held longer

Answer 241

Stabilizer trim runaway Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period (3 seconds for high rate trim at low speed, and 6 seconds for low rate trim at high speed)

Answer 242

No. The flaps and slats are two independent (DC) dual motor assemblies

Answer 243

Used to cancel the flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing

Answer 244

4 multi-functional spoilers (MFS) 2 ground spoilers (GS)

Answer 245

Only the two inboard pairs of MFS are available for flight spoilers. ## Footnote Note: MAX selection on the FSCL has no effect; roll input on the outboard panels is reduced; ground lift dumping still uses all 6 panels

Answer 246

Roll assist Ground lift dumping (ground spoiler) Proportional lift dumping (Flight Spoilers) ## Footnote Note: These are listed in order of importance. Roll input will override all others. Ground lift dumping will override the drag spoilers

Answer 247

The corresponding symmetric panel on the opposite wing is automatically disabled. ## Footnote Note: Paired, symmetric panels have the same hydraulic supplies

Answer 248

RA less than 7 feet One left or right main landing gear WOW One left or right wheel speed greater than 16 knots ## Footnote Note: Only 2 of 3 of these items are required for deployment

Answer 249

Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP DISC) button (also called "Master DISC" switch) ## Footnote Note: N/A for JAA certified aircraft. Once the disconnect button is released, the stick pusher is capable of operating immediately. Turning the stall pusher switch to off means the SPC cannot command a push.

Answer 250

Operation for greater than 30 minutes is prohibited ## Footnote Note: If cooling air is available, reduce cockpit temperature

Answer 251

First engine start ## Footnote Note: Operation of the Yaw damper is completely automated

Answer 252

400 feet AGL

Answer 253

Any Precision Approach - 80 feet AGL ## Footnote Note: This limit is really "Any Precision Approach"

Answer 254

400 feet AGL

Answer 255

160 feet AGL

Answer 256

**3.5° without supplement 29 restrictions** 3.9° on an ILS & 3.8° using VGP with supplement 29 restrictions 3.9° up to 5.5° on an ILS using supplement 40 restrictions and procedures

Answer 257

Disconnects the autopilot and silences a disconnect aural When held, interrupts the pitch trim and stick pusher

Answer 258

It allows the pilot to momentarily override the autopilot and maneuver the aircraft. It can also set an FPA, Speed or VS value depending on the mode selected.

Answer 259

Maintains wings level when the bank is less than 5 degrees Or holds the current bank angle if the bank is greater than 5 degrees

Answer 260

If the Master AP fails, the standby unit will take over The FD modes will revert to basic Roll and FPA

Answer 261

The FD modes revert to ROLL and FPA The pilot must manually re-select the desired modes

Answer 262

No, they indicate only selection, or that the mode is armed The pilot must confirm mode status/operation from the flight mode annunciator (FMA)

Answer 263

Active modes displayed in "green" Armed modes displayed in "white"

Answer 264

The AFCS switch on the reversion panel. ## Footnote Note: This will revert the modes to ROLL and FPA

Answer 265

Basic modes: Roll (ROLL) & Flight Path Angle (FPA)

Answer 266

Pressing either MASTER DISC push-button (recommended) Pressing the AP button on the Flight Control Panel Manual trim activation Pressing the YD switch on the Flight Control Panel Physically override the AP servos (not recommended)

Answer 267

* Unusual attitudes * Stall warning activation * Windshear ## Footnote Note: Not listed in the FCOM2 is the force disconnect, i.e. with flight control jam. It is not recommended the pilot use the force switches for AP disconnect.

Answer 268

* Localizer-based approaches * VOR approaches * NDB approaches | AC 90-113, AC 120-108 & AFM Limitations ## Footnote Note: VOR & NDB approaches require a bearing pointer displayed in addition to FMS guidance. For these approaches the FMS doesn't go into the approach mode: REF APPR is displayed and the RNP value remains 1.0

Answer 269

* The approach must be selected in the FMS * Pilot has selected the APPR button on the Flight Control Panel * The aircraft must have a closure rate on the course

Answer 270

31 NM from the airfield if an ILS approach is loaded in the FMS

Answer 271

When the PFDs are displaying localizer data from different navigational sources When flying an ILS approach in the approach mode When flying an LPV approach in the approach mode ## Footnote Note: A PFD that does not transition to independent data will display a white FD1 or FD2 on the ADI, depending on the couple selection.

