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Infectious Disease > Bacteria and Viruses > Flashcards

Bacteria and Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

toxin produced by an organism that usually attacks the respiratory tract and enters the body via skin by respiratory secretions

A

diphtheria

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2
Q

what should we suspect in a patient who has a severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, low-grade fever, and a grayish adherent membrane on the nasopharynx?

A

diphtheria

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3
Q

what does diphtheria progress from?

A

pharyngitis

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4
Q

what 2 systemic manifestations are associated with diphtheria?

A

myocarditis
neurotoxicity

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5
Q

what is the vaccine for prevention of diphtheria?

A

DTaP

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6
Q

what is the treatment for diphtheria? (2)

A

diphtheria antitoxin
erythromycin / penicillin G

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7
Q

a member of the herpesvirus family, the most common congenital infection, and has 3 clinical syndromes

A

cytomegalovirus

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8
Q

what are 2 manifestations of CMV that can occur in immunocompromised patients?

A

CMV retinitis
neurological CMV

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9
Q

a patient presents with fever, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, exudative pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. The patient tests negative on the monospot. Dx?

A

cytomegalovirus

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10
Q

when lab findings diagnoses a patient with cytomegalovirus?

A

negative monospot
negative strep test

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11
Q

what is the treatment for cytomegalovirus in immunocompetent patients? in severe cases?

A

symptomatic

IV ganiciclovir/foscarnet

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12
Q

the primary agent of infectious mononucleosis that is associated with malignancies and transmitted by saliva

A

epstein-barr virus

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13
Q

what is the most common cause of epstein-barr virus?

A

Human herpes virus 4

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14
Q

a patient presents with malaise, headache, fever, tonsilitis/pharyngitis, extremely enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Followed by severe fatigue, mild hepatitis, and splenomegaly. Dx?

A

mononucleosis

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15
Q

what are 4 complications of mononucleosis?

A

splenic rupture
morbilliform rash d/t ampicillin use
oral hairy leukoplakia
malignancy

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16
Q

what is the treatment for mononucleosis?

A

symptomatic

NSAIDs
throat lozenges
gargle lidocaine
warm saline gurgles

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17
Q

systemic immune response that usually occurs 2-4 weeks after group A strep pharyngitis

A

acute rheumatic fever

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18
Q

what are the 5 major manifestations of acute rheumatic fever?

A

pancarditis

“migratory” arthritis

sydenham chorea

erythema marginatum (enlarged, pink/red macules with clear centers)

firm, painless subcutaneous nodules on extensor surfaces

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19
Q

what are the 4 minor manifestations that increase the probability of acute rheumatic fever?

A

arthralgia
fever
elevated ESR/CRP
prolonged PR interval

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20
Q

the probability of acute rheumatic fever is high in the setting of group A strep infection followed by ____ major manifestations or ____ major and ____ minor manifestations

A

2

1
2

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21
Q

what are 3 ways to establish a group A strep infection?

A

+ throat culture for GAS
+ rapid strep antigen test
elevated ASO titer

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22
Q

what are the 3 circumstances of Jones Criteria in which an acute rheumatic fever diagnosis can be made?

A

only chorea
only carditis after GAS
recurrent rheumatic fever

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23
Q

what is the most severe complication of acute rheumatic fever?

A

rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis)

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24
Q

what is the treatment for acute rheumatic fever? (3)

A

penicillin +
salicylates +
bed rest

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25
Q

what can be used for rapid improvement of joint symptoms in acute rheumatic fever?

A

corticosteroids

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26
Q

how to prevent acute rheumatic fever?

A

treatment of GAS pharyngitis with antibiotics

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27
Q

highly contagious virus transmitted by respiratory droplets

A

influenza

28
Q

which influenza is the most severe?

A

A

29
Q

which influenza has major antigenic variations (shifts)?

A

influenza A

30
Q

a patient presents with an abrupt onset of fever, chills, malaise, myalgias, substernal soreness, headache, nasal stuffiness, coryza, sore throat and nonproductive cough. Dx?

