GI Flashcards

1
Q

Location

H pylori gastritis

A

usually antrum

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2
Q

Location

Zollinger-Ellison

A

Ulcerations in the stomach (jejunal ulcer is the buzzword).
Duodenal bulb is actually the most common location for ulcers in ZE. Remember ZE is
from gastrinoma - and might be a way to test MEN syndromes.

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3
Q

Location (stomach)

Crohns

A

Uncommon in the stomach, but when it is, it likes the antrum

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4
Q

Location

Menetrier’s

A

Usually in the Fundus (classically spares the antrum)

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5
Q

Location

Lymphoma

A

Crosses the Pylorus” - classically described as doing so, although in reality adenocarcinoma does it more.

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6
Q

FAP

A

100s of polyps - 100% risk of Colon CA (usually before 40)

Hyperplastic Stomach Polyps , Adenomatous Bowel Polyps
Adenomatous

Locally invasive desmoid tumors are common at surgicai ls■i*tes post
colectomy (these actually kill 10%ofFAPers)

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7
Q

HNPCC (Lynch)

A

As the name implies, this is not a disease of 100s of polyps. Instead it is DNA Mismatch Repair problem associated with lots of cancers.

Another difference between this and FAP is that the cancers of the colon are usually solitary (and right sided).

They also get lots of other cancers (endometrial being the second most common)

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8
Q

Gardner Syndrome

A

FAP + Desmoid Tumors, Osteomas, Papillary Thyroid Cancer

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9
Q

Turcots

A

FAP + Gliomas and Medulloblastomas

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10
Q

Peutz-Jeghers

A

Hamartoma Style!

Mucocutaneous Pigmentation (gross Dalmatian dog lips)

Small and Large Bowel CA, Pancreatic CA, and GYN CA

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11
Q

Cowden

A

Hamartoma Style!

BREAST CA, Thyroid CA,
Lhermitte-Duclos (posterior fossa noncancerous brain tumor)

Hamartoma Style!

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12
Q

Cronkhite-Canada

A

Hamartoma Style!

Stomach, Small Bowel, Colon,

Ectodermal Stuff (skin, hair, nails, yuck)

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13
Q

Juvenile Polyps

A

Hamartoma Style!

Increased risk for colorectal and gastric cancer (different than sporadic juvenile polyps -which are typically solitary and benign)

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14
Q

Stomach ulcer

Malignant

A

Width > depth

located within lumen

nodular irregular edges

folds adjacent to ulcer

aunt minnie: carmen meniscus sign

can be anywhere

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15
Q

Stomach Ulcers

benign

A

Depth>Width

Project beyond the expected lumen

sharp contour

folds radiate to ulcer

Aunt minnie: hamptons line

mostly on lesser curvature

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16
Q

GIST

overview

A

This is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the GI tract (70% in stomach, duodenum is second most common — colon is actually the least common). Think about this in an old person (it’s rare before age 40).

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17
Q

Gist

Tricks to know

A

• Lymph node enlargement is NOT a classic feature
• Malignant ones tend to be big angry mother fuckers (>10cm with ulceration - and possible perforation).
• If they do met - it is typically to the liver.
• Having said that, malignancy is rare with these.
They typically don’t met anywhere, which is why lymph node enlargement is uncommon.
• The association with Carney’s triad
• The association with NF-1

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18
Q

Carneys triad

A

“Carney’s Eat Garbage”
Chondroma (pulmonary)
Extra Adrenal Pheo
GIST

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19
Q

Gastric “Cancer” is either

A

Lymphoma (<5%) or Adenocarcinoma (95%)…. Rarely a malignant GIST.

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20
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma

overview

A

is usually a disease of an old person (median age 70).

H. Pylori is the most tested risk factor.

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21
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma

trivia to know

A

• Ulcerated carcinoma (or the “penetrating cancer”) has the
look of an advanced cancer
• Metastatic spread to the ovary is referred to as a Krukenberg Tumor.
• Gastroenterostomy performed for gastric ulcer disease
(old school - prior to PPIs) have a 2x - 6x- increased risk
for development of carcinoma within the gastric remnant.
• Step 1 trivia question: swollen left supraclavicular node = Virchow Node.

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22
Q

Gastric Adenocarcinoma

The look

A

Gastric Adenocarcinoma looks very different (usually) than a GIST.

GIST (arrow) is usually smoothly marginated and exophytic

Gastric
Adenocarcinoma is usually a large, ulcerated, heterogenous mass

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23
Q

Ulcer Trivia:

A

Duodenal Ulcers are 2-3x more common than Gastric Ulcers.

Gastric Ulcers - They have 5% chance o f being cancer.

Duodenal Ulcers - Are never cancer (on multiple choice)

Gastric Ulcers occurs from “altered mucosal resistance”, and favor the bulb

Duodenal Ulcers occur from….

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24
Q

Gastric Lymphoma

overview

A

can be primary (MALT), or secondary (systemic lymphoma). The stomach is the
most common extranodal site for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

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25
Q

Gastric Lymphoma

even when extensive

A

rarely causes gastric outlet obstruction. It was classically described as “crossins
the pylorus ’’ , although since gastric carcinoma is like lOx more common, it is actually more likely to do that.

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26
Q

Gastric Lymphoma

looks like

A

Has multiple looks and can be big, little, ulcerative, polypoid, or look like target lesions. It can also look like Linitis Plastica

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27
Q

Gastric Lymphoma

Trivia

A

it can rupture with treatment

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28
Q

Gastric Cancer is “More Likely” Than Lymphoma to…

A
  • More Likely to Cause Gastric Outlet Obstruction
  • More Likely to be in the distal stomach
  • More Likely to extend beyond the serosa and obliterate adjacent fat plains
  • More Likely to be a focal mass (95% of primary gastric tumors are adenocarcinoma)
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29
Q

Mets to the Stomach: This is actually very rare.

A

Melanoma

Breast

Lung

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30
Q

Mets to the Stomach:

Melanoma

A

Melanoma is probably the most common culprit, when it does occur.

This obviously has a variable appearance but multiple button type soft tissue nodules is probably the most classic look.

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31
Q

Mets to the Stomach:

Breast and lung

A

these are
known for producing a particular look of diffuse infiltration and a contracted desmoplastic deformity resembling a stiff leather bottle.

This is the so called Linitis Plastica appearance

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32
Q

Chronic Aspirin Therapy

A

“Multiple gastric ulcers” is the buzzword. Obviously this is nonspecific, but some sources say it occurs in 80% of patient’s with chronic aspirin use.

As a point of trivia, aspirin does NOT cause duodenal ulcers.

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33
Q

If you see multiple duodenal ulcers (most duodenal ulcers are solitary) you should think

A

ZE

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34
Q

Areae Gastricae

A

This is a normal fine reticular pattern seen on double contrast. A favorite piece of trivia to ask is when does this “enlarge” ? The answer is that it enlarges in elderly and patient’s with H. Pylori. Also it can focally enlarge next to an ulcer. It becomes obliterated by cancer or atrophic gastritis.

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35
Q

Menetrier’s Disease

A

Rare and has a French sounding name, so it’s almost guaranteed to be on the test. It’s an idiopathic gastropathy, with rugal thickening that classically involves the fundus and spares the antrum. Bimodal age distribution (childhood form thought to be CMV related). They end up with low albumin, from loss into gastric lumen.

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36
Q

Menetrier’s Disease

Essential trivia

A

inolves the fundus and spares the antrum

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37
Q

Ram’s Horn Deformity (Pseudo Billroth I)

A

Tapering of the antrum causes the stomach to look like a Ram’s Horn. This is a differential case, and can be seen with Scarring via peptic ulcers, Granulomatous Disease (Crohns, Sarcoid, TB, Syphilis), or Scirrhous Carcinoma.

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38
Q

Ram’s Horn Deformity (Pseudo Billroth I)

Essentrial trivia

A

The stomach is the most common GI tract location for sarcoid.

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39
Q

Gatric volvulus

Organoaxial

A

the greater curvature flips over the lesser

curvature. This is seen in old ladies with paraesophageal hernias. It’s way more common.

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40
Q

Gastric volvulus

meseneroaxial

A

twisting over the mesentery. Can cause ischemia and needs to be fixed. Additionally this type causes obstruction. This type is more common in kids.

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41
Q

Gastric Diverticulum

A

The way they always ask this is by trying to get you to call it an adrenal mass (it’s most commonly in the posterior fundus).

Gamesmanship: Find the normal adrenal.

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42
Q

Gastric Varices

A

Gastric Varices: This gets mentioned in the pancreas section, but I just want to hammer home that test writers love to ask splenic vein thrombus causing isolated gastric varices.

Some sneaky ways they can ask this is by saying “pancreatic cancer” or “Pancreatitis” causes gastric varices. Which is true…. because they are associated with splenic vein thrombus. So, just watch out for that.

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43
Q

Bilroth 1

A

Pylorus is removed and the proximal stomach is sewed directly to the duodenum.

Done for Gastric CA, Pyloric Dysfunction, or Ulcers.

Less Post Op Gastritis (relative to Billroth 2)

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44
Q

Bilroth 2

A

Partial gastrectomy, but this time the
stomach is attached to the jejunum.

Done for Gastric CA, or Ulcers.

Risks:
• Dumping syndrome
• Afferent loop syndrome
• Increased risk of gastric CA 10-20 year after surgery

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45
Q

Roux-en-y

A

Stomach is divided to make a “pouch.” This gastric pouch is attached to the jejunum. The excluded stomach attaches to the duodenum as per normal. The jejunum is attached to the other jejunum to form the bottom of the Y.

can also be performed for gastric cancer as an alternative to Billroth if the primary lesion has directly invaded the duodenum or head of the pancreas.

