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Pharm Unit 5 > Glaucoma > Flashcards

Glaucoma Flashcards

1
Q

Pressure pushing lens against iris and closing Schlemm’s canal

A

intraoccqular pressure (IOP)

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2
Q

Only modifiable risk factor for glaucoma

A

IOP

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3
Q

90-95% of all primary glaucoma

A

primary open-angle (POAG)

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4
Q

___ is slowly progressive glaucoma.

A

primary open-angle (POAG)

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5
Q

10% of all primary glaucoma

A

primary angle closure

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6
Q

primary angle closure glaucoma is treated as an ____

A

emergency

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7
Q

MC agents that are used in glaucoma

A

beta adrenergic blocking agents

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8
Q

B blockers acts on beta 2 receptors in the ___ leading to reduction of ___

A

ciliary processes, aqueous humor production

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9
Q

systemic SE’s of beta blockers are decreased by using ___

A

punctual occlusion. (holding lacrimal duct for 3-5 mins)

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10
Q

first line agent for glaucoma unless contraindicated

A

beta blockers

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11
Q

beta blocker that does not lower IOP as much. as other products

A

betaxolol.

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12
Q

gold standard in treatment of glaucoma

A

timolol solution (timoptic)

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13
Q

timolol is ___

A

nono-selective

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14
Q

timolol is a ___ solution and is administered ___

A

gel-forming; once a day

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15
Q

adrenergic agents act on alpha receptors to:

A

decrease aqueous humor production

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16
Q

adrenergic agents act on beta receptors to::

A

increase in outflow

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17
Q

adrenergic agents

A

epinephrine

dipivefrin

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18
Q

side effects of adrenergic agents

A

systemic: palpitation, tachycardia, HA, anxiety, increased sweating

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19
Q

prodrug of epinephrine

A

dipivefrin

20
Q

dipivefrin is shown to be effective in combo with ___

A

nonselective betablocker. (more pronounced IOP decrease)

21
Q

purpose of selective alpha-2 agonists

A

decrease aqueous production

22
Q

alpha2 selectivity prevents release of norepinephrine into the synapse which decreases ___ and increases ___

A

aqueous humor production; uveoscleral outflow

23
Q

selective alpha2 agonists

A

apraclonidine

brimonidine

24
Q

selective alpha2 agonists are used ____

A

in addition to other agents if used at all.

25
Q

S/E of apraclonidine

A

tachyphylaxis develops rapidly

26
Q

brimonidine can be used alone in patients who are ___

A

intolerant to beta blockers

27
Q

purpose of cholinergics

A

stimulation of sphincter pupillae
causes miosis
physically pulls open meshwork
increases outflow

28
Q

cholinergics

A

pilocarpine
Carbachol
Ocusert

29
Q

Pilocarpine reduces IOP by

A

20-30%

30
Q

Ocusert has a slow release ___

A

delivery system

31
Q

cholinergic bind to enzyme which ___

A

breaks down endogenous acetylcholine. (cholinesterase inhibitor)

32
Q

anticholinesterases are used only in patients _______

A

unresponsive or intolerant of other therapies.

33
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors inhibit carbonic anhydrase in ____ to decrease ___

A

ciliary body; aqueous formation by 40-60%

34
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

dorzolamide and brinzolamide

acetazolamide

35
Q

dorzolamide and brinzolamide are ___ administerd

A

topically

36
Q

dorzolamide and brinzolamide reduce IOP by ___

A

15-26%

37
Q

acetazolamide is administered by ___

A

PO

38
Q

acetazolamide reduces IOP by ___

A

25-40%

39
Q

___ has a higher incidence of S/E out of the CAIs

A

acetazolamide

40
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are 1 of the 3 medications of choice for ___

A

glaucoma

41
Q

medications of choice for glaucoma

A

beta blockers
prostaglandin F2-alpha analogues
CAIs

42
Q

purpose of prostaglandin F2 alpha analogues

A

increased uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor.

43
Q

side effects of prostaglandin F2

A

iris pigmentation

eyelash thickening

44
Q

prostaglandin f2 has fewer side effects than ___

A

timolol

45
Q

prostaglandin f2 decreases IOP similar to ___

A

BB if not more

46
Q

latanoprost solution dosage

A

0.005% solution Q24h

47
Q

treatment of angle closure glaucoma

A

ER

iridectomy is definitive tx

Pharm Unit 5 (4 decks)

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