A

influenza

31
Q

what are 4 complications of influenza?

A

pneumonia
Reye syndrome (aspirin use)
hepatic failure
encephalopathy

32
Q

how to diagnose influenza?

A

rapid test

33
Q

what is the treatment for influenza? (3)

A

oseltamivir
supportive tx
bed rest

34
Q

in which condition is influenza vaccine CI in?

A

guillain-barre syndrome

35
Q

patient presents with cough, myalgias, headache, sore throat, smell/taste changes, dyspnea, and fatigue. Dx?

A

COVID

36
Q

what are 2 complications of COVID?

A

respiratory failure
heart failure

37
Q

how to diagnose COVID?

A

NAAT

38
Q

what is the treatment for COVID? (2)

A

paxlovid
supportive tx

39
Q

when should supportive tx only be given to patients with COVID?

A

symptoms for 9 or more days

40
Q

a patient presents with a skin infection, red bump/pustule/boil, with erythema, swelling and is fluctuant and very painful. Dx?

A

CA-MRSA

41
Q

a patient presents with bacteremia. Dx?

A

HA-MRSA

42
Q

how to diagnose MRSA?

A

chromogenic agar culture

43
Q

what is the acute treatment for CA-MRSA?

A

trime-sulfa

44
Q

what is the acute treatment for HA-MRSA?

A

IV vancomycin

45
Q

what is the chronic treatment for MRSA?

A

rifampin OR mupirocin

46
Q

where is colonization of MRSA common?

A

nares

47
Q

a rapidly progressive spectrum of host response to infection that causes damage to multiple organ systems and is fatal

A

sepsis

48
Q

a patient presents with fever, hypotension, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Dx?

A

sepsis

49
Q

what is a bedside measure used to prompt further investigation of suspected infection or cause of organ dysfunction in sepsis?

A

qSOFA

50
Q

what are the 3 variables of qSOFA; and if 2/3 are met, indicates patient is at a high risk of poor outcomes

A

resp rate 22 or more
AMS
SBP less than 100

51
Q

what is the treatment for sepsis?

A

treat complications
aggressive antibiotics

52
Q

widespread hematogenous dissemination of tuberculosis, originally looked like millet seed in radiograph of lungs

A

miliary tuberculosis

53
Q

what is the treatment for miliary TB? (4)

A

isoniazid
rifampin
pyrazinamide
ethambutol

54
Q

what’s important to remember about miliary TB?

A

it affects multiple systems (can go anywhere)

55
Q

very common opportunistic infection in advanced HIV and does occur via person-person spread; occurs in the environment

A

non-tuberculosis mycobacterial disease

56
Q

occurs in immunocompromised patients in late stages of HIV when CD4 is less than 50; presents with persistent fever and weight loss

A

disseminated M. avium infection

57
Q

how to diagnose disseminated M, avium?

A

blood culture

58
Q

what is the treatment for disseminated M. avium? (3)

A

clarithromycin + ethambutol
+/- rifabutin

59
Q

what is the prophylaxis for disseminated M. avium in patients with HIV?

A

clarithromycin

60
Q

leading cause of permanent physical disabilities

A

hansen’s disease (leprosy)

61
Q

what is the pathophys of leprosy? (3)

A

bacilli infiltrate skin and enter nerves
multiplies in schwann cells and histiocytes
loss of sensory + motor function

62
Q

what animal is leprosy associated with?

A

armadillos

63
Q

group of leprosy with one or a few hypopigmented or hyperpigmented skin macules that exhibit loss of sensation

A

paucibacillary

64
Q

group of leprosy with generalized or diffuse involvement of the skin, a thickening of the peripheral nerves under microscopic examination, and has potential to involve the eyes, other organs, nose, testes, and bone

A

multibacillary

65
Q

group of leprosy that is the most common form; skin lesions are like paucibacillary but are more numerous and may be found anywhere on the body, including weakness and anesthesia

A

borderline

66
Q

what diagnostic can be used for leprosy?

A

skin smear for acid fast bacilli

Infectious Disease (4 decks)

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