Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What is neonatal sepsis?

A

Whole body inflammatory state (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) and the presence of a known or suspected infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is neonatal sepsis classified?

A

Classified as either early-onset or late-onset depending on timing of the episode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the etiologies of early-onset sepsis?

A
  • E. coli
  • Group B strep (most common)
  • Listeria monocytogenes (rare)
  • Enterococci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the typical timing for early-onset sepsis?

A

First 72 hours after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are common causes of late-onset sepsis?

A
  • Coagulase-negative staphylococcus
  • Staph aureus
  • Enterococci
  • Multi-drug resistant gram-negative rods
  • Candida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a significant risk factor for late-onset sepsis?

A

Infants born before the third trimester are most susceptible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the clinical signs of neonatal sepsis?

A

Non-specific clinical features which can mimic many other conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Neonatal sepsis has reliable diagnostic markers.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What types of bacteria are frequently causing infections in NICU?

A
  • Gram positive
  • Gram negative
  • Atypical bacteria (mycoplasma)
  • Spirochetes
  • Fungus
  • Virus
  • Protozoa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the structural characteristic of gram-positive bacteria?

A

Thicker cell wall, rich in peptidoglycan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What distinguishes gram-negative bacteria?

A

Cell wall is rich in lipopolysaccharide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fill in the blank: Gram positive bacteria lack an _______.

A

outer membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name an example of an atypical bacteria.

A
  • Mycoplasma
  • Rickettsia
  • Coxiella
  • Chlamydia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are beta-lactam antibiotics known for?

A

Contain a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of most beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

Inhibit cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are common examples of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A
  • Penicillin derivatives
  • Cephalosporins
  • Carbapenems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Prevent antimicrobial resistance and inhibit beta-lactamase from working.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of vancomycin?

A

Treatment of serious infections by gram-positive bacteria unresponsive to other antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does MIC stand for?

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the classifications of antifungals?

A
  • Polyenes
  • Azoles
  • Echinocandins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of polyenes?

A

Bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, causing cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the recommended treatment for early onset sepsis (EOS)?

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be used for late onset sepsis (LOS) if MRSA is suspected?

A

Vancomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What pathogens are commonly associated with early onset sepsis?

A
  • Group B Streptococcus
  • E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What percentage of women are colonized with Group B Streptococcus?
10-40%.
26
What is the significance of ESBL?
Extended spectrum beta-lactamases confer resistance to certain antibiotics.
27
What are the risks associated with aminoglycosides?
* Inner ear toxicity * Kidney damage
28
Fill in the blank: Cloxacillin is indicated for _______ infections.
MSSA.
29
What is the recommended prophylaxis for RSV?
Palivizumab (Synagis).
30
What is the caution associated with vancomycin administration?
Monitor for serum concentrations to avoid treatment failures.
31
What is the significance of the 60-minute administration time for vancomycin?
To avoid red man syndrome.
32
What is the first generation of cephalosporins introduced?
1960s
33
What type of enzymes are B-lactamase?
A heterogeneous group of resistance enzymes
34
Which family of bacteria commonly expresses plasmid-encoded B lactamases?
Enterobacteriaceae
35
What do B-lactamases confer resistance to?
* Penicillins * Narrow spectrum cephalosporins
36
Are B-lactamases effective against higher generation cephalosporins?
No, they are not effective against those with an oxyimino side chain
37
Which higher generation cephalosporins are mentioned?
* Cefotaxime * Ceftazidime * Ceftriaxone * Cefepime
38
What does ESBL stand for?
Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases
39
What are ESBL capable of hydrolyzing?
* Penicillins * Cephalosporins * Monobactam aztreonam
40
What are AmpC beta-lactamases clinically important for?
Mediate resistance to cephalosporin antibiotics
41
What antibiotics do AmpC beta-lactamases mediate resistance to?
* Cephalothin * Cefazolin * Cefoxitin * Most penicillins * Beta lactamase inhibitor-beta lactam combinations
42
What is a common treatment for infections due to AmpC producing bacteria?
Carbapenems
43
True or False: Meropenem should be used for treating enterobacter infections regardless of susceptibility reports.
True
44
What are the consequences of improper antibiotic use?
* Increased risk of candida colonization * Increased risk of death with 3rd generation cephalosporin * Increased odds of NEC or death with empirical treatment >5 days
45
What is the most common pathogen in early onset sepsis (EOS) in preterm infants?
E. coli
46
What is the strongest predictor of early onset sepsis (EOS)?
Gestational age
47
What are the two major risk factors for late onset sepsis (LOS)?
* Preterm birth * Low birth weight
48
What is the gold standard for diagnosing urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Urine sample obtained by suprapubic aspiration or catheter
49
What is the recommended empirical antibiotic treatment for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
* Ampicillin * Gentamicin or Cefotaxime
50
What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for clean-contaminated surgical procedures?
Single dose of cefazolin
51
What antibiotic combination is recommended for colorectal surgeries as prophylaxis?
* Cefazolin * Metronidazole
52
What is the recommended empirical coverage for gastroschisis?
Beta lactamase resistant penicillin derivative combined with an aminoglycoside
53
Fill in the blank: The recommended empirical antibiotics for EOS are _______ and _______.
Ampicillin, Gentamicin
54
What is associated with increased odds of infection in diagnostic tests for EOS?
* Low WBCs * Low absolute neutrophil count * High immature to total neutrophil ratios
55
What is the typical duration of antibiotic treatment for meningitis?
14-21 days
56
What is the main pathogen of late onset sepsis (LOS) in NICUs?
Coagulase negative staphylococcus (CoNS)
57
True or False: Empirical antibiotics for LOS should always include vancomycin.
False
58
What should be favored in non-critically ill neonates for empiric antibiotic therapy?
Narrow spectrum therapy
59
What is the recommendation for the duration of antibiotic therapy for NEC?
No evidence regarding optimal duration
60
What is the accepted threshold of pathogen growth in urine for UTIs?
>5 x 10^7