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Infectious Disease > Bacteria and Viruses > Flashcards

Bacteria and Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

toxin produced by an organism that usually attacks the respiratory tract and enters the body via skin by respiratory secretions

A

diphtheria

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2
Q

what should we suspect in a patient who has a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, low-grade fever, and a grayish adherent membrane on the nasopharynx?

A

diphtheria

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3
Q

what does diphtheria progress from?

A

pharyngitis

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4
Q

what 2 systemic manifestations are associated with diphtheria?

A

myocarditis
neurotoxicity

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5
Q

what is the vaccine for prevention of diphtheria?

A

DTaP

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6
Q

what is the treatment for diphtheria? (2)

A

diphtheria antitoxin
erythromycin / penicillin G

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7
Q

a member of the herpesvirus family, the most common congenital infection, and has 3 clinical syndromes

A

cytomegalovirus

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8
Q

what are 2 manifestations of CMV that can occur in immunocompromised patients?

A

CMV retinitis
neurological CMV

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9
Q

a patient presents with fever, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, exudative pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. The patient tests negative on the monospot. Dx?

A

cytomegalovirus

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10
Q

when lab findings diagnoses a patient with cytomegalovirus?

A

negative monospot
negative strep test

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11
Q

what is the treatment for cytomegalovirus in immunocompetent patients? in severe cases?

A

symptomatic

IV ganiciclovir/foscarnet

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12
Q

the primary agent of infectious mononucleosis that is associated with malignancies and transmitted by saliva

A

epstein-barr virus

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13
Q

what is the most common cause of epstein-barr virus?

A

Human herpes virus 4

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14
Q

a patient presents with malaise, headache, fever, tonsilitis/pharyngitis, extremely enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Followed by severe fatigue, mild hepatitis, and splenomegaly. Dx?

A

mononucleosis

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15
Q

what are 4 complications of mononucleosis?

A

splenic rupture
morbilliform rash d/t ampicillin use
oral hairy leukoplakia
malignancy

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16
Q

what is the treatment for mononucleosis?

A

symptomatic

NSAIDs
throat lozenges
gargle lidocaine
warm saline gurgles

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17
Q

systemic immune response that usually occurs 2-4 weeks after group A strep pharyngitis

A

acute rheumatic fever

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18
Q

what are the 5 major manifestations of acute rheumatic fever?

A

pancarditis

“migratory” arthritis

sydenham chorea

erythema marginatum (enlarged, pink/red macules with clear centers)

firm, painless subcutaneous nodules on extensor surfaces

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19
Q

what are the 4 minor manifestations that increase the probability of acute rheumatic fever?

A

arthralgia
fever
elevated ESR/CRP
prolonged PR interval

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20
Q

the probability of acute rheumatic fever is high in the setting of group A strep infection followed by ____ major manifestations or ____ major and ____ minor manifestations

A

2

1
2

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21
Q

what are 3 ways to establish a group A strep infection?

A

+ throat culture for GAS
+ rapid strep antigen test
elevated ASO titer

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22
Q

what are the 3 circumstances of Jones Criteria in which an acute rheumatic fever diagnosis can be made?

A

only chorea
only carditis after GAS
recurrent rheumatic fever

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23
Q

what is the most severe complication of acute rheumatic fever?

A

rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis)

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24
Q

what is the treatment for acute rheumatic fever? (3)

A

penicillin +
salicylates +
bed rest

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25
what can be used for rapid improvement of joint symptoms in acute rheumatic fever?
corticosteroids
26
how to prevent acute rheumatic fever?
treatment of GAS pharyngitis with antibiotics
27
highly contagious virus transmitted by respiratory droplets
influenza
28
which influenza is the most severe?
A
29
which influenza has major antigenic variations (shifts)?
influenza A
30
a patient presents with an abrupt onset of fever, chills, malaise, myalgias, substernal soreness, headache, nasal stuffiness, coryza, sore throat and nonproductive cough. Dx?
influenza
31
what are 4 complications of influenza?
pneumonia Reye syndrome (aspirin use) hepatic failure encephalopathy
32
how to diagnose influenza?
rapid test
33
what is the treatment for influenza? (3)
oseltamivir supportive tx bed rest
34
in which condition is influenza vaccine CI in?
guillain-barre syndrome
35
patient presents with cough, myalgias, headache, sore throat, smell/taste changes, dyspnea, and fatigue. Dx?
COVID
36
what are 2 complications of COVID?
respiratory failure heart failure
37
how to diagnose COVID?
NAAT
38
what is the treatment for COVID? (2)
paxlovid supportive tx
39
when should supportive tx only be given to patients with COVID?
symptoms for 9 or more days
40
a patient presents with a skin infection, red bump/pustule/boil, with erythema, swelling and is fluctuant and very painful. Dx?
CA-MRSA
41
a patient presents with bacteremia. Dx?
HA-MRSA
42
how to diagnose MRSA?
chromogenic agar culture
43
what is the acute treatment for CA-MRSA?
trime-sulfa
44
what is the acute treatment for HA-MRSA?
IV vancomycin
45
what is the chronic treatment for MRSA?
rifampin OR mupirocin
46
where is colonization of MRSA common?
nares
47
a rapidly progressive spectrum of host response to infection that causes damage to multiple organ systems and is fatal
sepsis
48
a patient presents with fever, hypotension, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Dx?
sepsis
49
what is a bedside measure used to prompt further investigation of suspected infection or cause of organ dysfunction in sepsis?
qSOFA
50
what are the 3 variables of qSOFA; and if 2/3 are met, indicates patient is at a high risk of poor outcomes
resp rate 22 or more AMS SBP less than 100
51
what is the treatment for sepsis?
treat complications aggressive antibiotics
52
widespread hematogenous dissemination of tuberculosis, originally looked like millet seed in radiograph of lungs
miliary tuberculosis
53
what is the treatment for miliary TB? (4)
isoniazid rifampin pyrazinamide ethambutol
54
what's important to remember about miliary TB?
it affects multiple systems (can go anywhere)
55
very common opportunistic infection in advanced HIV and does occur via person-person spread; occurs in the environment
non-tuberculosis mycobacterial disease
56
occurs in immunocompromised patients in late stages of HIV when CD4 is less than 50; presents with persistent fever and weight loss
disseminated M. avium infection
57
how to diagnose disseminated M, avium?
blood culture
58
what is the treatment for disseminated M. avium? (3)
clarithromycin + ethambutol +/- rifabutin
59
what is the prophylaxis for disseminated M. avium in patients with HIV?
clarithromycin
60
leading cause of permanent physical disabilities
hansen's disease (leprosy)
61
what is the pathophys of leprosy? (3)
bacilli infiltrate skin and enter nerves multiplies in schwann cells and histiocytes loss of sensory + motor function
62
what animal is leprosy associated with?
armadillos
63
group of leprosy with one or a few hypopigmented or hyperpigmented skin macules that exhibit loss of sensation
paucibacillary
64
group of leprosy with generalized or diffuse involvement of the skin, a thickening of the peripheral nerves under microscopic examination, and has potential to involve the eyes, other organs, nose, testes, and bone
multibacillary
65
group of leprosy that is the most common form; skin lesions are like paucibacillary but are more numerous and may be found anywhere on the body, including weakness and anesthesia
borderline
66
what diagnostic can be used for leprosy?
skin smear for acid fast bacilli

Infectious Disease (4 decks)

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