GI physiology and the endocrine pancreas Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of the GIT

A
transport food
digest food 
absorb food components into the blood 
secrete saliva and digestive fluids 
regulate water and electrolyte balance 
immune system
thermoregulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hind gut fermenters

A

horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do carnivores use for food intake

A

teeth and forelimbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do horses use when grazing? when at manger?

A

grazing - lips retracted, incissors

manger - lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

use tongue as a spoon

A

carnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

drink water via suction/inspiration

A

herbivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

masticate sparsely and have vertical mandible movements

A

carnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

frequent mastication and horizontal mandible movements

A

herbivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

first motility pattern of the GIT

A

deglutition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is the oral phase of deglutition voluntary or involuntary

A

voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the oral phase of deglutition

A

food is molded into a bolus by the tongue and pushed back into the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what initiates the involuntary phase of deglutition

A

sensory nerve endings activated when food enters the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what elevates to close the pharyngeal opening to the nasopharynx

A

soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F

breathing stops during the involuntary (swallow reflex) phase of deglutition

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what closes the oral opening in the swallow reflex

A

the tongue against the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what blocks the laryngeal opening in the swallow reflex

A

epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

regulatory center for energy homeostasis

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hypothalamic hunger center is comprised of..

A

nucleus paraventricularis

lateral fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hypothalamic satiety center is comprised of..

A

nucleus ventromedialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

neuropeptide hormones that stimulate hunger

A

NPY

orexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

neuropeptide hormones that inhibit hunger

A

MSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

non-hypothalamic hunger stimulating hormone

A

ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

non-hypothalamic hunger inhibiting hormone

A

cck
pyy
leptin
insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which hormone inhibits NPY and stimulates MSH

A

leptin (from fat cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

list the major salivary glands

A

parotid
mandibular
sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which salivary glands produce 90% of the saliva

A

parotid and mandibular

sublingaul does 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which salivary gland does serous secretions

A

parotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which salivary glands have seromucous secretions

A

sublingual and mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

primary functions of saliva

A

protect buccal mucosa and teeth
facilitate deglutition
initiate enzymatic carb digestion (amylase in pigs/humans)
ph regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

secondary functions of saliva

A

immune
protection
thermoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is primary saliva

A

the saliva from the acinus glands – contains Na, Cl, H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parasympathetic regulation of saliva

A

acts on M3 receptors - increase diluted saliva

SNS: on alpha-1 receptors = small amounts of mucus saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F

in carnivores, high saliva production leads to an increase in electrolyte concentration

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

in the salivary ducts, what is secreted and what is reabsorbed?

A

secreted: HCO3-
reabsorbed: Cl-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ENDOCRINE PANCREAS organization and percent of the pancreas

A

2-3%

islets of langerhan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F
the endocrine pancreas is richly innervated by both vagal parasympathetic system and splanchnic
sympathetic fibers

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F

all hormones of the endocrine pancreas are involved in glucose metabolism

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what percent of the islet cells are alpha cells and what do they secrete

A

20%

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what percent of the islet cells are beta cells and what do they secrete

A

70%

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what percent of the islet cells are delta cells and what do they secrete

A

5%

somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what percent of the islet cells are F cells and what do they secrete

A

5%

pancreatic polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

a polypeptide hormone produced by beta cells in response to hyperglycemia

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is insulin released in response to

A

hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

insulin structure

A

a polypeptide with an alpha and a beta chain connected by a disulfide bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

canine insulin and porcine insulin are _____

A

the SAME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

bovine and feline insulin are ____

A

1 amino acid different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

in omnivores what governs the release of insulin

A

GLUCOSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

in carnivores what governs the release of insulin

A

PROTEIN – amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does acetylcholine do to insulin secretion

A

STIMULATES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what do GI hormones (gastrin, secretin, GIP) do to insulin secretion

A

stimulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

list 4 hormones that inhibit insulin secretion

A
  1. GLUCAGON
  2. SOMATOSTATIN
  3. EPINEPHRINE
  4. NOREPINEPHRINE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

glucose transporter in the membrane of beta cells that allows glucose to diffuse freely into the cell

A

GLUT2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F

Extracellular fluid glucose concentration directly affects glucose concentration inside of the beta cell

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

if blood glucose concentration increases, what will happen to insulin

A

it will be secreted and synthesized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the acute phase of insulin secretion involves…

A

Involves the release of preformed insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the chronic phase of insulin secretion involves

A

the synthesis of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

After release, insulin binds to a specific membrane

receptor on target tissues called….

