Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Infectious Disease > Fungus, Animals, Outdoors > Flashcards

Fungus, Animals, Outdoors Flashcards

1
Q

the most common fungal infection in immunocompromised patients that is a common normal flora that takes advantage of a change in normal flora

A

candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a patient presents with cottony feeling in mouth, loss of taste, pain with eating/swallowing, and has white plaques. Dx?

A

oropharyngeal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how to diagnose candidiasis?

A

KOH prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the presence of candidiasis where, is an AIDS defining illness?

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are 2 treatment options for mucosal candidiasis?

A

fluconazole
itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

primarily an opportunistic infection in immunocompromised hosts; the most common cause of fungal meningitis, causes pulmonary disease, is found in dried pigeon dung, and is acquired via inhalation.

A

cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

an immunocompromised patient presents with fever, chest pain, dyspnea, cough, hemoptysis. Dx?

A

cryptococcal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

an immunocompetent patient presents with headache, fever, lethargy, personality changes, memory loss, nuchal rigidity/meningeal signs, and N/V. Dx?

A

cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does an immunocompromised patient with cryptococcal meningoencephalitis present differently from a immunocompetent patient?

A

immunocompromised pt may not have meningeal signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are 2 diagnostics for cryptococcosis?

A

CT lungs
lumbar puncture - encapsulated yeast in CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the treatment for cryptococcosis? (3)

A

amphotericin B + flucytosine
then fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

linked to bird droppings and bat exposure; causing respiratory illness

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a patient presents with chills, headache, myalgia, anorexia, cough, and chest pain; after being around birds. Dx?

A

acute pulmonary histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a patient presents with fever, enlarged liver and spleen, adrenal insufficiency, oropharynx ulcers, fever, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and chest radiograph shows miliary pattern. Dx?

A

progressive disseminated histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a patient presents with productive cough, dyspnea, chest pain, fatigue, fever, sweats, and fibrotic apical infiltrates with cavitation on chest radiographs. Dx?

A

chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what diagnostics can be used for histoplasmosis? (4)

A

CT/Chest xray
biopsy
fungal cultures
urinary antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the treatment for stable histoplasmosis for under 4 weeks?

A

no treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the treatment for mild-moderately severe disseminated histoplasmosis?

A

itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the treatment for severe histoplasmosis that is causing meningitis and ARDS?

A

IV amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the lifelong treatment for AIDS-related histoplasmosis?

A

Itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the deadliest parasitic disease in which transmission requires the female anopheles mosquito

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which 2 malaria-causing species have a liver phase?

A

P. vivax
P. ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which malaria-causing species is the worst/most dangerous?

A

P. falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is malaria contracted? (5)

A

bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito
sporozoites go to liver
hepatic schizont ruptures
goes to merozoites
infects RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a patient presents with cold sensation and shivering, then has fever, headaches, vomiting, and then has sweats and tiredness. On physical exam, they have elevated temp, diaphoresis, splenomegaly, mild jaundice, hepatomegaly, and tachypnea. Dx?

A

uncomplicated malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a patient presents with AMS, deep breathing/resp distress, metabolic acidosis, pulmonary edema/ARDs, severe anemia, hypoglycemia, clinical jaundice, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Dx?

A

severe malaria (P. falciparum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why is P. falciparum the most virulent?

A

targets ANY RBC and leads to end organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the gold standard to diagnose malaria?

A

giemsa-stained blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what other diagnostic can be done for malaria?

A

dipstick test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the treatment for malaria?

A

chloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what other medication can be used for malaria in chloroquine-resistant areas?

A

mefloquine

32
Q

which medication can treat malaria in the liver phase (p. vivax and p. ovale)?

A

primaquine

33
Q

what are 2 preventatives for malaria?

A

DEET-based mosquito repellant
prophylactic atovaquone-proguanil + doxycycline

34
Q

what is the most common tick-borne disease in the US and europe?

A

lyme disease

35
Q

what tick stage is the primary vector in lyme disease?

A

nymphal stage

36
Q

a patient presents with an erythema migrans rash that looks like a “bulls-eye” lesion, myalgias, arthralgias, headache, and fatigue. Dx?

A

early localized Lyme disease

37
Q

a patient presents with secondary skin lesions similar to erythema migrans, malaise, fever, fatigue, headache, neck pain, achiness, facial palsy. Dx?

A

early disseminated Lyme disease

38
Q

a patient presents with swollen joints on the knees, memory loss, mood change, and sleep disturbance. on physical exam, you notive acrodermatitis chronica atrophican (bluish-red discoloration of the skin with sclerotic plaques and atrophy). Dx?

A

late persistent Lyme disease

39
Q

what can be used to diagnose a patient with lyme disease if they are not an in endemic are or the diagnosis is unclear?

