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gastrointestinal system > GIT pathologies > Flashcards

GIT pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

what type of hernia is medial to inferior epigastric vessels?

A

direct inguinal hernia

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2
Q

what type of hernia is lateral to inferior epigastric vessels?

A

indirect inguinal hernia

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3
Q

which structure is compressed in nutcracker syndrome?

A

left renal vein by SMA

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4
Q

what symptoms are seen in nutcracker syndrome?

A
  1. varicocele
  2. haematuria
  3. left flank and testicular pain
  4. nausea and vomiting
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5
Q

what is cryptorchidism?

A

undescended testis

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6
Q

what is the common cause of indirect inguinal hernia?

A

patent processus vaginalis

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7
Q

what causes GORD?

A

poor LOS closure

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8
Q

what does oesophageal varices indicate?

A

portal hypertension

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9
Q

what are oesophageal varices?

A

abnormally dilated sub-mucosal veins between anastomosis of systemic (oesophageal v.) and portal (left gastric v.) circulation

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10
Q

what are the risk factors of PUD?

A

helicobacter pylori infection
NSAID use

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11
Q

which type of peptic ulcer pain worsens with food?

A

gastric ulcer

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12
Q

which type of peptic ulcer is more common?

A

duodenal ulcer

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13
Q

which type of oesophageal hiatal hernia does not present with reflux?

A

paraoesophageal hernia

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14
Q

which oesophageal hiatal hernia is more common?

A

sliding hernia

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15
Q

what is portal hypertension?

A

portal venous system BP > systemic circulation BP

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16
Q

what would ruptured oesophageal varices cause?

A

upper GI bleed –> haematemesis, melaena

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17
Q

what would ruptured anorectal varices cause?

A

lower GI bleed –> haematochezia (passage of fresh blood through anus)

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18
Q

what symptoms make up Charcot’s triad?

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

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19
Q

what symptoms make up Reynold’s pentad?

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain, septic shock, confusion

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20
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

gallstones

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21
Q

what condition involves a build up of fluid in the tunica vaginalis?

A

hydrocele

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22
Q

Acquired metaplasia of columnar epithelium in lower oesophagus.
What condition is this?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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23
Q

what is achalasia?

A

rare oesophageal motor disorder where LOS fails to relax and there is loss of oesophageal peristalsis

24
Q

what is brown granular/coffee ground vomit associated with?

A

peptic ulcer disease

25
Q

what are the charcot’s triad and reynold’s pentad symptoms suggestive of?

A

ascending cholangitis

26
Q

what is cullen’s sign?

A

discolouration around umbilicus

27
Q

what is grey turner’s sign?

A

discolouration around flanks

28
Q

what are cullen’s sign and grey turner’s sign indicative of?

A

acute pancreatitis

29
Q

what is the most common congenital defect of GIT?

A

meckel’s diverticulum

30
Q

what causes meckel’s diverticulum?

A

incomplete obliteration of vitelline duct

31
Q

what is crohn’s disease?

A

inflammatory bowel disease typically affecting the terminal ileum but can be anywhere along the GIT

32
Q

what is ulcerative colitis?

A

inflammatory bowel disease affecting colon only (only mucosa layer)

33
Q

what causes infectious inflammatory diarrhoea?

A

bacteria (shigella, salmonella, E.coli, etc.)

34
Q

what causes infectious non-inflammatory diarrhoea?

A

viruses (norwalk), parasites (giardia), bacteria pre-formed toxins

35
Q

what does elevated ALP and GGT levels indicate?

A

cholestatic/obstructive/post-hepatic jaundice

36
Q

what does elevated AST and ALT levels indicate?

A

intrahepatic/mixed jaundice

37
Q

what does AST/ALT > 2 indicate?

A

alcoholic hepatitis

38
Q

what is the most common cause of pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

haemolytic anaemia

39
Q

which of the following clinical findings is not indicative of liver cirrhosis?
a) Dupuytren’s contracture
b) spider naevi
c) clubbing
d) gynaecomastia

A

a) dupuytren’s contracture

40
Q

what condition causes compression of duodenum as it crosses the abdominal aorta?

A

SMA syndrome

41
Q

which arteries are susceptible to injury in gastric ulcers?

A

left and right gastric arteries

42
Q

which type of hernia protrudes despite occlusion of deep inguinal ring?

A

direct inguinal hernia (does not pass through deep inguinal ring)

43
Q

in paraesophageal hernia, the fundus may herniate ____ (with/without) the cardia and ____ (with/without) the gastroesophageal junction shifting superiorly resulting in ____ (yes/no) reflux

A

without
without
no

44
Q

where are gastric ulcers most commonly found?

A

antrum and lesser curvature of stomach

45
Q

where are duodenal ulcers most commonly found?

A

1st part of duodenum

46
Q

what is the Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

absence/decreased activity of glucuronyl transferase

47
Q

which of the following is not a potential cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

a. primary liver tumours
b. tumour of tail of pancreas
c. cholelithiasis
d. pregnancy

A

b. tumour of tail of pancreas
(usually tumour of head of pancreas)

48
Q

Pancreatitis is characterised by:

a. reduced pancreatic trypsin levels
b. steatorrhoea
c. intermittent abdominal pain
d. weight gain

A

b. steatorrhoea (pale, foul-smelling stools due to malabsorption)

49
Q

what is the most common cause of acute appendicitis in adults?

A

faecolith impaction

50
Q

what is the most common cause of acute appendicitis in children?

A

lymphoid hyperplasia

51
Q

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in children is associated with ______

A

nephrotic syndrome

52
Q

what is a risk factor of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

chronic liver disease (ESLD, cirrhosis)

53
Q

which is the most common bacteria causing SBP?

A

E. coli

54
Q

what are the most common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A
  1. bowel adhesions from past abdo surgeries
  2. incarcerated hernias
55
Q

what are the most common causes of large bowel obstruction?

A
  1. malignant tumours
  2. volvulus
  3. diverticulitis
56
Q

what are the 3 types of intestinal ischaemia?

A
  1. acute mesenteric ischaemia
  2. chronic mesenteric ischamia
  3. ischaemic colitis

gastrointestinal system (8 decks)

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