A

receptor tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

list three insulin-sensitive tissues (meaning they have the insulin target receptors)

A

liver
muscle
fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The net effect of insulin is…

A

The net effect of insulin is to lower blood concentration of

glucose , fatty acids and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the only insulin sensitive transporter

A

GLUT4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Insulin facilitates glucose entry into cells by increasing the number of ….

A

specific GLUCOSE TRANSPORTERS (GLUT 4) in the

cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does insulin do to glycogen in the liver

A

increases glycogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T/F

in the liver, insulin increases lipolysis

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T/F

in the liver, insulin increases gluconeogenesis

A

FALSE – decreases gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the action of insulin on smooth, striated, and cardiac muscle?

A
  1. stimulated glycogen synthesis enzymes (promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen)
  2. promotes glucose as a fuel source
  3. enhances aa uptake which promotes muscle growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In the absence of insulin muscles rely on what for a fuel source

A

fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

T/F

insulin stimulates lipolysis in adipose tissue

A

FALSE – inhibits lipolysis and promotes fat deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Glucose provided to adipocytes promotes:

A
  1. glycogen synthesis
  2. Glycerol formation - combines with fatty acids delivered to adipose
    tissue to form triglycerides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T/F

Insulin promotes fatty acid synthesis in hepatocytes

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

T/F

Insulin stimulates glycogen synthesis in the liver

A

TRUEEE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what two organs is insulin mainly metabolized by

A

kidney and liver

-specific enzymes reduce the disulfide bridges and the chains are subject to protease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

whats the half life of insulin

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

______ will be the main source of energy for all cells and excess will be stored as ___ and fat

A

CARBOHYDRATES

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

half life of glucagon

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F

insulin stimulates amino acid uptake in muscles which promotes muscle growth

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what hormone is a major inhibitor of lipolysis

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is released when glucose levels exceed 110mg/dL

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is released when glucose levels are below 60 mg/dl

A

glucagon/epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

two hormones that stimulate the use of glycogen for glucose

A

epinephrine and glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

T/F

if we don’t eat any meals, in 24 hours we will use up all of our glycogen

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hepatic glycogenolysis stimulates the release of what hormones

A

cortisol and GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

a process that produces glucose from glycerol, amino acids, and lactate

A

gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what two hormones can directly stimulate gluconeogenesis

A

cortisol and GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what there is no glucose, what can be used as energy everywhere in the body except for in the brain

A

FAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

hormone that acts in the liver to greatly enhances glucose availability to other organs in the body

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

T/F

under normal conditions, kidneys do gluconeogenesis

A

FALSE

BUT they pick up 40% in liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does glucagon do to glycogen synthesis

A

LOWERS it

–stimulates glycogenolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what does glucagon do to gluconeogenesis in the liver

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what stimulates glucagon synthesis

A

a decreased glucose concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is required for glucose to be taken up into alpha cells

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

is glucagon high or low when insulin is deficient

A

HIGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

hormone that inhibits secretion of pancreatic enzymes and contraction of the gall bladder

A

pancreatic somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

absolute insulin deficient

A

lack of insulin – type 1 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

relative insulin deficient

A

insulin is either not working or there is resistance

type 2 diabetes – common in cats and people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

insulin deficiency will cause the blood glucose concentrations to ______

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

insulin deficiency will cause the blood lipid levels to _____

A

increase (due to lipolysis of storage fat and the release of FFA)