Answer 272

Normal Takeoff: starts at 17.5° and moves between 11.5-20° to maintain selected speed 10 seconds after airborne. SE takeoff: adjusts to 13° and moves between 8-13° to maintain selected speed 10 seconds after airborne. ## Footnote Note: The answer stated is for software version 4.5.8. The selected speed must be reset to V2. Update 5.X will change the engine Inoperative mode to maintain V2

Answer 273

Basic: in green navigation, it holds the current heading in a wings-level mode and maintains a pitch from 10° minimum to 20° maximum changing to ALTS at the MAP altitude FMS-assisted: during an ILS/GPS approach, GA changes to FMS NAV and VNAV at 400 feet AGL ## Footnote Note: Half bank is not available for use during a missed approach in the NAV mode. If half bank is desired, the pilot must select the HDG mode first. Commanded bank angle reduces automatically as RA reduces

Answer 274

Engaging the AP, selecting another vertical mode, or pressing the TCS button

Answer 275

Select another vertical mode

Answer 276

Autopilot is engaged, aircraft altitude is above FL250 and either the cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500 feet

Answer 277

Disengage the AP

Answer 278

17 degrees

Answer 279

Climbing through 35,050 feet Descending through 34,950 feet Remember: 35,000 +/- 50 ft Climbing is higher Descending is lower

Answer 280

FD will command a descent to 15,000 feet FD will command a turn of 90° left Auto-throttles will target airspeed of VMO-10 until 15,000 feet, then 250 KIAS Transponder code changes to 7700 (automatic activation only) ## Footnote Note: Once initiated, any of these parameters may be adjusted by the pilot.

Answer 281

Either engage switch selected Aircraft speed less than 60 KIAS Thrust levers are above 23° TLA (about 60% level movement)

Answer 282

Escape guidance is provided through Flight Director commands Auto-throttles indicate "Windshear"; however, the setting is T.O. EPR The autopilot disconnects ## Footnote Note: The flight director initially commands a pitch down to gain energy. Level flight is commanded at or below 400 ft. With enough energy to climb, a climb command is given. The WSHR mode cannot be cancelled when a windshear warning persists. The WSHR mode remains until after the last windshear indications.

Answer 283

Aircraft in landing configuration Radio altitude of 50 feet AGL

Answer 284

The annunciation is flashing should an airspeed target deviation be sensed, while a steady LIM annunciation indicates a structure limit, minimum speed limit, or a maximum power limit

Answer 285

On the ground above 60 KIAS until the aircraft climbs to 400 feet AGL

Answer 286

Green: normal range Amber: precautionary range Red: limits exceeded

Answer 287

Black: no flow Amber: below normal value Green: normal value Red: exceeding normal value

Answer 288

None, all reversions are automatic ## Footnote Note: Manual reversion is still available through the reversion panel. Although the manual says all reversions are automatic, reverting from LPV to LNAV/VNAV is not automatic.

Answer 289

Flags a particular event in time within the flight data recorder (FDR) memory

Answer 290

10 seconds

Answer 291

10 seconds

Answer 292

Turn the large outer portion of the ALT knob on the Flight control Panel to "M" ## Footnote Note: The tape doesn't actually change to Meters. The metric value is added below the ASEL value and the Current altitude display

Answer 293

Paper QRH1 & 2 IFIS DOCS function manuals Bombardier Flight Deck manuals on an iPad

Answer 294

From the INDEX drop down window select "Non-normal" then "Non-normal no CAS"

Answer 295

By using the QUEUE button ## Footnote Note: CAS messages caused by checklist items are also in the cue. If a message has cleared from the CAS window, it is still in the cue. These titles may be removed by selecting "Reset Index". If messages are still alive in the CAS window, they can be cleared from the cue by overriding the checklist.

