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GI Infections Flashcards

1
Q

what is the main manifestation of gastroenteritis?

A

diarrhea

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2
Q

how is gastroenteritis transmitted?

A

fecal-oral

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3
Q

what virus is the leading cause of hospitalization and mortality of gastroenteritis in US children?

A

norovirus

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4
Q

what medication increases gastroenteritis risk?

A

PPIs

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5
Q

a patient presents with V/D, abdominal pain, mucus/blood in stool, fever of 102, dehydration, malnutrition, borborygmi, and perianal erythema. Dx?

A

gastroenteritis

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6
Q

how to make a definitive diagnosis of gastroenteritis? when should we get it?

A

stool culture
if patient comes back and has not improved

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7
Q

what is the treatment for gastroenteritis?

A

rehydration

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8
Q

what is the 3rd leading cause of acute diarrhea worldwide? what is it also known as?

A

campylobacter jejuni

Traveler’s diarrhea

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9
Q

what is the most common mode of transmission of campylobacter jejuni?

A

chicken consumption

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10
Q

a patient presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, periumbilical cramping, fever, and nausea. Dx?

A

campylobacter jejuni

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11
Q

what are 2 late onset complications of campylobacter jejuni?

A

reactive arthritis
Guillain-Barre syndrome

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12
Q

what is the gold standard to diagnose campylobacter jejuni in a patient that returns with symptoms that do no go away?

A

stool culture

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13
Q

what is the treatment for mild campylobacter jejuni?

A

rehydrate

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14
Q

what antibiotic can be used for campylobacter jejuni in patients who have severe disease, elderly, pregnant, or immunocompromised?

A

azithromycin

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15
Q

how is salmonellosis transmitted?

A

orally

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16
Q

what are the 2 patterns of infection of salmonellosis?

A

typhoid fever
salmonella gastroenteritis

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17
Q

a patient presents with increasing malaise, headache, cough, sore throat, abdominal pain, constipation, ascending fever that is sustained. On day 7, patient has pea soup diarrhea and doesn’t want to move. Dx?

A

typhoid fever

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18
Q

what are 2 physical findings of typhoid fever?

A

bradycardia
rose spot rash on trunk that fades with pressure

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19
Q

what is an important stage of typhoid fever to remember?

A

can carry it without symptoms for over 12 months

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20
Q

which patients can become chronic carriers of typhoid fever?

A

cholelithiasis (gallbladder issues)

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21
Q

what are 2 complications of typhoid fever and what 2 symptoms signal them?

A

intestinal hemorrhage
intestinal perforation

leukocytosis
tachycardia

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22
Q

what are 2 diagnostics for typhoid fever?

A

blood cultures
stool/urine cultures

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23
Q

what diagnostic can be considered for typhoid that is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy?

A

bone marrow culture

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24
Q

what is the first line treatment for typhoid fever?

A

fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin/cipro)

