GIT pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

what type of hernia is medial to inferior epigastric vessels?

A

direct inguinal hernia

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2
Q

what type of hernia is lateral to inferior epigastric vessels?

A

indirect inguinal hernia

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3
Q

which structure is compressed in nutcracker syndrome?

A

left renal vein by SMA

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4
Q

what symptoms are seen in nutcracker syndrome?

A
  1. varicocele
  2. haematuria
  3. left flank and testicular pain
  4. nausea and vomiting
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5
Q

what is cryptorchidism?

A

undescended testis

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6
Q

what is the common cause of indirect inguinal hernia?

A

patent processus vaginalis

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7
Q

what causes GORD?

A

poor LOS closure

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8
Q

what does oesophageal varices indicate?

A

portal hypertension

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9
Q

what are oesophageal varices?

A

abnormally dilated sub-mucosal veins between anastomosis of systemic (oesophageal v.) and portal (left gastric v.) circulation

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10
Q

what are the risk factors of PUD?

A

helicobacter pylori infection
NSAID use

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11
Q

which type of peptic ulcer pain worsens with food?

A

gastric ulcer

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12
Q

which type of peptic ulcer is more common?

A

duodenal ulcer

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13
Q

which type of oesophageal hiatal hernia does not present with reflux?

A

paraoesophageal hernia

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14
Q

which oesophageal hiatal hernia is more common?

A

sliding hernia

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15
Q

what is portal hypertension?

A

portal venous system BP > systemic circulation BP

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16
Q

what would ruptured oesophageal varices cause?

A

upper GI bleed –> haematemesis, melaena

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17
Q

what would ruptured anorectal varices cause?

A

lower GI bleed –> haematochezia (passage of fresh blood through anus)

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18
Q

what symptoms make up Charcot’s triad?

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

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19
Q

what symptoms make up Reynold’s pentad?

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain, septic shock, confusion

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20
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

gallstones

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21
Q

what condition involves a build up of fluid in the tunica vaginalis?

A

hydrocele

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22
Q

Acquired metaplasia of columnar epithelium in lower oesophagus.
What condition is this?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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23
Q

what is achalasia?

A

rare oesophageal motor disorder where LOS fails to relax and there is loss of oesophageal peristalsis

24
Q

what is brown granular/coffee ground vomit associated with?

A

peptic ulcer disease

25
what are the charcot's triad and reynold's pentad symptoms suggestive of?
ascending cholangitis
26
what is cullen's sign?
discolouration around umbilicus
27
what is grey turner's sign?
discolouration around flanks
28
what are cullen's sign and grey turner's sign indicative of?
acute pancreatitis
29
what is the most common congenital defect of GIT?
meckel's diverticulum
30
what causes meckel's diverticulum?
incomplete obliteration of vitelline duct
31
what is crohn's disease?
inflammatory bowel disease typically affecting the terminal ileum but can be anywhere along the GIT
32
what is ulcerative colitis?
inflammatory bowel disease affecting colon only (only mucosa layer)
33
what causes infectious inflammatory diarrhoea?
bacteria (shigella, salmonella, E.coli, etc.)
34
what causes infectious non-inflammatory diarrhoea?
viruses (norwalk), parasites (giardia), bacteria pre-formed toxins
35
what does elevated ALP and GGT levels indicate?
cholestatic/obstructive/post-hepatic jaundice
36
what does elevated AST and ALT levels indicate?
intrahepatic/mixed jaundice
37
what does AST/ALT > 2 indicate?
alcoholic hepatitis
38
what is the most common cause of pre-hepatic jaundice?
haemolytic anaemia
39
which of the following clinical findings is not indicative of liver cirrhosis? a) Dupuytren's contracture b) spider naevi c) clubbing d) gynaecomastia
a) dupuytren's contracture
40
what condition causes compression of duodenum as it crosses the abdominal aorta?
SMA syndrome
41
which arteries are susceptible to injury in gastric ulcers?
left and right gastric arteries
42
which type of hernia protrudes despite occlusion of deep inguinal ring?
direct inguinal hernia (does not pass through deep inguinal ring)
43
in paraesophageal hernia, the fundus may herniate ____ (with/without) the cardia and ____ (with/without) the gastroesophageal junction shifting superiorly resulting in ____ (yes/no) reflux
without without no
44
where are gastric ulcers most commonly found?
antrum and lesser curvature of stomach
45
where are duodenal ulcers most commonly found?
1st part of duodenum
46
what is the Crigler-Najjar syndrome?
absence/decreased activity of glucuronyl transferase
47
which of the following is not a potential cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia? a. primary liver tumours b. tumour of tail of pancreas c. cholelithiasis d. pregnancy
b. tumour of tail of pancreas (usually tumour of head of pancreas)
48
Pancreatitis is characterised by: a. reduced pancreatic trypsin levels b. steatorrhoea c. intermittent abdominal pain d. weight gain
b. steatorrhoea (pale, foul-smelling stools due to malabsorption)
49
what is the most common cause of acute appendicitis in adults?
faecolith impaction
50
what is the most common cause of acute appendicitis in children?
lymphoid hyperplasia
51
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in children is associated with ______
nephrotic syndrome
52
what is a risk factor of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
chronic liver disease (ESLD, cirrhosis)
53
which is the most common bacteria causing SBP?
E. coli
54
what are the most common causes of small bowel obstruction?
1. bowel adhesions from past abdo surgeries 2. incarcerated hernias
55
what are the most common causes of large bowel obstruction?
1. malignant tumours 2. volvulus 3. diverticulitis
56
what are the 3 types of intestinal ischaemia?
1. acute mesenteric ischaemia 2. chronic mesenteric ischamia 3. ischaemic colitis