GI and Liver Flashcards

1
Q

what are some broad causes of IBD

A

environmental factors
genetic predisposition
gut microbiota
host immune response (innate/adaptive)

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2
Q

common presentation of infective colitis

A
  • short history of diarrhoea that can be accompanied by vomiting
  • abrupt onset
  • systemic upset and fevers
  • recent travel
  • unwell contacts
  • immunocompromised
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3
Q

what investigations would you perform if you suspected infective colitis

A

stool Cx/CDT
you require 4 for 90% sensitivity

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4
Q

what is the treatment for infective colitis

A

conservative treatment if patient is immunocompromised but symptoms should resolve on their own

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5
Q

What is the presentation of ischaemic colitis

A

indicated in patients that are elderly, with CV disease and heart failure
- abrupt onset with bloody diarrhoea with or without systemic inflammatory response syndrome (tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnoea, and occasionally raised temperature without an infective focus)

  • CT may show segmental colitis in watershed areas (SPLENIC FLEXURE)
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6
Q

treatment for ischaemic colitis

A

conservative (IV fluids with or without antibitocs

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7
Q

When would you admit a patient with diarrhoea

A

if they had stools more than 6 times a day combined with systemic upset

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8
Q

what initial investigations would you perform if a patient was admitted to hospital with diarrhoea

A

abdominal xray - helps to assess disease extent and severity
stool cultures
endoscopy - flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy
CT Scan

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9
Q

what are the parameters to diagnose toxic megacolon

A

more than 5.5 cm or a caecum of more than 9

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10
Q

how can you diagnose toxic megacolon

A

if there is a megacolon on xray accompanied with signs of systemic toxicity and requires emergent colectomy

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11
Q

what are the four layers of the bowel

A

mucosa
sub mucosa
muscular mucosa
sub serosa

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12
Q

acute changes which occur in chronic inflammatory bowel disease

A
  • acute inflammation
  • ulceration
  • loss of goblet cells
  • crypt abscess formation

MEDIATED BY NEUTROPHILS

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13
Q

Chronic changes in chronic inflammatory bowel disease

A
  • architectural changes
  • panted cell metaplasia
  • chronic inflammatory infiltrates in the lamina propria - more lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • neuronal hyperplasia
  • fibrosis
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14
Q

what are some macroscopic features of UC

A

there is predominantly diffuse involvement of the lower GIT
terminal ileum is only involved in severe illness where the whole bowel is involved inlcluding the caecum (back wash ileitis)

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14
Q

what are some macroscopic features of UC

A

there is predominantly diffuse involvement of the lower GIT
terminal ileum is only involved in severe illness where the whole bowel is involved inlcluding the caecum (back wash ileitis)

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15
Q

what re some microscopic features of UC

A
  • crypt architectural changes are generally very marked
  • little/no fibrosis
  • no granulomas
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16
Q

what is the usual treatment for UC

A

5-ASA/Mesalazine best to be combined with topical as this has better effectiveness if the UC was effecting far down the bowel towards the rectum

escalated:
- azathioprine = used in severe relapse/frequently relapsing disease RISK OF LYMPHOMA, NMSC and Ca
- biologics/surgery

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17
Q

what is the treatment for ASUC - acute severe ulcerative colitis

A

high-dose intravenous corticosteroids such as methylprednisolone 60mg daily or hydrocortisone 100mg - 6 hourly

also should receive prophylactic low-molecular weight heparin

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18
Q

what is the indication that a patient who has been admitted with ASUC needs a colectomy

A

if after treatment, on day three they still have a stool frequency of over 8 stools a day OR more than three plus a CRP of over 45
85 %

TO PREVENT THIS
considerr infliximab or ciclosporin or surgery

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19
Q

iinfliximab

A

monoclonal antibody to TNF-alpha

20
Q

complications of UC

A

local:
haemorrhage
toxic dilation

systemic:
- skin = erythema nodosum
- liver = sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma
- eyes = iritis, uveitis and episcleritis
- ankylosing spondylitis