A

antibody testing with enzyme immunoassays

40
Q

what is the prophylactic treatment for lyme disease if the tick is ixodes species, the exposure took place in an area with endemic lyme, or if the tick was attached for 36 hours or more?

A

one dose doxycycline

41
Q

what antibiotics can be used to treat lyme disease in an adult/non pregnant patient? (1)
child/pregnant patient? (2)

A

doxycycline

amoxicillin OR cefuroxime

42
Q

illness in which the principle vector in the U.S is dermacentor viriabilis (the american dog tick)

A

rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF)

43
Q

a patient presents with faint macules that progress to maculopapules and then petechiae on the palms and soles, high fever, fatigue, myalgias, headaches, and GI symptoms. Dx?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

44
Q

what is the best diagnostic for RMSF?

A

indirect immunofluorescent antibody assay (IFA)

45
Q

what is the treatment for RMSF?

A

doxycycline

46
Q

how is toxoplasmosis contracted? (2)

A

oocyte ingestion by contamination of cats
transplacental transmission of trophozoites

47
Q

how does a primary infection of toxoplasmosis occur in immunocompetent patients?

A

travels through lymphatics

48
Q

a patient presents with nontender cervical or diffuse lymphadenopathy, fever, malaise, myalgias, headache, sore throat, and rash. Dx?

A

primary toxoplasmosis

49
Q

how does congental infection of toxoplasmosis occur?

A

pregnant woman exposes fetus

50
Q

what can occur d/t early fetal toxoplasmosis infections? (4)

A

spontaneous abortion
stillbirth
seizures
retardation

51
Q

what can occur d/t late fetal toxoplasmosis infections? (2)

A

appear normal at birth
present symptoms later in life

52
Q

a patient presents with pain, photophobia, visual changes associated with toxoplasmosis. what syndrome is this?

A

retinochoroiditis

53
Q

what is the most common late presentation of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

retinochoroiditis

54
Q

how does toxoplasmosis present in immunocompromised patients?

A

reactivated toxoplasmosis

55
Q

what is the most common manifestation of toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients?

A

advanced AIDS

56
Q

what are 2 diagnostics for toxoplasmosis?

A

serological test
PCR

57
Q

what lab finding indicates acute toxoplasmosis?

A

tachyzoites

58
Q

what lab finding indicates acute or chronic toxoplasmosis?

A

cysts

59
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis in an immunocompetent patient?

A

none

60
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis in a pregnant patient <18 week gestation?

A

spiramycin until delivery

61
Q

what is the treatment for toxoplasmosis in a pregnant patient >18 week gestation, if fetal infection is present by positive amniotic fluid PCR?

A

pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

62
Q

a viral encephalitis transmitted by infected saliva by an animal bite or an open wound

A

rabies

63
Q

a patient presents with an animal bite, fever, malaise, headache, N/V, and aerophobia. Dx?

A

rabies

64
Q

which form is considered the classic rabies in which delirium alternates with periods of calm, and includes hydrophobia and hypersalivation?

A

encephalitic form

65
Q

which form of rabies is characterized by acute ascending paralysis that resembles Guillain-Barre?

A

paralytic form

66
Q

what will be found in the skin of humans to diagnose Rabies?

A

negri bodies

67
Q

when does death from rabies occur after symptoms present?

A

after 7 days

68
Q

what is the prophylactic treatment for rabies that must be started before S&S develop? (2)

A

human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
+
human diploid cell vaccine OR purified chick embryo cell vaccine

69
Q

how is tetanus contracted? (3)

A

spores in soil introduced to wound
toxin binds to neurons
leads to uncontrolled spasms of muscle

70
Q

the most common and severe form of tetanus in which the patient has trismus (lockjaw), tonic contraction of their skeletal muscles, intense muscular spasms, stiff neck, opisthotonus (arching body), and risus sardonicus (sardonic smile).

A

generalized tetanus

71
Q

the form of tetanus that includes tonic and spastic muscle contractions in one extremity or body region

A

local tetanus

72
Q

the form of tetanus that is secondary to head/neck injuries, involves the cranial nerves (often fascial); causes dysphagia, trismus, and focal cranial neuropathies

A

cephalic tetanus

73
Q

the form of tetanus that causes a new born to refuse eating, difficulty opening mouth d/t trismus, clenched hands, dorsiflexed feet, and increased muscle tone

A

neonatal tetanus

74
Q

what is a differential diagnosis of tetanus?

A

strychnine poisoning (rat poisoning)

75
Q

what is the treatment for tetanus? (5)

A

debride wound
penicillin OR metronidazole
human tetanus immunoglobulin (HTIG)
Mg sulfate (for autonomic instability)
labetalol (hypertension/tachycardia)

Infectious Disease (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions