GI/Renal Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between GER and GERD?

A

GER is the physiologic retrograde passage of fluid from the stomach to the esophagus, while GERD is a pathologic condition causing medical complications due to this retrograde flow.

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2
Q

What are the major mechanisms allowing GER in infants?

A

Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations unrelated to swallowing are the major mechanism allowing GER.

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3
Q

What is the role of human milk in the infant GI tract?

A

Human milk provides beneficial bacteria to the infant GI tract, potentially more so than probiotics.

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4
Q

What are probiotics?

A

Probiotics are live microorganism cultures investigated to prevent NEC.

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5
Q

What are the mechanisms of protection provided by probiotics?

A
  • Enhanced gut barrier functioning
  • Decreased colonization with pathogenic microorganisms
  • Modified host immune response
  • Increased enteric nervous system maturation
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6
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

Prebiotics are exogenous products containing substrates that promote colonization by commensal organisms.

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7
Q

What is the primary carbon source for bacterial species in the intestine?

A

Human milk oligosaccharides.

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8
Q

What is the significance of synbiotics?

A

Synbiotics are products containing both prebiotics and probiotics, but research has been limited.

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9
Q

What is the primary use of diuretics?

A

Diuretics promote the excretion of water and electrolytes, primarily used in inappropriate salt and water retention.

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10
Q

What factors modulate Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

A
  • Systemic arterial pressure
  • Intra-renal arteriolar resistance
  • Plasma oncotic pressure
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11
Q

What role does angiotensin II play in renal function?

A

Angiotensin II stimulates sodium and water reabsorption by increasing aldosterone secretion.

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12
Q

What causes edema in congestive heart failure (CHF)?

A

Increased pressure in venous circulation moves fluid into the interstitium, resulting in edema.

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13
Q

What are the classifications of diuretics based on their action?

A
  • Filtration diuretics
  • Osmotic diuretics
  • Inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase
  • Loop diuretics
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • Potassium-sparing diuretics
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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics?

A

Loop diuretics inhibit sodium reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

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15
Q

What are osmotic diuretics and their effect?

A

Osmotic diuretics increase tubular fluid osmolality, impairing water reabsorption and increasing urine output.

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16
Q

What is the function of histamine-2 receptor antagonists?

A

They block H2 receptors in acid-producing gastric parietal cells, suppressing HCl production.

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17
Q

What are the potential risks of routine use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A
  • Increased risk of GI and respiratory tract infections
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Bone fractures
  • Rebound hyperacidity after discontinuation
18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

A

Metoclopramide acts as a central and peripheral dopamine antagonist, increasing gastric tone and accelerating intestinal transit.

19
Q

What are probiotics and their benefits for term and preterm infants?

A

Probiotics are live microorganisms that confer health benefits; for term infants, they decrease allergic disease, and for preterm infants, they decrease NEC and mortality.

20
Q

What is the role of phenobarbital in treating hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Phenobarbital induces hepatic enzymes, enhancing conjugation and excretion of bilirubin.

21
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary source of energy for intestinal epithelial cells derived from oligosaccharides is _______.

A

short chain fatty acids.

22
Q

True or False: Diuretics are contraindicated in cases of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

23
Q

What is the primary risk associated with NEC?

A

Sepsis

NEC stands for Necrotizing Enterocolitis, a serious gastrointestinal problem mostly seen in premature infants.

24
Q

Which drug has been shown to induce hepatic enzymes, enhancing conjugation and excretion for hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Phenobarbital

Phenobarbital is effective in reducing bilirubin levels in conditions like mild Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II and Gilbert syndrome.

25
What is the most common reason for conjugated hyperbilirubinemia associated with TPN?
TPN associated uis ## Footnote TPN stands for Total Parenteral Nutrition.
26
What are some areas for research related to hyperbilirubinemia?
* Minocycline * Chinese herbal remedies * Clofibrate ## Footnote These substances have potential effects on UGT activity and bilirubin levels.
27
What is the proposed mechanism of action for Ursodeoxycholic Acid (Ursodiol)?
Stimulation of bile flow and displacement of more toxic bile acids ## Footnote The exact mechanism remains uncertain.
28
What are the names of two fish oil-based lipid emulsions mentioned?
* Omegaven * SMOF ## Footnote These emulsions are noted for their hepatoprotective properties.
29
What is the primary action of filtration diuretics?
Increase salt and water excretion by increasing GFR ## Footnote GFR stands for Glomerular Filtration Rate.
30
What do osmotic diuretics do?
Depress salt and electrolyte reabsorption in the proximal tubule ## Footnote They alter osmotic driving forces along the nephron.
31
What is the effect of inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase on the proximal tubule?
Act on proximal tubule ## Footnote They reduce the secretion of H+, affecting Na+ reabsorption.
32
What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics?
Block the Na/K/Cl symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle ## Footnote Loop diuretics significantly increase potassium excretion.
33
What are potassium-sparing diuretics primarily used for?
Increase Na excretion and decrease K and H secretion ## Footnote They antagonize aldosterone action.
34
What are the common side effects of loop diuretics?
* Volume depletion * Hypotension * Ototoxicity ## Footnote Special caution is advised in premature neonates due to risk of hearing loss.
35
Fill in the blank: The main thiazides include __________ and __________.
chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
36
What is the pharmacokinetic profile of thiazide diuretics?
Rapid absorption, variable protein binding, eliminated unchanged in urine ## Footnote Diuresis occurs within 2 hours and lasts for about 12 hours.
37
What is a significant adverse effect of spironolactone?
Hyperkalemia ## Footnote It can also cause gynecomastia and GI disturbances.
38
What is the effect of osmotic diuretics on tubular fluid osmolality?
Increases tubular fluid osmolality ## Footnote This effect impairs the diffusion of water out of the tubular lumen.
39
True or False: Loop diuretics inhibit HCO3 reabsorption.
False ## Footnote They do not interfere with bicarbonate reabsorption.
40
What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide?
Depressed cellular formation and secretion of H+ ## Footnote This leads to decreased Na+ reabsorption and enhanced K+ secretion.
41
What is the effect of thiazides on calcium reabsorption?
Stimulate Ca2+ reabsorption ## Footnote This is likely due to opening of apical membrane Ca2+ channels.
42
What is the primary therapeutic use of thiazides?
Edematous states and hypertension ## Footnote They are also used for hypercalciuria and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.