Supposedly these have less reflux, and less risk of recurrent gastric CA.

They are at increased risk for gallstones, and they have all that internal hernia shit.

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46
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

group of symptoms; diarrhea, nausea, and lightheaded / tired after a meal, - caused by rapid gastric emptying (seen classically with Billroth 2 and early in the post op period after Roux-en Y).

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47
Q

Afferent Loop Syndrome

A

An uncommon complication post billroth 2. The most common cause is obstruction (adhesions, tumor, intestinal hernia) o f the afferent. The acute form may have a closed loop obstruction. The result o f this afferent obstruction is the build up of biliary, pancreatic, and intestinal secretions resulting in afferent limb dilation. The back pressure from all this back up dilates the gallbladder, and causes pancreatitis. A much less common cause is if the stomach preferentially drains into the afferent loop.

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48
Q

Jejunogastric Intussusception

A

This is a rare complication o f gastroenterostomy. The Jejunum herniates back into the stomach (usually the efferent limb) and can cause gastric obstruction. High mortality is present with the acute form.

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49
Q

Bile Reflex Gastritis:

A

Fold thickening and filling defects seen in the stomach after Billroth 1 or II are likely the result o f bile acid reflux.

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50
Q

Gastro-Gastric Fistula

A

This is seen in Roux-en-Y patients who gain weight years later. The anastomotic breakdown is a chronic process, and often is not painful.

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51
Q

Cancer after gastric surgery

A

With regard to these old peptic ulcer surgeries (Billroths), there is a 3-6 times increased risk o f getting adenocarcinoma in the gastric remnant (like 15 years after the surgery).

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52
Q

Dumping Syndrome 2

A

Different than the “dumping syndrome” associated with late night Taco Bell. This type o f dumping is related to rapid transit o f undigested food from the stomach. Tc Gastric Emptying study is an option to diagnose this. The therapy is typically conversion o f Billroth to Roux-en-Y (and avoiding delicious carbs).

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53
Q

Small bowel follow through

Steps

A

Step 1 evaluate the folds

Step 2a evaluate for loop seperation with t without tethering

step 2b if nodules are present evaluate the distribution and secondary findings to help narrow diff

step 3 trademark features

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54
Q

SBFT step 1

thin <3mm, straight folds with dilation

A

Mechanical Obstruction
Paralytic Ileus
Scleroderma
Sprue

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55
Q

SBFT step 1

thick straight folds >3mm

segmental distribution

A

Ischemia
Radiation
Hemorrhage
Adjacent Inflammation

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56
Q

SBFT step 1

thick straight folds >3 mm

diffuse distribution

A

Low Protein
Venous Congestion
Cirrhosis

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57
Q

SBFT step 1

thick folds with nodularity

segmental distribution

A

Crohns
Infection
Lymphoma
Mets

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58
Q

SBFT step 1

thick folds with nodularity diffuse distribution

A
Whipples
Lymphoid Hyperplasia
Lymphoma
Mets
Intestinal Lymphangiectasia
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59
Q

SBFT step 2a

loop seperation without tethering

A
• Ascites,
• Wall Thickening
(Crohns, Lymphoma),
• Adenopathy
• Mesenteric Tumors
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60
Q

SBFt step 2a

loope separation with tethering

A

Tethering looks like someone is pinching and pulling the loops towards the displacing mass.
• Carcinoid

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61
Q

SBFT Step 2b

sand like nodules

A

Diffuse nodules in the jejunum

whipples (tropheryma whipplei)

pseudo whipples (MAC)

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62
Q

SBFT Step 2b

uniform 2-4 mm nodules

A

Lymphoid Hyperplasia

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63
Q

SBFT Step 2b

nodules of larger or varying sizes

A

Cancer - th in k M e ts (M e la n om a )

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64
Q

SBFT Step 2b

cobblestoning

A
  • Raised islands o f mucosa separated by linear streaks running perpendicular to the lumen o f the bowel.
  • These streaks represent ulceration.
  • This findings (especially when combined with areas o f stricture, and loop separation from fat proliferation) should make you think Crohns
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65
Q

SBFT Step 3

ribbon bowel

A

bowel is featureless, atrophic, and has fold thickening (ribbon-like).

Graft Vs Host

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66
Q

SBFT Step 3

hidebound bowel

A

Narrow separation of normal folds with mild bowel dilation.

Scleroderma

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67
Q

SBFT Step 3

Moulage sign (tube of wax)

A

Dilated jejunal loop with complete loss of
jejunal folds - opacified like a “tube o f wax”

Celiac

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68
Q

SBFT Step 3

Fold reversal

A

Jejunum loses folds to look more like the normal Ileum, Ileum
gains folds (in the right lower quadrant) to look
more like normal Jejunum

Celiac

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69
Q

SBFT Step 3

Freaking worm

A

Thread like defect in the barium column

ascaris suum (demon worm)

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70
Q

Small bowel path

The target sign

A

’ Single Target: GIST, Primary Adenocarcinoma, Lymphoma, Ectopic Pancreatic Rest, Met (Melanoma).

’Multiple Target: Lymphoma, Met (Melanoma)

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71
Q

Small bowel path

clover leaf sign

A

This is an Aunt Minnie for Healed Peptic Ulcer of the Duodenal Bulb.

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72
Q

Small bowel path

Whipples

A

Just like a stripper - it prefers white men in their 50s. The bug infdtrates the lamina propria with large macrophages infected by intracellular whipple bacilli leading to marked swelling of intestinal villi and thickened irregular mucosal folds primarily in duodenum and proximal jejunum.

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73
Q

Small bowel path

Buzzword for whipples

A

“sand like nodules” referring to diffuse micronodules in the jejunum.

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74
Q

Small bowel path

Pseudo whipples

A

MAI (instead of T. Whipplei). This is seen in AIDS patients with CD4<100. The imaging findings of nodules in the jejunum and retroperitoneal nodes are similar to Whipples (hence the name). The distinction between the two is not done with imaging but instead via an acid fast stain (MAC is positive).

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75
Q

Small bowel path

Intestinal lymphangiectasia

A

Lymphangiectasia results from obstruction to the flow of lymph from the small intestine into the mesentery. This results in dilation of the intestinal and serosal lymphatic channels. This can be primary from lymphatic hypoplasia, or secondary from obstruction of the thoracic duct (or any place in between).

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76
Q

Small bowel path

Graft vs Host

A

It occurs in patients after bone marrow transplant. It’s less common with modem anti-rejection drugs. Skin, Liver, and GI tract get hit. Small bowel is usually the most severely affected. Bowel is featureless, atrophic, and has fold thickening (ribbonlike).

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77
Q

Small bowel path

graft vs host buzzword

A

ribbon bowel

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78
Q

Small bowel path

SMA Syndrome

A

This is an obstruction of the 3rd portion of the duodenum by the SMA (it pinches the duodenum in the midline). It is seen in patients who have recently lost a lot of weight.

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79
Q

Small bowel path

Celiac sprue

A

Small bowel malabsorption of gluten

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80
Q

Small bowel path

Celiac sprue high yeild points

A
  • Can cause malabsorption of iron, and lead to iron deficiency anemia.
  • Associated with Idiopathic Pulmonary Hemosiderosis (Lane Hamilton Syndrome)
  • Increased Risk of bowel wall lymphoma
  • Gold standard is biopsy (surprisingly not barium)
  • Dermatitis Herpetiformis - some skin thing (remember that from step 1)
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81
Q

Small bowel path

Celiac sprue findings on CT/Barium

A
  • Fold Reversal is the Buzzword (Jejunum like Ileum, Ileum like Jejunum)
  • Moulage Sign - dilated bowel with effaced folds (tube with wax poured in it)
  • Cavitary Lymph Nodes (low density)
  • Splenic Atrophy
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82
Q

Small bowel path

M e c k e l’s D iv erticu lum I D iv e rtic u litiss

A

This is a congenital true diverticulum of the distal ileum. A piece of total trivia is that it is a persistent piece of the omphalomesenteric duct.

Step 1 style, “rule of 2s” occurs in 2% of the population, has 2 types of heterotopic mucosa (gastric and pancreatic), located 2 feet from the IC valve, it’s usually 2 inches long (and 2 cm in diameter), and usually has symptoms before the child is 2. If it has gastric mucosa (the ones that bleed typically do) it will take up Tc-Pertechnetate just like the stomach (hence the Meckel’s scan).

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83
Q

Small bowel pathM e c k e l’s D iv erticu lum I D iv e rtic u litis

high yield trivia

A

Can get diverticulitis in the Meckels (mimic appendix)

GI Bleed from Gastric Mucosa (causes 30% of symptomatic cases)

Can be a lead point for intussusception (seen with inverted diverticulum)

Can cause Obstruction

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84
Q

Small bowel path

Duodenal In flam m a to ry Disease:

A

You can have fold thickening of the duodenum from adjacent inflammatory processes of the pancreas or gallbladder. You can also have thickening and fistula formation with Crohn’s (usually when the colon is the primary site). Primary duodenal Crohns can happen, but is super rare. Chronic dialysis patients may get severely thickened duodenal folds which can mimic the appearance of pancreatitis on barium.

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85
Q

Small bowel path

Jejunal diverticulosis

A

Less common than colonic diverticulosis, but does occur. They occur along the mesenteric border. Important association is bacterial overgrowth and malabsorption. They could show this with CT, but more likely will show it with barium (if they show it at all).

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86
Q

Small bowel path

Gallstone ileus

A

Not a true ileus, instead a mechanical obstruction secondary to the passage of a gallstone in the lumen of the bowel. Gallstones access the bowel by eroding through the duodenum (usually). As you can imagine, only elderly or weak patients (those unworthy of serving in the spartan infantry) are susceptible to this erosion.

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87
Q

Small bowel path riglers triad

A

pneumobilia, obstruction, and an ectopic location o f a gallstone. The classic trick is to try and get you to say that free air - the “Riglers Sign” - is part of the Riglers Triad (it isn’t) — mumble to yourself “nice try assholes.”

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88
Q

Direct signs of bowel trauma

A

Spilled oral contrast

active mesentric bleed

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89
Q

indirect signs of bowel trauma

A

fat stranding

fluid layering along the bowel

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90
Q

Shock Complex Features

A

• Thickened Enhancing Bowel Loops (small bowel involved more than larger bowel)
• On Non-Contrast, bowel loops may appear denser than the psoas
. Collapsed IVC
• HYPO-enhancement of solid organs (liver and spleen)
• Bilateral delayed nephrograms (persistence nephrograms)
• HYPER-enhancement of the adrenals

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91
Q

“Shock Bowel” “Hypovolemic Shock Complex”

A

This is typically seen with severe hypotension , although anything that gives you low volume - (cardiac arrest, septic shock, bacterial endocarditis, diabetic ketoacidosis, etc.. so on and so forth) can also cause it.

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92
Q

Bowel Trauma vs shock bowel findings

A

Focal vs Diffuse

Wall Thickening with High Attenuation Blood in the Submucosa vs Wall Thickening with Near Water Attenuation Edema

Mucosa enhances normally (or less than normal) vs Mucosa demonstrates intense enhancement

Secondary signs of injury (free air, leaked contrast, mesenteric hematoma, etc… etc… so on and so forth). vs
Other signs of shock (bright adrenals, flat IVC, etc…)

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93
Q

Small bowel cancer

Adenocarcinoma

A

Most common in the proximal small bowel (usually duodenum). Increased incidence with celiac disease and regional enteritis. Focal circumferential bowel wall thickening in proximal small bowel is characteristic on CT. The duodenal web does NOT increase the risk.

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94
Q

Small bowel cancer

adenocarcinoma gamesmanship

A

Adenocarcinoma is more likely to obstruct relative to lymphoma.

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95
Q

Small bowel cancer

Lymphoma

A

It’s usually the non-Hodgkin flavor. Patients with celiac, Crohns, AIDS, and SLE are higher risk. It can look like anything (infiltrative, polypoid, multiple nodules etc….)

The Hodgkin subtype is more likely to cause a desmoplastic reaction..

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96
Q

Small bowel cancer

lymphoma key triia

A

do not obstruct even with massive circum involvement

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97
Q

Small bowel cancer

trivia

A

favors the ileum

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98
Q

Small bowel cancer

gamesmanship

A

obstruction is rare

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99
Q

Small bowel cancer

Carcinoid

aunt minnie

A

a mass + desmoplastic stranding. “Starburst” appearance of the mesenteric mass with calcifications.

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100
Q

Small bowel cancer

carcinoid

A

This tumor most commonly occurs in young adults. The primary tumor is often not seen. That calcified crap you are seeing is the desmoplastic reaction. Liver mets are often hyper vascular. Step 1 style, you don’t get carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea) until you met to the liver.

The appendix, has the best prognosis of all G1 primary sites. Systemic serotonin degrades the heart valves (right sided), and classically causes tricuspid regurgitation.

MIBG or Octreotide scans can assist with diagnosis

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101
Q

Small bowel cancer

carcinoid most common primary location

A

distal ileum

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102
Q

Small bowel cancer

Mets

A

This is usually melanoma (which hits the small bowel in 50% of fatal cases). You can also get hematogenous seeding of the small bowel with breast, lung, and Kaposi sarcoma. Melanoma will classically have multiple targets.

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103
Q

Most common type of abdominalhernia

A

inguinal M>F (7:1)

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104
Q

femoral hernia

A

Likely to obstruct. Seen in old ladies. They are medial to the femoral vein, and posterior to the inguinal ligament (usually on the right).

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105
Q

Obturator hernia

A

Another old lady hernia. Often seen in patients with increased intra-abdominal pressure (Ascites, COPD - chronic cougher). Usually asymptomatic - but can strangulate.

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106
Q

Direct inguinal hernia

A

Less common

Medial to inferior epigastric artery

Defect in Hesselbach’s Triangle

NOT covered by internal spermatic fascia

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107
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia

A

More Common

Lateral to inferior epigastric artery

Failure of processus vaginalis to close

Covered by internal spermatic fascia

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108
Q

Lumbar Hernia

A

Can be superior (Grynfeltt-Lesshaft) through the superior lumbar triangle, or inferior (Petit) through the inferior lumbar triangle. Superior is more common than inferior. Otherwise, they are very similar and usually discussed together. Causes are congenital or acquired (post-surgery).

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109
Q

Spigelian Hernia

A

The question is probably the location along the Semilunar line ( “S ” fo r “S ”) through the transversus abdominis aponeurosis close to the level of the arcuate line.

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110
Q

Littre hernia

A

hernia with a meckedl diverticulum in it

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111
Q

amyand hernia

A

hernia with the appendix in it

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112
Q

Richter hernia

A

Contains only one wall of bowel and therefore does not obstruct. This are actually at higher risk for strangulation.

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113
Q

Hernias Post laparoscopic Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass

Factors that promote internal hernia after gastric bypass

A

(1) Laproscopic over Open - supposedly creates fewer adhesion, so you have more mobility
(2) Degree of weight loss ; more weight loss = less protective, space occupying mesenteric fat.

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114
Q

Hernias Post laparoscopic Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass

There are 3 potential sites

A

(1) At the defect in the transverse mesocolon, through which the Roux-Loop Passes (if it’s done in the retrocolic position).
(2) At the mesenteric defect at the enteroenterostomy
(3) Behind the Roux limb mesentery placed in a retrocolic or antecolic position (retrocolic Petersen and antecolic Petersen type). ** This is the one they will likely ask because it has an eponym with it.

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115
Q

Internal Hernias

overviews

A

The most common manifestation is closed loop obstruction (often with strangulation). There are 9 different subtypes, of which I refuse to cover. I will touch on the most common, and the general concept.

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116
Q

Internal Hernias

General concept

A

This is a herniation of viscera through the peritoneum or mesentery. The herniation takes place through a known anatomic foramina or recess, or one that has been created post operatively.

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117
Q

Internal Hernias

Paraduodenal

overview

A

This is by far the most common type of internal hernia. They can
occur in 5 different areas, but it’s much simpler to think of them as left or right. Actually, 75%
of the time they are on the left.

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118
Q

Paraduiodenal leftsided hernia

A

The exact location is the duodenojejunal junction (“fossa of Landzert”). Here is the trick; the herniated small bowel can become trapped in a “sac of bowel” between the pancreas and stomach to the left of the ligament of Treitz. The sac characteristically
contains the IMV and the left colic artery.

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119
Q

Paraduodenal right sided hernia

A

located just behind the SMA and just below the transverse segment of
the duodenum, at the “Fossa of Waldeyer.” The classic setting for right-sided PDHs is nonrotated small bowel, with normally rotated large bowel.

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120
Q

Crohns disease

overview

A

Typically seen in a young adult (15-30), but has a second smaller peak later 60-70. Discontinuous involvement of the entire GI tract (mouth -> asshole). Stomach, usually involves antrum (Ram’s Horn Deformity). Duodenal involvement is rare, and NEVER occurs without antral involvement. Small bowel is involved 80% o f the time, with the terminal ileum almost always involved (Marked Narrowing = String Sign). After
surgery the “neo-terminal ileum” will frequently be involved. The colon involvement is usually right sided, and often spares the rectum / sigmoid. Complications include fistulae, abscess, gallstones, fatty liver, and sacroiliitis.

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121
Q

Crohns disease

squaring of the folds

A

An early manifestation from obstructive lymphedema

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122
Q

Crohns disease

skip lesions

A

Discontinuous involvement o f the bowel

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123
Q

Crohns disease

proud loops

A

Separation of the loops caused by infiltration o f the mesentery, increase in mesenteric fat and enlarged lymph nodes

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124
Q

Crohns disease

cobblestoning

A

Irregular appearance to bowel wall caused by longitudinal and
transverse ulcers separated by areas o f edema

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125
Q

Crohns disease

pseudopolyps

A

Islands of hyperplastic mucosa

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126
Q

Crohns disease

Filiform

A

Post-inflammatory polyps - long and worm-like

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127
Q

Crohns disease

pseudodiverticula

A

Found on anti-mesenteric side. From bulging area of normal wall opposite side o f scarring from disease

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128
Q

Crohns disease

string-sign

A

Marked narrowing of terminal ileum from a combination of edema, spasm, and fibrosis

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129
Q

IBD trivia associating

A

increased risk of melanoma

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130
Q

UC overview

A

Just like Crohns, it typically occurs in a “young adult” (age 15-40), with a second peak at 60-70. Favors the male gender. It involves the rectum 95% of the time, and has etrograde progression. Terminal ileum is involved 5-10% of the time via backwash ileitis (wide open appearance). It is continuous and does not “skip” like Crohns. It is associated with Colon Cancer, Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis, and Arthritis (similar to Ankylosing Spondylitis).

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131
Q

UC Barium

A

On Barium, it is said that the colon is ahaustral, with a diffuse granular appearing mucosa. “Lead Pipe” is the buzzword (shortened from fibrosis).

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132
Q

UC key clinical point

A

UC has an increased risk of cancer (probably higher than Crohns), and it doesn’t classically have enlarged lymph nodes (like Crohns does), so if you see a big lymph node in an UC patient (especially one with long standing disease), you have to think that it might be cancer.

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133
Q

More common in crohns vs UC

Gallstones

PSC

Hepatic Abscess

Pancreatities

A

Gallstones Crohns

PSC UC

Hepatic Abscess Crohns

Pancreatities Crohns

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134
Q

Cronhs this vs that

A
Slightly less common in the USA
Discontinuous “Skips”
Terminal Ileum - String Sign
Ileocecal Valve “Stenosed”
Mesenteric Fat Increased "creepingfat”
Lymph nodes are usually enlarged
Makes Fistulae
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135
Q

UC this vs that

A
Slightly more common in the USA
Continuous
Rectum
Ileocecal Valve “Open”
Perirectal fat Increased
Lymph nodes are NOT usually enlarged
Doesn’t Usually Make Fistulae
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136
Q

Toxic Megacolon

A

Ulcerative colitis, and to a lesser degree Crohns, is the primary cause. C-Diff can also cause it. Gaseous dilation distends the transverse colon (on upright fdms), and the right and left colon on supine films. Lack of haustra and pseudopolyps are also seen. Some people say the presence of normal hausta excludes the diagnosis. Don’t do a barium enema because of the risk of perforation. Another piece of trivia is that peritonitis can occur without perforation.

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137
Q

Behcets

A

Ulcers of the penis and mouth. Can also affect GI tract (and looks like Crohns) - most commonly affects the ileocecal region. It is also a cause of pulmonary artery aneurysms (test writers like to ask that).

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138
Q

Diverticulosis/Dviverticulitis

A

Some trivia worth knowing is that diverticulosis actually bleeds more than diverticulitis. Right-sided is less common (but is seen in young Asians). Fistula fonnation is actually most common with diverticulitis, and can occur to anything around it (another piece of bowel, the bladder, etc..).

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139
Q

Epiploic appendagitis

A

Epiploic appendages along the serosal surface of the colon can torse, most commonly on the left. There is not typically concentric bowel wall thickening (unlike diverticulitis).

Omental infarction is typically a larger mass with a more oval shape and central low density. It
is more common on the right (ROI - right omental infarct). Both entities are self-limiting.

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140
Q

Appendicitis

steps

A

The classic pathways are: obstmction (fecalith or reactive lymphoid tissue) -> mucinous fluid builds up increasing pressure -> venous supply is compressed -> necrosis starts -> wall breaks down -> bacteria get into wall -> inflammation causes vague pain (umbilicus) -> inflamed appendix gets larger and touches parietal peritoneum (pain shifts to RLQ).

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141
Q

appendix mucocele

A

Mucinous cystadenomas are the most common mucinous tumor of the appendix. They produce mucin and can really dilate up and get big. They look similar to cystadenocarcinomas and can perforate leading to pseudomyxoma peritonei. On ultrasound the presence of an “onion sign” - layering within a cystic mass - is a suggestive feature of a
mucocele.

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142
Q

Omental infarction

A

Omental infarction is typically a larger mass with a more oval shape and central low density. It is more common on the right (ROI - right omental infarct). Both entities are self-limiting.

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143
Q

Appenix ages

A

It occurs in an adolescent or young adult (or any age).

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144
Q

appendix ct

A

The measurement of 6 mm was originally described with data from ultrasound compression, but people still generally use it for CT as well. Secondary signs of inflammation are probably more reliable for CT.

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145
Q

appendix gamesmanship

A

In pregnancy MRI without contrast is the test of choice

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146
Q

sigmoid colonic volvulus

A

Most common adult form. Seen in the nursing home patient (chronic constipation is a predisposing factor). This is the “Grandma” volvulus. Buzzword is coffee bean sign (or inverted 3 sign). Another less common buzzword is Frimann Dahl’s sign - which refers
to 3 dense lines converging towards the site o f obstruction. Points to the RUQ. Recurrence rate after decompression = 50%.

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147
Q

cecal colonic volvulus

A

Seen in a younger person (20-40). Associated with people with a “ long mesentery.” More often points to the LUQ. Much less common than sigmoid.

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148
Q

Cecal bascule colonic volvulus

A

Anterior folding o f the cecum, without twisting. A lot o f surgical text books dispute this thing even being real (they think it’s a focal ileus). The finding is supposedly dilation o f the cecum in an ectopic position in the middle abdomen, without a mesenteric twist.

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149
Q

Colonic Pseudo-Obstruction

A

(Colonic Ileus, Ogilvie Syndrome): Usually seen after serious medical conditions and in nursing home patients. It can persist for years, or progress to bowel necrosis and perforation. The classic look is marked diffuse dilation o f the large bowel, without a discrete transition point.

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150
Q

Diversion colitis

A

Bacterial overgrowth in a blind loop through which stool does not pass (any surgery that does this).

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151
Q

Colitis cystica

superficial

A

The superficial kind consists of cysts that are small in the entire colon. It’s associated with vitamin deficiencies and tropical sprue. Can also be seen in terminal leukemia, uremia, thyroid toxicosis, and mercury poisoning.

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152
Q

Colitis cystica

deep

A

These cysts may be large and are seen in the pelvic colon and rectum.

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153
Q

Rectal cavernous hemangioma

A

Obviously very rare. Just know it’s associated with a few syndromes; Klippel-Trenaunay-Weber, and Blue Rubber Bleb. They might show is. you a ton of phleboliths down there.

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154
Q

Gossypiboma

A

It’s a retained cotton product or surgical sponge and it can elicit an inflammatory response.

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155
Q

Entamoeba Histolytica

A

Parasite that causes bloody diarrhea. Can cause liver abscess, spleen abscess, or even brain abscess. Within the colon it is one of the causes of toxic megacolon. They are typically “flask-shaped ulcers” on endoscopy.

It affects the cecum and ascending colon most commonly and unlike many other GI infections, spares the terminal ileum.

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156
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

barium

A

the buzzword is “conedcecum” referring to a change in the normal bulbous appearance of the cecum, to that of a cone.

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157
Q

Colonic TB

A

Typically involves the terminal ileum, and is another cause of the “coned cecum”
appearance. Causes both ulcers and areas of nanowing. Two other signs: (1) Fleischner sign - enlarged gaping IC valve, and (2) Stierlin sign - narrowing of the Tl.

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158
Q

Infections tht like the duodenum and proximal small bowel

A

Giardia

strongyloides

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159
Q

infections that like the TI

A

TB

Yersinia

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160
Q

This vs that sigmoid vs cecal

A

sigmoid - old person, points to the RUQ

cecal - younger person, points to the LUIQ

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161
Q

colonic CMV

A

Seen in patients who are immunosuppressed. Causes deep ulcerations - which can lead to perforation. Step 1 question = Cowdry Type A intranuclear inclusion bodies

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162
Q

C-DIFF

A

Classically seen after antibiotic therapy, the toxin leads to a super high WBC count. CT findings of the “accordion sign” with contrast trapped inside mucosal folds is always described in review books and is fair game for multiple choice. The barium findings include thumb printing, ulceration, and irregularity. Of course it can cause toxic megacolon as mentioned on the prior page.

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163
Q

Neutropenic Colitis (Typhlitis):

A

Infection limited to the cecum occurring in severe neutropenia.

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164
Q

Colon Cancer

adenocarcinoma

overview

A

Common cause of cancer death (#2 overall). Cancers on the right tend to
bleed (present with bloody stools, anemia). Cancers on the left tend to obstruct. Apple core is a buzzword.

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165
Q

Colon Cancer

adenocarcinoma

gamesmanship

A

Large bowel intussusception in adult = Malignancy

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166
Q

Colon Cancer

adenocarcinoma

gamesmanship 2

A

Colon likes to Met to the Liver. Liver Mets will classically be T1 Dark, T2 Mildly Bright (“evil grey”), heterogenous non-progressive in enhancement, sometimes target.

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167
Q

Colon Cancer

squamos cell carcinoma

A

occasionally in the anus (HPV)

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168
Q

Rectal Cancer Trivia

A
  • Nearly always (98%) adenocarcinoma
  • If the path says Squamous - the cause was HPV (use your imagination on how it got there).
  • Lower rectal cancer (0-5 cm from the anorectal angle), have the highest recurrence rate.
  • MR1 is used to stage - and you really only need T2 weight imaging - contrast doesn’t matter
  • Stage T3 - called when tumor breaks out of the rectum and into the perirectal fat. This is the critical stage that changes management (they will get chemo/rads prior to surgery).
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169
Q

nodes in perirectal fat are abnormal when

A

> 5mm

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170
Q

High rectal cancer

A
  • Treated with Low Anterior Resection (LAR)
  • These patients will maintenance fecal
    continence post op
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171
Q

Low rectal cancer

A
  • Treated with Abdomino- Perineal Resection (APR)

- These poor bastards will end up with colostomies

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172
Q

Rectal Cancer surgery

A

classically determined by the position of the tumor relative to the butthole.

Most people will use the number “5 cm” above the anorectal angle to delineate “high” vs “low.”

Both surgical approaches are performed with a total mesorectal excision (tumor, nodes, and blood supply).

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173
Q

Colon lipomas

A

Second most common tumor in the colon

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174
Q

Colon adenomas

A

The most common benign tumor of the colon and rectum. The villous adenoma has the largest risk fo r malignancy.

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175
Q

McKittrick-Wheelock Syndrome:

A

This is a villous adenoma that causes a mucous diarrhea leading to severe fluid and electrolyte depletion.

The clinical scenario would be something like “80 year old lady with diarrhea, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypochloremia… and this” and they show you a mass in the rectum / bowel.

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176
Q

Pseudomyxoma Peritonei

A

This is a gelatinous ascites that results from either
(a) ruptured mucocele (usually appendix), or intraperitoneal spread of a mucinous neoplasm (ovary, colon, appendix, and pancreas). It’s usually the appendix (least common is the pancreas).

The buzzword is “scalloped appearance of the liver.” Recurrent bowel obstructions are common

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177
Q

Peritoneal carcinomatosis

A

The main thing to know regarding peritoneal implants is that the natural flow of ascites dictates the locat ion of implants. This is why the retrovesical space is the most common spot, since it’s the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity.

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178
Q

Omental seeding/caking

A

The omental surface can get implanted by cancer and become thick (like a mass). The catch-phrase is “posterior displacement of the bowel from the anterior abdominal wall.”

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179
Q

Primary peritoneal mesothelioma

A

This is super rare. People think about mesothelioma involving the pleura (and it does 75% of the time), but the other 25% of the time it involves the peritoneal surface. The thing to know is that it occurs 30-40 years after the initial asbestosis exposure.

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180
Q

Cystic peritoneal mesothelioma

A

This is the even more rare benign mesothelioma, that is NOT associated with prior asbestos exposure. It usually involves a women of childbearing
age (30s).

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181
Q

Mesenteric Lymphoma

A

This is usually non-Hodgkin lymphoma, which supposedly involves the mesentery 50% of the time. The buzzword is “sandwich sign.” The typical appearance is a lobulated confluent soft tissue mass encasing the mesenteric vessels “sandwiching them.”

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182
Q

Barium peritonitis

A
This is why you use water soluble contrast anytime you are worried about leak. The pathology is an attack of the peritoneal barium by the leukocytes which creates a monster
inflammatory reaction (often with massive ascites and sometimes hypovolemia and resulting shock). If no “real doctor” is available, you should give IV fluids to reduce the risk of hypovolemic shock. The long tenn sequela of barium peritonitis is the development of granulomas and adhesions (causing obstructions and an eventual lawsuit).
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183
Q

Barium intravasation

A

This is super rare, but can happen. If barium ends up in the systemic circulation it kills via pulmonary embolism about 50% of the time. Risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel or diverticulitis (altered mucosa).

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184
Q

Liver bare area

A

The liver is covered by visceral peritoneum except at the porta hepatis, bare area, and the gallbladder fossa. An injury to the “bare area” can result in a retroperitoneal bleed.

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185
Q

Couinaud system

testable trivia

A
  • Right Hepatic Vein Divides 7/8, and 6/5
  • Middle Hepatic Vein Divides 4a/8, 4b/5
  • Left Hepatic Vein / Fissure for the Ligamentum Teres (falciform) divides 4a/2, 4b/3
  • The Portal Vein Divides the Liver into Upper and Lower Segments
  • The Caudate Lobe (Segment 1) is unique in that it drains directly to the IVC.
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186
Q

Cantlies line

A

divides the liver into a functional left and right hepatic lobes.
This line runs from the IVC to the middle of the gallbladder fossa.

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187
Q

Caudate Lobe

A

The caudate lobe (segment 1) has a direct connection to the IVC through it’s own hepatic veins, which do not communicate with the primary hepatic veins.
Additionally, the caudate is supplied by branches o f both the right and left portal veins - which matters because the caudate may be spared or hypertrophied as the result o f various pathologies such as Budd Chiari, etc…

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188
Q

Liver trivia 1

A

Along the same lines of anatomy explaining pathology, the intra-hepatic course of the right portal vein is longer than the left, which is why it is more susceptible to fibrosis (this is why the right liver shrinks, and the left liver grows in cirrhotic morphology).

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189
Q

Liver trivia 2

A

Most common vascular variant = Replaced right hepatic (origin from the SMA)

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190
Q

Liver trivia 3

A

Most common biliary variant = Right posterior segmental into the left hepatic duct.

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191
Q

Liver Normal MRI Signal Characteristics

A

I like to think of the spleen as a bag o f water/blood (T2 bright, T1 dark). The pancreas is the “brightest T1 structure in the body” because it has enzymes. The liver also has enzymes and is similar to the pancreas (T1 Brighter, T2 darker), just not as bright as the pancreas

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192
Q

Liver fetal circulation

A

Placenta > Umbilical Vein > Liver > IVC

Placenta > Umbilical vein > Ductus Venosus (remnant of ligamentum venosum) > IVC

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193
Q

Liver us trivia

A

Pancreas should be more echogenic than liver

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194
Q

classic liver ultrasound anatomy

pic 1 Pancreas

A

Anterior to posterior

Pancreas
Splenic vein
SMA
LRV to the IVC on the pts right
Aorta
Vert Body
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195
Q

classic liver ultrasound anatomy

pic 2 porta hepatis

A

Anterior to posterior

CBD
RHA
PV

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196
Q

Liver pic three porta hepatis mickey mouse

A

Left ear Bile duct
Right hear hepatic artery
Head portal vein

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197
Q
Another consequences of the
Longer Right Portal Vein Course
is that Hepatic Abscess (often
from ascending hematogenous
sources) nearly always (75%+)
involves
A

right hepatic lobe

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198
Q

Cirrhosis most common cause

us

world

A

etoh

schistosomiasis

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199
Q

portal htn measurements

A

portal vein pressure 6-8 mmhg above hepatic veins

variceal bleeding and ascites around >12mmhg

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200
Q

prehepatic causes of portal htn

A

portal vein thrombosis

tumor compression

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201
Q

hepatic causes of portal htn

A

cirrhosis

schistosomiasis

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202
Q

posthepatic causes of portal htn

A

budd chiari

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203
Q

prehepatic portal htn collateral

A

form above the diaphragm

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204
Q

THAD overview

A

These Transient Hepatic Attenuation Differences are typically seen in the arterial / early portal phase - NOT on the equilibrium / delayed phases (hence the word “transient”). The easiest way to think about them is that they are focal “arterial buffer responses.” In other words, in that tiny little spot right there the liver feels like there isn’t enough portal flow, so it responses by increasing the arterial flow.

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205
Q

Causes of THAD

A

Cirrhosis
Clot
Mass
Abscess/Infection

206
Q

THAD

Cirrhosis

A

A bunch o f scar / fibrosis deforms the hepatic sinusoids compressing the tiny little portal veins (think about arteries and veins in the neck or groin - pressure will compress the vein first) - people call this “shunting.” This is most typical in the subcapsular region.

207
Q

THAD

Clot

A

Venous blood flow could be compromised from a clot in a portal vein branch (these enhancement patterns are typically larger, wedge shaped, and extend towards the periphery).

208
Q

THAD

MAss

A

(B9 or Malignant): This can occur from two primary mechanisms. 1 - You could have the direct mass effect from the mass smashing the veins. 2 - The tumor could be recruiting /up-regulating arterial flow (VEGF etc…).

209
Q

THAD

Abscess/Infection

A

Also probably a mixed mechanism. Some direct mass effect, but also
some element o f “hyperemia” - causing a “siphon effect.” For clarity we aren’t just talking liver abscess here, cholecystitis can also have this region effect.

210
Q

parasitizing the portosystemic decompressive apparatus

A

So the artery does something else, it opens up tiny little connections to the portal system. The enlargement o f these tiny communications has been referred to as “parasitizing the portosystemic decompressive apparatus.”

211
Q

Portal hypertensive colopathy

A

With increased resistance in the liver to the portal circulation, you also start to have colonic venous stasis (worse on the right). This can lead to “Portal Hypertensive Colopathy, ” which is basically an edematous bowel that mimics colitis.

212
Q

Portal hypertensive colopathy

why worse on the right

A

The short answer is that collateral pathways develop more on the left (splenorenal shunt, short gastrics, esophageal varices), and decompress that side.

213
Q

Portal hypertensive gastropathy

A

same things as portal hypertensive colopathy but in the stomach

causing a thickened gastric wall on CT, as welt as cause upper GI bleeding in the absence of varices.

214
Q

HCC overview

A

This is how multi-focal HCC starts. Regenerative nodules -> Dysplastic nodules (increased size and ccilularity) -> HCC. As this process takes place, the nodule changes from preferring to drink portal blood to only wanting to drink arterial blood. This helps explain why HCC has arterial enhancement and rapid washout. The transformation also follows a progression from T2 dark (regenerative) -> T2 bright (HCC).

215
Q

HCC transformation buzzword

A

“nodule within nodule ’’ where a central bright T2 nodule has a T2 dark border. This is concerning for transformation to HCC.

216
Q

Regenerative nodules

A

Contains iron

T1 dark T2 dark

does not enhance

217
Q

Dysplastic nodules

A

Contains fat, glycoprotein

T1 bright T2 Dark

Usually does no enhance

218
Q

HCC nodules

A

T2 bright

does enhance

219
Q

OATP

A

As hepatocytes become cancer they lose function in this transporter and become dark on the delayed phase. The exception (highly testable) is the well differentiated HCC which retains OATP function and is therefore bright on the 20 min delayed Eovist sequence.

220
Q

Hepatic contrast phase timing

A

arterial phase 25-30 seconds

portal venous phase 70 seconds

221
Q

liver late arterial phase

A

This (“Late A rterial”) is the most critical phase for HCC evaluation. You can recognize this timing as contrast in the hepatic artery and portal vein (but none in the hepatic veins).

222
Q

Liver window

A

Center 100

width 200

223
Q

MR Contrast Hepatobiliary Considerations

How they work

A

Gadolinium (which is super toxic) is bound to some type of chelation agent to keep it from killing the patient. The shape and function of the chelation agent determine the class and brand name. The paramagnetic qualities of gadolinium cause a local shortening of the T1 relaxation time on neighboring molecules (remember short T1 time = bright image).

224
Q

MR Contrast Hepatobiliary Considerations

Types of agents

A

I want you to think about MR1 contrast in two main flavors:

(1) Extracellular
(2) Hepatocyte Specific.

225
Q

MR Contrast Hepatobiliary Considerations

Etracellular

A

These are nonspecific agents that are best thought of as Iodine contrast for
CT. They stay outside the cell and are blood flow dependent (just like CT contrast). The
imaging features in lesions will be the same as CT - although the reason they look bright is
obviously different - CT contrast increases the density (attenuation), MR contrast shortens the
T1 time locally - which makes T1 brighter. The classic imaging set up is a late hepatic arterial
phase (15-30 seconds), portal venous phase (70 seconds), and a hepatic venous or interstitial
phase (90 seconds - 5 mins) - just like CT.

MAgnevist

226
Q

MR Contrast Hepatobiliary Considerations

Hepatocyte specific

A

Certain chelates are excreted via the bile salt pathway. In other
words, they are taken up by normal hepatocytes and excreted into the bile. This gives you great
contrast between normal hepatocytes and things that aren’t normal hepatocytes (cancer). The 20
min delay is the imaging sequence that should give you a homogenous bright liver (dark holes
are things that don’t contain normal liver cells / couldn’t drink the contrast). The problem is that
it’s pretty non-specific with a handful of benign things still taking it up (classical example is
FNH), and at least one bad thing taking it up (well-differentiated HCC). Plus, a handful of
benign things won’t take it up (cysts, etc..). There are at least three good reasons to use this
kind of agent: (1) it’s great for proving an FNH is an FNH - as most lesions won’t hold onto the
Gd at 20 mins, (2) it’s great for looking for bile leaks, and (3) once you’ve established a
baseline MRI (characterized all those benign lesions) it’s excellent for picking up new mets
(findings black holes on a white background is easy).

Eovist

227
Q

Is Eovist a pure Hepatocyte Specific Agent

A

Nope - It also acts like a non-specific extracellular agent early on (although less intense). About 55% is excreted into the bile - and gives a nice intense look at 20 mins.

228
Q

What about Gd-BOPTA (Multihance)

A

This is mostly an extra-cellular agent, but has a small amount (5%) of biliary excretion. The implication is that you can use Multihance to look for a bile leak you just have to wait longer (45mins-3 hours) for the Gd to accumulate.

229
Q

What about Manganese instead o f Gd

A

This is the old school way to do biliary imaging. It works the same as Gd - by causing T1 shortening.

230
Q

Luver Hemangioma

A

This is the most common benign liver neoplasm. Favors women 5:1. They may enlarge with pregnancy. On US will be bright (unless it’s in a fatty liver, than can be relatively dark). On US, flow can be seen in vessels adjacent to the lesion but NOT in the lesion. On CT and MR1 tends to match the aorta in signal and have “peripheral nodular
discontinuous enhancement”. Should totally fill in by 15 mins. Atypical hemangioma can have the “reverse target sign.”

231
Q

Liver Hemangioma

Trivia

A

A hemangioma can change its sonographic appearance during the course of a single examination. No other hepatic lesion is known to do this.

232
Q

Hemangioma ultrasound pearls

A

Need to core for biopsy, FNA does not get enough tissue (only blood)

Hyperechoic (65%)

Enhanced thru transmission is common

NO Doppler flow inside the lesion itself

Atypical appearance - hyperechoic periphery, with hypoechoic center (reverse target)

Calcifications are extremely rare

233
Q

FNH

A

This is the second most common benign liver neoplasm. Believed to start in utero as an AVM. It is NOT related to OCP use. It is composed of normal hepatocytes, abnormally arranged ducts, and Kupffer cells (reticuloendothelial cells). May show spoke wheel on US Doppler. On CT, should be“homogenous” on arterial phase. Can have a central scar. Scar will demonstrate delayed enhancement (like scars do).

Sulfur Colloid is always the multiple choice test question (reality is that it’s only hot 30-40%). Unlike hepatic adenomas, they are not related to the use of birth control pills, although as a point of confusing trivia and possibly poor multiple choice test question writing, birth control pills may promote their growth.

234
Q

Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH):

Trivia

A

You have to hit the scar, otherwise path results will say normal hepatocytes.

235
Q

FNH stealth

A

a “Stealth” lesion on MRI - T1 and T2 isointense.

236
Q

Hepatic adenoma

A

Usually a solitary lesion seen in a female on OCPs. Alternatively could be seen in a man on anabolic steroids. When it’s multiple you should think about glycogen storage disease (von Gierke) or liver adenomatosis. No imaging methods can reliably differentiate hepatic adenoma from hepatocellular carcinoma. Rarely, they may degenerate into HCC after a long period of stability. They often regress after OCPs are stopped. Their propensity to bleed sometimes makes them a surgical lesion if they won’t regress.

237
Q

Hepatic adenoma

gamesmanship

A

Signal Drop Out with in and out of phase can be used to show fat

238
Q

Hepatic adenoma

Trivia

A

Q: Most common location for hepatic adenoma (75%)
A: Right Lobe liver

239
Q

Hepatic adenoma

management

A

You stop the OCPs and re-image, they should get smaller. Smaller than 5cm, watch them. Larger than 5cm they often resect because (1) they can bleed and (2) they can rarely turn into cancer.

240
Q

HCC

A

Occurs typically in the setting of cirrhosis and chronic liver disease; Hep B, Hep C, hemochromatosis, glycogen storage disease, Alpha 1 antitrypsin. AFP elevated in 80-95%. Will often invade the portal vein, although invasion of the hepatic vein is considered a more “specific finding.’’

241
Q

HCC

Doubling time

A

the classic Multiple Choice Question. This is actually incredibly stupid to ask because there arc 3 described patterns of growth (slow, fast, and medium). To make it an even worse question, different papers say different stuff. Some say: Short is 150 days, Medium to 150-300, and Long is >300. I guess the answer is 300 - because it’s in the middle. Others define medium at around 100 days. A paper in Radiology {May 2008 Radiology, 247, 311-330) says 18-605 days. The real answer would be to say follow up in 3-4.5 months.

242
Q

HCC

Other random trivia

A

HCCs like to explode and cause spontaneous hepatic bleeds.

243
Q

this vs that

FNH vs Fibrolamellar HCC

A

FNH FL HCC
T2 Bright T2 Dark (usually)
Enhances on Delays Does NOT enhance
Mass is Sulfur Colloid Avid (sometimes)
Mass is Gallium Avid

244
Q

this vs that

HCC vs FL HCC

A
HCC                    FL HCC
Cirrhosis               No Cirrhosis
Older (50s-60s)     Young (30s)
Rarely Calcifies        Calcifies Sometimes
Elevated AFP            Normal AFP
245
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

overview

A

Where HCC is a cancer of the hepatocyte, cholangiocarcinoma is a cancer of the bile duct. Cholangiocarcinoma believes in nothing Lebowski. It fucks you up, it takes the money (prognosis is poor).

246
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

gamesmanship

A

Gamesmanship - They could tell you the dude has ulcerative colitis, as a way to infer that he also has PSC.

247
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

buzzword

A

“Painless Jaundice.” (just like pancreatic head CA)

248
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

who gets it

A

The most classic multiple choice scenario would be an 80 year old man, with primary sclerosing cholangitis - PSC (main risk factor in the West), recurrent pyogenic “oriental” cholangitis (main risk factor in the
East), Caroli Disease, Hepatitis, HIV, history of cholangitis, and fucking Liver Worms (Clonorchis). Oh who also had a semi-voluntary cerebral angiogram
performed by a Nazi with a cleft asshole (in 1930s Germany, Thorotrast was the preferred angiographic contrast agent).

249
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

what does ti look like

A

It is variable and the described subtypes overlap. The easiest way to conceptualize this thing is as a scar generating cancer. Fibrosis (scar) is the main thing you are seeing - either primarily as a mass that enhances on delayed imaging (just like scar in the heart), or secondarily through the desmoplastic pulling of the scar (example capsular retraction and ductal dilation). The dilation of ducts is most likely to be shown as unilateral and
peripheral, although if the lesion is central the entire system can obstruct.

250
Q

cCholangiocarcinoma

classic features

A

Delayed Enhancement
Peripheral Biliary Dilation
Liver Capsular Retraction
NO tumor capsule

251
Q

Klatskin tumor

A

Cholangiocarcinoma that occurs at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts. It’s usually small but still causes biliary obstruction (“shouldering / abrupt tapering” on MRCP). These things are mean as cat shit. It is a “named” subtype, so that increases the likelihood of it showing up on a multiple choice exam.

252
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma

staging pearls

A
  • Proximal extent of involvement is a key factor for surgical candidacy (more = bad).
  • Atrophy of a lobe implies biliary +/- vascular involvement o f that lobe (imaging often underestimates disease burden).
  • Typically combinations of bilateral involvement (veins on the right, ducts on the left - vice versa, etc.. etc… etc… ) is bad news.
253
Q

this vs that

Cholangiocarcinoma vs hcc

A

HCC = Invades the Portal Vein
Cholangiocarcinoma = Encases the
Portal Vein

254
Q

ABD tumor markers

A

-Cholangio: CEA and Ca19-9 elevated
Pancreatic Ca19-9 elevated
Colon CA: CEA elevated

255
Q

Hepatic Angiosarcoma

A

This used to be the go to for thorotrast questions. Even though everyone who got thorotrast died 30 years ago, a few dinosaurs writing multiple choice test questions still might ask it. Hepatic Angiosarcoma is very rare, although technically the most common primary sarcoma o f the liver. It is associated with toxic exposure - arsenic use (latent period is about 25years), Polyvinyl chloride exposure, Radiation, and yes… thorotrast.

256
Q

Hepatic angiosarcoma addt trivia

A

Can see in hemochromatosis and NF patients

257
Q

biliary cystadenoma

A

Uncommon benign cystic neoplasm o f the liver. Usually seen in middle aged women. Can sometimes present with pain, or even jaundice. They can be unilocular or multilocular and there are no reliable methods for distinguishing from biliary cystadenocarcinoma (which is unfortunate).

258
Q

Mets to the Liver

A

If you see rnets in the liver, first think colon. Calcified mets are
usually the result o f a mucinous neoplasm (colon, ovary, pancreas).

259
Q

Mets to the Liver

US

A

Hyperechoic mets are often hypervascular (renal, melanoma, carcinoid, choriocarcinoma, thyroid, islet cell). Hypoechoic mets are often hypovascular (colon, lung, pancreas).

260
Q

Mets to the Liver

too small to characterize

A

even in the setting of breast cancer (with no definite hepatic mets) tiny hypodensities have famously been shown to be benign 90-95% o f the time.

261
Q

Liver lymphoma

A

Hodgkins lymphoma involves the liver 60% o f the time (Non Hodgkins is around 50%), and may be hypoechoic.

262
Q

Kaposi sarcoma liver

A

Seen in patients with AIDS. Causes diffuse periportal hypoechoic infiltration. Looks similar to biliary duct dilation.

263
Q

Hemangioma

Ultrasound

A
Hyperechoic
with
increased
through
transmission
264
Q

Hemangioma

CT

A

Peripheral
Nodular
Discontinuous

265
Q

Hemangioma

MR

A

T2 Bright

266
Q

Hemangioma

Trivia 1

A

Rare in

Cirrhotics

267
Q

Hemangioma

Trivia 2

A
Kasabach-
Merritt; the
sequestration
of platelets
from giant
cavernous
hemangioma
268
Q

FNH

Ultrasound

A

Spoke

Wheel

269
Q

FNH

CT

A

Homogenous
Arterial
Enhancement

270
Q

FNH

MR

A

“Stealth
Lesion -
Iso on T1
and T2”

271
Q

FNH

Trivia 1

A

Central

Scar

272
Q

FNH

Trivia 2

A

Bright on
Delayed
Eovist
(Gd-EOBDTPA)

273
Q

Hepatic Adenoma

Ultrasound

A

Variable

274
Q

Hepatic Adenoma

CT

A

Variable

275
Q

Hepatic Adenoma

MR

A

Fat
Containing
on In/Out
Phase```

276
Q

Hepatic Adenoma

Trivia 1

A

OCP use,
Glycogen
Storage
Disease

277
Q

Hepatic Adenoma

Trivia 2

A

Can
explode
and bleed

278
Q

Hepatic angiomyolipoma

Ultrasound

A

Hyperechoic

279
Q

Hepatic angiomyolipoma

CT

A

gross fat

280
Q

Hepatic angiomyolipoma

MR

A

t1 and t2 bright

281
Q

Hepatic angiomyolipoma

Trivia 1

A
Unlike
renal
AML, 50%
don’t have
fat
282
Q

Hepatic angiomyolipoma

Trivia 2

A

Tuberous sclerosis

283
Q

Congenital liver

cystic kidney disease

A

Patient’s with AD polycystic kidney disease will also have cysts in the liver. This is in contrast to the AR form in which the liver tends to have fibrosis.

284
Q

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu)

A

Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple AVMs in the liver and lungs. It leads to cirrhosis and a massively dilated hepatic artery.

285
Q

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu)

trivia

A

The lung AVMs set you up for brain abscess.

286
Q

Liver infections where?

A

Most common in the right hepatic lobe bc of the longer R port vein

287
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

viral hepatitis

A

starry sky (US)

288
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

pyogenic abscess

A

double target (CT)

289
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

Candida

A

Bulls eye (US)

290
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

amoebic abscess

A

Extra hepatic extension

291
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

Hydatid diesease

A

Water lily Ct sand storm US?

292
Q

Liver infection buzzwords

Schistosomiasis

A

tortois shell

293
Q

Liver infections

Viral

A

Hepatitis which is chronic in B and C, and acute with the rest. A point of trivia is that HCC in the setting of hepatitis can occur in the acute form of Hep B (as well as chronic). Obviously, chronic hep C
increases risk for HCC. On ultrasound the “starry sky” appearance can be seen. Although, this is non-specific and basically just the result of liver edema making the fat surrounding the portal triads look brighter than normal.

294
Q

Liver infections

Pyogenic overview

A

These can mimic cysts. For the purpose of multiple choice, a single abscess is Klebsiella, and multiple are E. Coli. The presence of gas is highly suggestive of pyogenic abscess.

295
Q

Liver infections

double targert

pyogenic

A

sign with central low density, rim enhancement, surrounded by more low density is the classic sign of a liver abscess on CT.

296
Q

Liver infections

next step amebic abscess

A

A special situation (potentially testable) is the amebic abscess in the left lobe. Those needs to be emergently drained (they can rupture into the pericardium).

297
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

Overview

A

This syndrome is seen exclusively in women of questionable moral standard (“free spirits”). It manifests on multiple choice exams in the setting of known pelvic inflammatory disease (Gonococcal salpingitis and/or Chlamydia infection), with right upper quadrant pain

298
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

imaging

A

The classic imaging features are enhancement of the anterior liver capsule, perihepatic ascites, and peritoneal septations. They could show you a tubo-ovarian abscess in the pelvis to cue you in on the excessively promiscuous behaviors this young lady has been engaging in.

299
Q

Fatty liver

overview

A

Very common in America. Can be focal (next to gallbladder or ligamentum teres), can be diffuse, or can be diffuse with sparing. You can call it a few different ways.

300
Q

Fatty liver

CT

A

If it’s a non-contrast study, 40 HU is a slam dunk. If it’s contrasted, some people say you can NEVER call it. Others say it’s ok if (a) it’s a good portal venous phase (b) the HU is less than 100, and (c) it’s 25 H.U. less than the spleen.

301
Q

Fatty liver

US

A

If the liver is brighter than the right kidney you can call it. Hepatosteatosis is a fat liver. NASH (hepatitis from a fat liver) has abnormal LFTs.

302
Q

Fatty liver

MRI

A

Two standard deviation difference between in and out of phase imaging. Remember the drop out is on the out of phase images (india ink ones - done at T.E 2.2 ms - assuming 1.5T).

303
Q

Fatty liver

Stuffery

A

This signal drop out assumes there is more water than fat in the liver. As such, the degree of signal loss is maximum when the fat infiltration is 50% (exactly 1:1 signal loss). When the percentage of fat grows larger than 50% you will actually see a less significant signal loss on out of phase imaging, relative to that maximum 50%.

304
Q

Fatty liver

What causes it

A

McDonalds, Burger King, and Taco Bell. Additional causes include chemotherapy (breast cancer), steroids, cystic fibrosis.

305
Q

Hemochromatosis

overview

A

Iron overload. They can show this two main ways:

(1) The first is just liver and spleen being T 1 and T2 dark.
(2) The second (and more likely) way this will be shown is in and out of phase changes the opposite of those seen in hepatic steatosis. Low signal on in phase, and high signal on out of phase (“Iron on In-phase”)

306
Q

Hemochromatosis innout

A

Watch out now — this is the opposite of the fat drop out

  • *FAT - Drop out on OUT of phase (india ink one - T.E. 2.2 ms) - 1.5 T
  • *IRON - Drop out on IN phase (non india ink one - T.E. 4.4 ms) - 1.5 T
307
Q

Hemochromatosis

primary

A

the inherited type, caused by more GI uptake, with resulting iron overload. The key point is the pancreas is involved and the spleen is spared.

308
Q

Hemochromatosis

secondary

A

the result of either chronic inflammation or multiple transfusions. The body reacts by trying the “Eat the Iron,” with the reticuloendothelial system. The key point is the pancreas is spared and the spleen is not.

309
Q

This vs that

hemochromatosis primary vs secondary

A

Primary Secondary
genetic elev absorption acquired trans
liver and panc liver and spleen
heart, thyroid, pituitary

310
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome overview

A

Classic multiple choice scenario is a pregnant woman, but can occur in any situation where you are hypercoagulable (most common cause is idiopathic). The
result of hepatic vein thrombosis.

311
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome

imaging findings

A

The characteristic findings of Budd-Chiari syndrome include hepatic venous outflow obstruction, intrahepatic and systemic collateral veins, and large regenerative (hyperplastic)
nodules in a dysmorphic liver. The caudate lobe is often massively enlarged (spared from separate drainage into the IVC). In the acute phase, the liver will show the classic “flip-flop pattern ’’ on portal phase with low attenuation centrally, and high peripherally. The liver has been described as “nutmeg” with an inhomogeneous mottled appearance, and delayed enhancement of the periphery of the liver.

312
Q

who gets a nutmeg liver

A
  • Budd Chiari
  • Hepatic Veno-occlusive disease
  • Right Heart Failure (Hepatic Congestion)
  • Constrictive Pericarditis
313
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome

arterial

A

Central Enhancement

Peripheral Minimal

314
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome

portal v

A

Central Washout

Peripheral Enhancement

315
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome

renerative nodules

A

Regenerative (hyperplastic) nodules can be difficult to distinguish from multifocal hepatocellular carcinoma. They are bright on T1 and typically dark or iso on T2. Multiple big (>10cm) and small (<4cm) nodules in the setting of Budd-Chiari suggest a benign process. T2 dark also helps (HCC is usually T2 bright).