Answer 296

The checklist for the active CAS message will open

Answer 297

The Cue will open The pilot must select the appropriate checklist form the list

Answer 298

The version number is on the first dialog box when the checklist is started

Answer 299

2 ECL displays, one on each server; however, only one copy of each checklist may be active. For example, if the ECL is displayed on both servers, it will be identical

Answer 300

Check the database currency and the satellite time, both found at the top of the INIT Status Page

Answer 301

Select the TAWS TERRAIN switch to OFF

Answer 302

Date and time (synchronized with GPS) Software version Database status Sensor status/position Note: Verification of the data base status is required

Answer 303

VOX button is unlatched (the UP or OUT position)

Answer 304

Via the CTP on the radio expanded menu (LSK on active frequency twice to open menu control page, then select "frequency select"), or Via the CNS from any MFW

Answer 305

Via the CTP from the radio expanded menu, or Via the CNS from any MFW Note: An amber "H" will appear next to DME on the PFD.

Answer 306

When using GNSS sensors, GNSS only Without GNSS sensors, DME/DME, DME/VOR, IRS

Answer 307

Increases or decreases the sensitivity of the microphone or the level of noise needed to activate the microphone

Answer 308

Controls the side-tone or background noise; it is used to reduce microphone squeal ## Footnote Note: Adjusting the ST control does not affect the interphone sidetone; this is accomplished using the I/C control.

Answer 309

The weather radar range is reduced to 10nm on both displays ## Footnote Note: This also results in a MFW yellow message of "WX RANGE 10NM"

Answer 310

Message(s) have been previously acknowledged

Answer 311

No, manually entering takeoff or landing speeds will only make the speeds on the tape cyan "FMS speeds" function from the speed knob and corrections from the VNAV Thrust page are not affected

Answer 312

On the VNAV/Thrust page ARR tab

Answer 313

It changes only the landing field length and heading for landing data calculations The approach is not changed ## Footnote Note: Typically used for circling landings when crosswinds or field length are a concern

Answer 314

Page 2 of Departure Data

Answer 315

Select "Dry" and allow the FMS to calculate dry data Then apply the corrections from the QRH1 Manually enter the corrected data

Answer 316

When the aircraft configuration is correct for takeoff, the data will post ## Footnote Note: Typically the flaps are the last condition met when following the normal checklist

Answer 317

It controls the brightness of the HUD display ## Footnote Note: It looks like brightness. It actually controls the contrast between the outside light and the HUD symbols

Answer 318

It controls the brightness of the EVS or SVS portion in relation to the symbols of the HUD display It doesn't change the HUD symbol brightness ## Footnote Note: The FCOM calls this button "Contrast" but it doesn't adjust contrast. It adjusts the brightness of the CVS image as it relates to the HUD symbols. The labels on knob are "Dim" and "BRT". The name is left over from the XRS where this knob did control contrast.

Answer 319

After passing 35° of bank

Answer 320

It is listed in large letters in the upper right corner of the display; EVS, SVS, SVS CLR, etc.

Answer 321

The VSI tape is not present The current VSI value is in digital form below the altitude tape

Answer 322

It is Radio Altimeter problem To tell if it is a mis-compare the data will be present If it is a fault, the data will be missing If you look at the PFD, mis-compares are in yellow and faults are in red

Answer 323

It comes on with the engine cowl anti-ice and temperature control is automatic

Answer 324

You are not on the takeoff/departure runway entered in the FMS flight plan

Answer 325

The FMS navigation and obstacle databases

Answer 326

In countries which are not NAD83 or WGS84 compliant ## Footnote Note: NAD83 is "North American Datum 1983" developed for the use of Canada and the United States. This standard was adopted by ICAO as the world standard the next year; thus "World Geodetic Standard 1984" (WGS84). In some literature, including Jeppesen, the United States and sometimes Canada are listed as WGS84 non-compliant. These listings don't understand the relationship between NAD83 and WGS84

Answer 327

SVS must not be used in the HUD past the final approach fix. ## Footnote Note: The SVS in the PFD, the terrain on the map displays and the terrain warning system will also be inaccurate and should not be relied on for proper information.