MALIGNANCY - 1 3 or 5 year screening

21
Q

crohns disease class. presentation

A

x2 more likely in smokers - stopping reduces relapse, reduces the needs for immunosuppression and surgery (PEAK INCIDENCE AT 15-25)

  • abdominal pain (central indicating the small bowel)
  • diarrhoea (more watery than bloody)
  • weight loss
  • fistulae, abscesses, oropharyngeal, gastroduodenal
22
Q

crohns disease class. presentation

A

x2 more likely in smokers - stopping reduces relapse, reduces the needs for immunosuppression and surgery (PEAK INCIDENCE AT 15-25)

  • abdominal pain (central indicating the small bowel)
  • diarrhoea (more watery than bloody)
  • weight loss
  • fistulae, abscesses, oropharyngeal, gastroduodenal
23
Q

what is faecal calprotectin

A

calcium binding protein which is predominantly derived from neutrophils

  • normal is less than 50
    good to differentiate between IBS and IBD
24
What is the best treatment for crowns disease
azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine methotrexate biologics = TNF alpha antagonists
25
recite the cancer sequence in colon cancer
26
what are the risk factors for colorectal cancer
- adenomas - history of IBD - increasing age - obesity - sedentary lifestyle - high fat/low fibre diet - smoking and alcohol use - family history
27
review cancer staging system
28
what leads to the formation of a pancreatic abscess
acute pancreatitis leads to infected pancreatic necrosis - the avascular haemorrhage pancreas is a good culture medium for the growth of bacteria leading to an abscess MUST BE DRAINED AND GIVEN ANTIBIOTICS
29
What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer
BRCA smoking
30
what are the signs of pancreatic cancer
painless obstructive jaundice new onset diabetes abdominal pain which is due to pancreatic insufficiency or nerve invasion tumours in the head of the pancreas may obstruct the pancreatic and bile duct leading to the DOUBLE DUCT SIGN on radiology
31
what are the signs of pancreatic cancer
painless obstructive jaundice new onset diabetes abdominal pain which is due to pancreatic insufficiency or nerve invasion tumours in the head of the pancreas may obstruct the pancreatic and bile duct leading to the DOUBLE DUCT SIGN on radiology
32
what is a Whipple resection used for
tumours of the head of the pancreas 20 months life expectancy post op can be used with folfirinox chemo
33
cancer causing hypoglycaemia
insulinomas
34
cancer causing hypoglycaemia
insulinomas
35
what are some causes of upper GI bleeding
peptic ulcers which are exacerbated by: acid h.pylori NSAIDS
36
what is the acute management of someone presenting with haemopotsis
resuscitation as required risk assessment to determine urgency of endoscopy drug therapy and a transfusion
37
what is an endoscopic risk score for upper GI bleeding
Rockall AGE SHOCK COMORBIDITIES
38
what is a clinical score for upper GI bleeding
'admission' rockall glasgow blatchford AIMS 65
39
What type of presentation is at high risk of rebleed
- active bleeder - NBVV - Clot BUT MOST ARE CLEAN BASE AND DOT SO LOWER RISK
40
What kind of endoscopic therapy can be used to treat upper GI bleeds
adrenaline injection - constricts blood vessels heater probe endoscopic clips hemostatic powders can also use radiological embolisation of the bleeding vessels by endoscopy
41
if a patient with an upper GI bleed is on anticoagulants or anti-platelets what do you do
42
if patient is acvietly bleeding what would you do in terms of blood products
replace platelets
43
how do you treat varies
endoscopic banding TIPS beta blocker drugs
44
causes of varies
45
when is hepatitis considered to be chronic
more than 6 months
46
non-infectious causes of hepatitis
toxins drugs alcohol autoimmune Wilsons haemochromotosis
47
how do you test for viral hepatitis
igm or igg antibodies m for acute g for long can also perform viral nucleic acid detection (RNA OR DNA) to antigen detection (HBV HCV)