97
Q

insulin deficiency causes the plasma protein level to _______

A

increase – amino acids will be in the blood/protein catabolism, synthesis stops

98
Q

amino acids in the blood can be used for what

A
  1. direct energy sources in the liver

2. substrate for gluconeogenesis – hyperglycemia

99
Q

in diabetes, what substrates becomes so excessive that the krebs cycle and triglyceride synthesis become too overwhelmed and ketone bodies are made

A

acetyl CoA

100
Q

why are some diabetic patients so skinny

A

there is no insulin so there is no glucose uptake into the satiety center – polyphagia, they eat a ton BUT the proteins are in a state of catabolism so huge weight loss

101
Q

most common long term complication in dogs of type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

cataracts

102
Q

impaired insulin action in the liver, muscle, and adipose tissue – also beta cell failure

A

type 2 diabetes – relative deficiency

103
Q

top two potential factors that can lead to type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

obesity

islet amyloidosis

104
Q

polypeptide produced by beta cells with insulin to increase satiety and lower glucagon production

A

amylin

105
Q

what is islet amyloidosis

A

when amyloid deposits in the islets/aggregates and becomes toxic to beta cells and they fail to produce insulin

106
Q

what organ compensates producing insulin when there starts to be insulin resistance

A

pancreas

107
Q

when the beta cells lost their ability to compensate glucose will not be maintained to the normal range and what will occur…

A

glucose intolerance

108
Q

list some common causes of insulin resistance in cats

A
obesity 
progestins 
glucocorticoids 
acromegaly 
cushings 
hyperthyroidism 
pancreatitis
109
Q

why is progesterone a cause of insulin resistance

A

it stimulates GH production which is a counterregulatory hormone and lowers insulin levels

110
Q

T/F

amyliodosis is reversible

A

FALSE

111
Q

T/F

glucotoxicity is reversible

A

TRUE

112
Q

What is diabetic neuropathy and who gets it

A

cats and people

it is when hyperglycemia leads to nerve damage

  • ataxia
  • muscle atrophy
  • plantigrade posture
  • limb weakness
113
Q

derived by oxidation of FFA by the liver and used as an energy source in glucose deficiency

A

ketone bodies

114
Q

the condition when ketone bodies build up in excess

A

ketosis

115
Q

what two things happen for ketone body synthesis

A
  1. increased mobilization of FFA from the triglycerides stored in the adipose tissue
  2. a shift in hepatic metabolism from fat synthesis to fat oxidation
116
Q

insulin _____ will promote an increased release of FFAs which in turn promotes _______ in the liver

A

deficiency

ketogenesis

117
Q

most influential ketogenic hormone

A

glucagon

118
Q

hormone that will inhibit glucose uptake in muscles and stimulate glucose production in the liver

A

glucagon (epinephrine)

***leads to insulin resistance

119
Q

enhance lipolysis in insulin deficiency

A

cortisol and GH

120
Q

block insulin action in peripheral tissues

A

cortisol and GH

121
Q

potentiate glucagon on hepatic glucose output

A

cortisol and GH

122
Q

low insulin = what with proteins

A

PROTEIN CATABOLISM = amino acids being made to liver

123
Q

protein catabolism will stimulate what processes in the liver

A

gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis to make glucose

124
Q

list coexisting disorders increase the secretion of counterregulatory hormones

A
  1. pancreatitis
  2. infection
  3. CKD
  4. hormonal disorders
125
Q

T/F
counter regulatory hormones worsen hyperglycemia and ketonemia, provoking acidosis, fluid depletion and
hypotension

A

TRUE

126
Q

excess accumulation of ketones in the blood ..

A

acidosis

overwhelms the body’s buffer systems
kidneys fail to compensate/bicarb is lost

127
Q

Insulin ________ renal sodium reabsorption in the distal portion of the nephron

A

enhances

128
Q

Insulin ______ increases sodium wasting

A

deficiency

129
Q

during ketoacidosis what happens to the body sodium levels

A

DEFICIT

  • Excessive urinary loss caused by osmotic diuresis
  • Glucagon, vomiting and diarrhea also contributes
130
Q

explain the deficit in total body potassium during diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Increase in plasma and ECF tonicity in DKA leads to a shift of water out of the cells, potassium follows the water out of the cells

acidosis shifts K+ out of cells

• Potassium shift is enhaced by the presence of acidosis and the breakdown of
intracellular protein secondary to insulin deficiency
• Entry of potassium into cells is also impaired in the presence of insulinopenia
• Osmotic diuresis causes marked urinary losses of potassium
• Secondary hyperaldosteroneism augment the potassium deficit

131
Q

how does insulin keep K+ levels in the cells

A

insulin gets glucose into the cells and K+ follows glucose

132
Q

T/F

Osmotic diuresis also leads to enhanced urinary phosphate loss

A

TRUE

133
Q

layer of the adrenal gland that is Mesodermal in origin

A

Cortex

134
Q

outermost layer of the adrenal gland

A

cortex

135
Q

layer of the adrenal gland that is Ectodermal in origin

A

adrenal medulla

136
Q

what are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex

A
  1. granulosa
  2. fasiculata
  3. reticularis
137
Q

Adrenal cortex produces _____ hormones

A

steroid

138
Q

zone of the cortex that produces glucocorticoids

A

fasiculata

139
Q

zone of the cortex that produces sex steroids

A

reticularis

140
Q

layer of the adrenal gland that produces CATECHOLAMINES

A

medulla

141
Q

zone of the cortex that produces mineralocorticoids

A

glomerulosa

142
Q

all steroid hormones are derived from

A

cholesterol

143
Q

first step for all steroid biosynthesis classic pathways

A

cholesterol is turned into PREGNENOLONE in the mitochondria

144
Q

pregnenolone formation is regulated by what hormone from the adeno hypophysis

A

ACTH

145
Q

T/F

ACTH regulates the rate of synthesis of all adrenocortical hormones

A

TRUE

146
Q

adrenal cortex hormones are hydro____ and lipo____

A

Hydrophobic

lipophilic

147
Q

where are steroid hormone receptors located

A

intracellularly

  • cytosol
  • cytoplasm
  • nucleus
148
Q

T/F

the activity of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids do not overlap

A

FALSE

149
Q

T/F

steroid/adrenal cortex hormones can freely cross cell membranes

A

TRUE

150
Q

T/F

steroid hormones need a protein to carry them in the plasma

A

TRUE – specific binding globulins

151
Q

what do the adrenal cortex hormones bind to to be carried in the plasma

A

corticosteroid binding globulin – Transcortin

75% bind to this

152
Q

half life of cortisol

A

60 min

153
Q

half life of aldosterone

A

20 min

154
Q

adrenocortical hormones are metabolized in the

A

liver

155
Q

most important mineralocorticoid

A

aldosterone

156
Q

most important glucocorticoid

A

cortisol

157
Q

T/F

the zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the cortex

A

true

158
Q

hormone that acts in the distal tubules of the kidneys ro regulate electrolyte balance and blood pressure by absorbing more water and sodium and excreting K+

A

aldosterone

159
Q

nonspecific competitive antagonist drug for aldosterone

A

spironolactone

160
Q

what stimulates the RAAS

A

low ECF

low plasma Na concentration

161
Q

aldosterone is linked with what other hormone

A

ADH

162
Q

what zone will produce the aldosterone and what is the trigger

A

fasiculata – angiotensin II

163
Q

an increase in potassium will directly stimulate what zone

A

zona glomerulosa – for regulation and secretion of mineralocorticoids

**independent of the RAAS

164
Q

disease in cats with excessive aldosterone production

A

hyperaldosteroneism

**also causes weakness, hypokalemia, retinal lesions

165
Q

hyperaldosteroneism is caused by what occurring in the zona glomerulosa

A

hyperplasia / neoplasia

166
Q

Which glucose transporter is important for

the glucose entrance in the beta cell?

A

GLUT 2

167
Q

T/F
The acute phase of insulin secretion involves
the synthesis of new insulin by beta cells

A

FALSE

168
Q

hormone

released immediately after hypoglycemia

A

catecholamine

169
Q

Under insulin action, the liver will

A

decrease gluconeogenesis

170
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the release of

FFAs and glycerol in the blood during diabetes?

A

hormone sensitive lipase

171
Q

T/F

ketone bodies are a source of energy for the brain

A

true

172
Q

Why do we see hyperventilation in a DKA patient

A

they are trying to decrease pCO2

173
Q

most ketogenic hormone

A

glucagon

174
Q

The increase in ketone bodies without

interference in the blood pH is called

A

ketosis

175
Q

T/F
For the synthesis of ketone bodies to be enhanced,
there must be an increased mobilization of FFAs

A

TRUE

176
Q

major hormone from zona fasiculata

A

cortisol

177
Q

T/F

ACTH is also called a corticotrophin

A

TRUE

178
Q

what regulates ACTH

A

corticotrophin releasing factor from the hypothalamus

179
Q

what receptor does ACTH bind to

A

G-coupling receptor on the adrenal cortex

**this stimulates the intracellular pathway of cortisol production and secretion

180
Q

what does cortisol do to carbohydrate metabolism

A

stimulates the synthesis of enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis – the main substrate is the amino acids from muscles

181
Q

how does cortisol decrease the utilization of glucose by cells

A

decreases the GLUT4 transporters in skeletal muscle – can lead to insulin resistance

182
Q

How does cortisol cause diabetes mellitus

A

increases gluconeogenesis

lowers glucose utilization

183
Q

what does cortisol do to protein metabolism

A

lowers protein synthesis

increased protein catabolism of already present proteins

184
Q

what does cortisol do to fat metabolism

A

increases mobilization of fatty acids from adipose tissue
**shifts metabolism from glucose to fat utilization

**can cause obesity

185
Q

what are some of the immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory effects of cortisol

A

stabilizes lysosomal membranes and lowers proteolytic enzymes

lowers prostaglandins and leukotriene production

lowers histamine from mast cells

lowers phagocytosis and suppresses Ab formation

186
Q

what clinical signs would you see with hyperadrenocorticism

A
high glucocorticoids 
polyphagia
alopecia 
hepatomegaly 
glycogen deposition
panting -- heat produced bc ADH is blocked telling it to drink/urinate
187
Q

primary catecholamine produced by the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine

188
Q

what cells produce the epinephrine in the medulla

A

chromaffin cells from the amino acid Tyrosine

189
Q

How does the adrenal medulla secrete its hormones

A

like a postsynaptic ganglia of the SNS – secretes neurotransmitters into the blood

190
Q

action of catecholamines

A

fight or flight response

191
Q

the thyroid gland is composed of follicle cells filled with

A

colloid – a viscous protein rich fluid

192
Q

T/F

colloid stores the thyroid hormones

A

TRUE

193
Q

what are the cells located outside of the thyroid follicular cells

A

parafollicular or C cells

194
Q

what do the parafollicular cells secrete

A

calcitonin – regulates Calcium metabolism

195
Q

what are the 2 molecules involved in thyroid hormone synthesis

A

tyrosine

iodine

196
Q

where does iodine come from

A

diet

197
Q

T/F

extracellular iodine > intracellular iodine

A

FALSE

198
Q

drug that inhibits TPO

A

Methimazole

199
Q

first step of thyroid hormone synthesis

A

oxidation of iodide to iodine done by Thyroid Peroxidase (TPO) in the apical membrane

200
Q

what is the major hormone made by the follicular cells

A

THYROXINE (T4)

201
Q

what is the TPO coupling equation to form T4

A

DIT + DIT = T4

202
Q

what is the TPO coupling equation to form T3

A

MIT + DIT = T3 (Thiiodothyronine)

203
Q

what is the inactive form of T3

A

the reversed form

204
Q

where does the majority of T3 come from

A

the deiodination of the free T4 in the cell

205
Q

How do T3 and T4 get into the membrane

A

they pass freely because they are lipophilic

206
Q

how are thyroid hormones transported in the plasma

A

attached to liver proteins

  • albumin
  • thyroxine binding globulin
207
Q

list some actions of the thyroid hormones

A
  1. bind to nucleus receptors to initiate transcription of mRNA
  2. increased mitochondria and ATP
  3. increased basal metabolic rate
  4. stimulate carbohydrate metabolism
  5. fat metabolism – plasma and liver fat decreased
  6. high heart rate/blood flow/vasodilation at tissues/cardiac output
208
Q

main organ involved in the Calcium and Phosphate metabolism

A

parathyroid hormone

209
Q

% phosphate in bone

% calcium in bone

A

85 Phosphate

99 Ca

210
Q

% phosphate in ICF

% calcium in ICF

A

14% Phosphate

<1% calcium

211
Q

% phosphate ECF

% calcium ECF

A

1% phosphate

0.1% calcium

212
Q

percent of blood calcium that is ionized

A

50%

213
Q

biologically active form of calcium

A

ionized

214
Q

percent of calcium bound to albumin in the blood

A

40%

215
Q

important ion molecule for muscle contraction

A

calcium

216
Q

The regulation of calcium levels involves control of the

movement of calcium between the ECF and 3 organs

A

Bone
GIT
Kidney

217
Q

3 hormones involved in calcium / phosphate metabolism

A
  1. PTH
  2. vitamin D
  3. calcitonin
218
Q

2 types of parathyroid in the glandular tissue

A
  1. active = chief cells

2. inactive = oxyphil cells

219
Q

cells that produce PTH

A

chief cells

220
Q

Parathyroid cells are very sensitive to a ______ in iCa

A

decline

  • *a drop in iCa activates the membrane receptors to start producing PTH
  • *normal Ca levels = inactive receptors
221
Q

where is PTH metabolized

A

liver

kidney

222
Q

half life of PTH

A

5-10 minutes

223
Q

PTH has a direct effect on what?

indirect effect on?

A
direct = bone and kidney metabolism 
indirect = GIT metabolism
224
Q

PTH action on ca/phosphate levels

A

inceases Ca and lowers phosphate in the ECF

225
Q

PTH directly effects bone how

A

• Binds to its receptors on osteocytes and stimulates osteocytic-osteolysis
- Binds to receptors on bone osteoblast cells and stimulates the
production of osteoclast-activating factor

226
Q

PTH direct effect on kidney–

A

acts on the distal convoluted tubules to increase Ca reabsorption and also lower Proximal tubule phosphate absorption

227
Q

T/F

PTH can activate vitamin D in the kidney

A

TRUE

**only way vitamin D becomes active

228
Q

stimulates the active transport of dietary calcium across the intestinal epithelium

A

calcitriol
**Without calcitriol most animals are unable to aquire enough calcium from the
diet to support normal bone structure

229
Q

T/F

hindgut fermenters need calcitriol

A

false – rabbits and horses dont need because always can reabsorb calcium – urinary loss regulation

230
Q

_________ in iCa stimulates PTH secretion

A

decrease

231
Q

PTH is mainly regulated by

A

free ionized calcium concentration in the blood

232
Q

produced by parafolicullar cell or C cell in the thyroid gland

A

calcitonin – counterbalance of PTH

233
Q

an increase in calcium will stimulate calcitonin to do what in the bone, kidney, GIT

A

bone – increase Ca storage
kidney – increase Ca excretion
GIT – increase Ca excretion

234
Q

T/F

GI hormones also stimulates the secretion of calcitonin

A

TRUE

235
Q

T/F
Steroid hormones are made from cholesterol, transported by proteins in the blood and bind to nuclear receptors in the target tissues.

A

TRUE

236
Q

effects of aldosterone

A

Na reabsorbed
Cl reabsorbed
Water reabsorbed
**increases blood vol

237
Q

Which of the following is a direct regulator of

aldosterone release?

A

potassium

238
Q

what hormones stimulates

zona fasiculata and glomerulosa respectively

A

ACTH and Angiotensin II

239
Q

T/F
epinephrine causes Vasodilation of visceral
organs

A

FALSE