Answer 328

Crash ax (behind co-pilot's seat) Cabin escape rope (life-line is adjacent and aft of over-wing emergency exit door) First aid kit (possibly 2)

Answer 329

Halon 1211, located behind co-pilot seat against the bulkhead ## Footnote Note: Effective in fighting A, B and C fires, and suitable for cold weather

Answer 330

Oxygen masks with EMER selected (a constant flow of oxygen is delivered at positive pressure). ## Footnote Note: NORM mixes outside air with oxygen. 100% will give you only oxygen, but at our cabin altitudes there is no added pressure. Smoke could still enter the mask

Answer 331

No, only the passenger door and over-wing exit doors are. ## Footnote Note: A left over-wing exit door is optional. The baggage door is large enough, but doesn't have any lighting or means of stepping out without falling

Answer 332

DDG 22-AUTOFLIGHT; 22-10-01 Autopilot System 3 hours

Answer 333

DDG 24-ELECTRICAL POWER; 24-21-01 Engine Generator Systems APU generator is operated continuously throughout flight

Answer 334

DDG 26-Fire Protection; 26-12-02 APU Fire Extinguishing System The APU is considered inoperative and is not used

Answer 335

Items in this category shall be repaired within three (3) consecutive calendar days (72 hours), excluding the day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance record/logbook

Answer 336

Return to parking and have the generator inspected for damage

Answer 337

AFM Chapter 6 Performance section, page 06-01-1, A. General

Answer 338

When there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water not more than 3 millimeters (1/8 inch) Chapter 6 Performance section, page 06-01-1, A. General, Note 1 ## Footnote Note: A runway with more than 3 mm of standing water would be a contaminated runway.

Answer 339

10 meters (33') Chapter 6 Performance section, page 06-01-1, A. General

Answer 340

Supplement 20; page 07-20-01-1

Answer 341

Supplement 20; page 07-20-01-1, Section 2 Limitations Maximum altitude 13,700ft Use of manual pressurization not permitted except if the auto pressurization system fails Takeoff with OUT/16 is prohibited See figure 07-20-1 for temperature and weight limitations ## Footnote Note: Primary lesson is that each supplement may have limitations not listed in the AFM Limitations section.

Answer 342

Supplement 20; page 07-20-01-4, Section 4 Normal Procedures Additions to the normal checklist are listed in the Supplement: CAS messages, monitoring an alternate pressurization schedule, additional landing data to check tire limit speed, etc. ## Footnote Note: Many non-normal and emergency checklists have modifications. Most of these modifications are changes to landing distance correction factors.

Answer 343

No, the ARINC data is only dry and wet. Any contamination will require the correction tables in the QRH1

Answer 344

Choose "Dry" on the FMS Departure Data format Use the FMS calculated dry data to enter the corrections table in the QRH1 to determine the new takeoff distance and V1 speed Insert the new V1 speed in the V1 window Re-enter the remaining values Send

Answer 345

When the current wind is entered in the FMS Departure Data format, the adjustment will be made if necessary

Answer 346

No, the runway slope will automatically fill from the database when the takeoff or landing distance becomes longer. ## Footnote Note: The flight crew may manually enter the slope as needed to improve the takeoff or landing distance

Answer 347

The FMS assumes only the autobrake will be used until the aircraft stops. ## Footnote Note: When landing on a wet runway it is not unusual for the landing distance for low autobrake to exceed the runway length. In this case, the landing distance will be amber. This indicates the pilot must apply additional braking to stop within the runway length

Answer 348

Takeoff weight in that column is limited by an obstacle

Answer 349

Takeoff weight in that column is limited by the runway length

Answer 350

Takeoff weight in that column is limited by the aircraft structural weight.

Answer 351

Contaminated Runways Wet runways unless wet data is used When any Anti-ice is used. When windshear or downdrafts are reported. ## Footnote Note: If you are on the Rolls Royce Engine Maintenance Program, Flex must be used as much as possible. The engines are flat rated to ISA +20° . This means you are effectively using flex and 35° C all the time. A selection of 41° will approximate climb power.

Answer 352

Icing conditions exist in flight at a TAT of 10 °C (50 °F) or colder, and visible moisture in any form is encountered (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals), except when the SAT is -40 °C (-40 °F) or colder.