azithromycin if above doesn’t work

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25
how to diagnose salmonella gastroenteritis?
stool culture
26
what is the treatment for salmonella gastroenteritis? (2)
rehydration (self-limiting) fluoroquinolones for immunocompromised patients
27
what is the 3rd most common cause of diarrhea in the US?
shigella
28
how is shigellosis transmitted?
fecal-oral
29
a patient presents with fever, abdominal pain, mucoid, bloody, watery diarrhea, and vomiting. patient also has tenesmus. Dx?
shigellosis
30
what is the definitive diagnosis for shigellosis?
stool culture
31
what is the treatment for shigellosis? (2)
rehydration fluoroquinolone or azithromycin
32
what is cholera known as?
acute secretory diarrheal illness
33
a patient presents with normal diarrhea that progresses to rice water stools with a fishy odor, has watery emesis, abdominal cramping, sunken eyes, dry mouth, cold clammy skin and decreased skin turgor indicating hypovolemia. Dx?
cholera
34
what is the treatment for cholera? (3)
oral/IV fluids zinc/vit A in children antibiotics
35
what 3 antibiotics can be used to treat cholera in adults?
doxycycline tetracycline azithromycin
36
what antibiotic can be used to treat cholera in children?
azithromycin
37
what 2 antibiotics can be used to treat cholera in pregnant women?
azithromycin erythromycin
38
what is the most common form of botulism?
infant botulism
39
the most powerful neurotoxin known that blocks acetylcholine-mediated neurotransmission
clostridium botulinum
40
how is infant botulism contracted?
honey spores are ingested
41
when ingested, C. botulinum colonizes in the large intestine and produces botulinum toxin which blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to what? (3)
symmetrical, descending generalized weakness bulbar palsy constipation
42
a patient presents with fixed dilated pupils, ptosis, cranial nerve palsies with impairment of EOM, diplopia, loss of accommodation, and blurred vision. Dx?
botulism
43
what makes the definitive diagnosis of botulism?
isolating the C. botulinum toxin
44
what is the treatment for botulism in non-infants?
equine heptavalent botulinum antitoxin (HBAT)
45
what is the treatment for botulism in infants?
babyBIG (human serum)
46
what is the treatment for wound botulism?
3 million units of IV penicillin
47
how is enterobiasis pinworms transmitted and who are the only natural hosts?
fecal-oral humans
48
where in the GI tract do adult pinworms establish themselves? (2)
cecum appendix
49
a patient presents with nocturnal perianal pruritis, insomnia, restlessness, bed-wetting, anorexia, and irritability. Dx?
pinworms
50
what test can be done to definitively diagnose pinworms?
tape test first thing in the morning
51
what are 2 treatment options for pinworms? (2)
single dose mebendazole OR single dose albendazole
52
a parasitic blood fluke that lives in freshwater snails
schistosomiasis
53
how is schistosomiasis transmitted?
swimming in contaminated water; penetrates the skin
54
a patient presents with swimmers itch and katayama fever. Dx?
acute schistosomiasis (S. japonicum)
55
which 2 species causing schistosomiasis causes issues in the intestinal tract?
S. mansoni S. japonicum
56
which species causing schistosomiasis causes issues in the genitourinary tract?
S. haematobium
57
what will labs show to diagnose schistosomiasis? (3)
eosinophilia anemia hematuria
58
what is the gold standard to diagnose schistosomiasis?
microscopy shows eggs in stool/urine
59
what is the treatment for acute schistosomiasis? (2)
prednisolone + praziquantel
60
what is the treatment for chronic schistosomiasis?
praziquantel
61
the sheep liver fluke that is caused by ingestion of metacercariae on watercress/aquatic vegetables
fascioliasis
62
where does fascioliasis migrate? (3)
intestines liver bile ducts
63
what gives a diagnosis of fascioliasis?
microscopy shows eggs in stool
64
what is the treatment for fascioliasis?
triclabendazole
65
a fluke caused by consumption of raw, undercooked, or pickled freshwater shellfish
paragonimiasis
66
a patient presents with fever, malaise, diarrhea, pneumothorax/pleural effusions, chest pain, dyspnea, cough, brown sputum, and hemoptysis. Dx?
paragonimiasis
67
how to diagnose paragonimiasis?
eggs in sputum
68
what is the treatment for paragonimiasis?
praziquantel
69
the beef tapeworm
taenia saginata
70
the pork tapeworm
taenia solium
71
the fish tapeworm
diphyllobothrium latum
72
a patient presents with nausea, anorexia, epigastric pain, with segments of worm in the stool or regurgitated. 2 potential dx?
T. saginata (beef) T solium (pork)
73
a patient presents with fatigue, diarrhea, numbness, dizziness, and megaloblastic anemia. Dx?
diphyllobothrium latum (fish)
74
what is the treatment for cestodes (beef, pork, and fish tapeworms)?
praziquantel
75
what causes cysticercosis (invasive cestode infection) that invades the lining of the intestine, and migrates to striated muscles, brain, liver, and other tissues; can cause neurocysticercosis?
T. solium (pork tapeworm)
76
what is the treatment for cysticercosis? (2)
symptomatic based on location of worm praziquantel
77
what are the 3 soil transmitted helminths?
ascariasis trichuriasis hookworms
78
the most common helminthic human infection that is transmitted fecal/oral; it inhabits the lumen of the small intestine and matures in the lungs.
ascariasis
79
what is the treatment for ascariasis?
albendazole
80
how to diagnose ascariasis?
stool microscopy
81
a patient presents with loose, mucus stools, nocturnal stooling, dysentery, anemia, and rectal prolapse. Dx?
trichuriasis (whipworm)
82
how to diagnose trichuriasis (whipworm)?
stool exam for eggs
83
what are 2 treatment options for trichuriasis (whipworm)?
mebendazole albendazole
84
transmitted by larval penetration into human skin through the feet, carried into the lungs, coughed up, and swallowed to go into the GI tract.
hookworm disease
85
a patient presents with pruritis, cough, pharyngitis, N/V/D, nutritional impairment, and blood loss/anemia. Dx?
hookworm disease
86
what is the treatment for hookworm?
albendazole
87
human infection with dog/cat hookworm larvae that penetrates feet, migrates inside the human host for a while but cannot mature, and causes an erythematous migrating line or serpiginous cutaneous track.
cutaneous larva migrans
88
what are 2 treatment options for cutaneous larva migrans?
ivermectin albendazole
89
how is lymphatic filariasis transmitted? and who are the definitive hosts?
mosquito vectors humans
90
a patient presents with sudden onset of fever, painful lymphadenopathy, edematous inflammatory plaques, fever, chills, myalgias, and headache. Dx?
lymphatic filariasis
91
what are 2 diagnostics used for lymphatic filariasis?
circulating filarial antigen (CFA) blood smears
92
what is the treatment for lymphatic filariasis?
diethylcarbamazine (DEC) + doxycycline

Infectious Disease (4 decks)

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