316
Q

Budd Chiari Syndrome presentation

A

Presentation can be acute or chronic. Acute from thrombus into the hepatic vein or IVC. These guys will present with rapid onset ascites. Chronic from fibrosis of the intrahepatic veins, presumably from inflammation.

317
Q

who gets massive caudate lobe hypertrophy

A
  • Budd Chiari
  • Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
  • Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
318
Q

Hepatic Veno-occlusive Disease

A

This is a form of Budd Chiari that occurs from occlusion of the small hepatic venules. It is endemic in Jamaica (from Alkaloid bush tea). In the US it’s typically the result of XRT and chemotherapy. The main hepatic veins and IVC will be patent, but portal waveforms will be abnormal (slow, reversed, or to-and fro).

319
Q

Passive Congestion

overview

A

Passive hepatic congestion is caused by stasis of blood within the liver due to compromise o f hepatic drainage. It is a common complication of congestive heart failure and constrictive pericarditis. It is essentially the result o f elevated CVP transmitted from the right atrium to the hepatic veins.

320
Q

Passive Congestion:

Findings

A

Refluxed contrast into the hepatic veins
Increased portal venous pulsatility
Nutmeg liver

321
Q

Portal Vein Thrombosis

A

Occurs in hypercoaguable states (cancer, dehydration,e tc .. .)• Can lead to cavernous transformation, with the development of a bunch of serpiginous vessels in the porta hepatis which may reconstitute the right and left portal
veins. This takes like 12 months to happen (it proves portal vein is chronically occluded).

322
Q

Pseudo Cirrhosis

A

Treated breast cancer mets to the liver can cause contour changes that mimic cirrhosis. Specifically, multifocal liver retraction and enlargement o f the caudate has been described. Why this is specific for breast cancer is not currently known, as other mets to the liver don’t produce this reaction.

323
Q

Cryptogenic Cirrhosis

A

Essentially cirrhosis o f unknown cause. Most o f these cases are probably the result of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.

324
Q

Liver transplant

overview

A

The liver has great ability to regenerate and may double in size in as little as 3 weeks, making it ideal for partial donation. Hepatitis C is the most common disease requiring transplantation (followed by EtOH liver disease and cryptogenic cirrhosis). In adults, right lobes (segments 5-8) are most commonly implants. This is the opposite o f pediatric transplants, which usually donates segments 2-3. The modem surgery has four connections (IVC, artery, portal vein, CBD).

325
Q

Liver transplant

contraindications

A

Contraindications include, extrahepatic malignancy, advanced cardiac disease, advanced pulmonary disease, or active substance abuse. Portal HTN is NOT a true contraindication although it does increase the difficulty o f the surgery and increase mortality.

326
Q

Liver transplant

normal us

A

Normal Doppler should have a RAPID systolic upstroke
* Diastolic -> Systolic in less than 80msec (0.08 seconds)
Resistive Index is Normally between 0.5 - 0.7
Hepatic Artery Peak Velocity should be < 200 cm/sec

327
Q

Liver transplant

syndrome of impending thrombus

A
3-10 days post transplant
(1st) Initial Normal Waveform
(2nd) No diastolic flow
(3rd) Dampening Systolic flow
Tardus Parvus
R1 < 0.5
(4th) Loss o f Hepatic Waveform
328
Q

Liver transplant

vessels

A

As mentioned before, the normal liver gets 70% blood flow from the portal vein, making it the key player. In the transplanted liver, the hepatic artery is the king and is the primary source of blood flow for the bile ducts (which undergo necrosis with hepatic artery failure). Hepatic artery thrombosis comes in two flavors: early (< 15 days), and later (years). The late form is associated with chronic rejection and sepsis

329
Q

Liver transplant

trivia

A

Tardus Parvus is more likely secondary to stenosis than thrombosis

330
Q

Portal venous gaus vs pneumobilia

A

These are the two patterns of branching air in the liver. The classic way to distinguish between the two is Central (Pneumobilia) vs Peripheral (PVG). The way to remember this is that bile is draining out of the liver into the bowel - so it is flowing towards the porta-hepatis and should be central. Portal blood, on the other hand, is being pumped into the liver - so it will be traveling towards the periphery. The potential trivia question is
how peripheral is peripheral — and that is 2cm. Within 2cm of the liver capsule = portal venous gas. Other things to remember - gas in the bile is usually related to a prior procedure (anything that fucks with the sphincter of Oddi). Gas in the portal system can be from lots of stuff (benign things like COPD or bad things - the most classic being bowel necrosis -look for pneumatosis*).

331
Q

Jaundice

A

You always think about common duct stone, but the most common etiology is actually from a benign stricture (post traumatic from surgery or biliary intervention).

332
Q

Bacterial Cholangitis

A

Hepatic abscess can develop secondary to cholangitis, usually as the result of stasis (so think stones). The triad of jaundice, fever, and right upper quadrant pain is the step 1 question.

333
Q

PSC overview

A

Chronic cholestatic liver disease of unknown etiology characterized by progressive inflammation which leads to multifocal strictures of the intra and /or
extrahepatic bile ducts. The disease often results in cirrhosis, and is strongly associated with cholangiocarcinoma. The buzzword for the cirrhotic pattern is “central regenerative hypertrophy”. It is associated with inflammatory bowel disease (Ulcerative Colitis 80%, Crohn’s 20%). It is an indication for transplant, with a post transplant recurrence of about 20%.

334
Q

PSC Buzzwords

A

‘“Withered Tree” - The appearance on MRCP, from abrupt narrowing of the branches
‘“Beaded Appearance” - Strictures + Focal Dilations

335
Q

Dilated intrahepatic bile ducts are very rare in all forms of cirrhosis except

A

PSC

336
Q

AIDS Cholangiopathy

A

Infection of the biliary epithelium (classically Cryptosporidium) can cause ductal disease in patients with AIDS. The appearance mimics PSC with intrahepatic and/or extrahepatic multifocal strictures.

The classic association/finding is papillary stenosis (which occurs 60% of the time).

337
Q

This vs that

AIDS cholangioapathy

A

Focal Strictures of the extrahepatic duct > 2cm

Absent saccular deformities o f the ducts

Associated Papillary Stenosis

338
Q

This vs that

PSC

A

Extrahepatic strictures rarely > 5mm

Has saccular deformities o f the ducts

339
Q

Oriental Cholangitis

overview

A

Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis): Common in Southeast Asia (hence the culturally insensitive name). They always show it as dilated ducts that are full of pigmented stones.

340
Q

Oriental Cholangitis

buzzword

A

“straight rigid intrahepatic ducts.”

341
Q

Oriental Cholangitis location

cuase

A

The cause o f the disease is not known, but it may be associated with clonorchiasis, ascariasis, and nutritional
deficiency. These guys don’t do as well with endoscopic decompression and often need surgical decompression.

Remember this is a major risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma in the East.

342
Q

Oriental Cholangitis location

A

The anatomically longer, flatter left biliary system

tends to make the disease burden left dominant (the opposite o f hematogenous processes which favor the right lobe).

343
Q

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

A

An autoimmune disease that results in the destruction of small & medium bile ducts (intra not extra). It primarily affects middle-aged women, who are often asymptomatic. In the early disease, normal bile ducts help distinguish it from PSC. In later stages, there is irregular dilation o f the intrahepatic ducts, with normal extrahepatic ducts. There is increased risk of HCC. If caught early it has an excellent prognosis and responds to medical therapy with ursodeoxycholic acid. The step 1 trivia is “antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)” which are present 95% o f the time.

344
Q

Long Common Channel

A

An anatomic variant in which the common bile and pancreatic duct fuse prematurely at the level o f the pancreatic head (prior to the sphincter o f Oddi complex).

The testable consequence is the increased incidence o f pancreatitis - as reflux o f enzymes is more common.

There is also an association with Type 1 choledochocysts.

345
Q

Choledocchal cysts

types

A

type 1 is focal dilation o f the CBD
Type 2 and 3 are super rare. Type 2 is
basically a diverticulum o f the bile duct.
Type 3 is a “choledochocele.”
Type 4 is both intra and extra.
Type 5 is Caroli’s, and is intrahepatic only

346
Q

Choledocchal cysts

high yield trivia

A

type 1 is focal dilation o f the CBD and is by fa r the most common.

347
Q

Carolis overview

A

AR disease associated with polycystic kidney disease and medullary sponse kidney. The hallmark is intrahepatic duct dilation, that is large and saccular. Buzzword is “central dot sign” which
corresponds to the portal vein surrounded by dilated bile ducts

348
Q

Carolis

compications

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

  • Cirrhosis
  • Cholangitis
  • Intraductal Stones
349
Q

Carolis gamesmanship

A

If they give you imaging o f dilated biliary ducts and a history of repeated cholangitis, think choledocal cyst. These things get stones in them and can be recurrently infected.

350
Q

Ductal High Yield Summary

Carolis

A

-Communicates with the ducts
-Type 5 Cyst
-Central Dot Sign (on CT, MR, US)
-Associated with Polycystic Kidney,
Medullary Sponge Kidney
Cholangiocarcinoma

351
Q

Ductal High Yield Summary

PSC

A

-40 year old Male with U.C.
-Withering Tree
-Beading
-Mild Dilation
-Strongly Associated with Ulcerative
Colitis & Cholangiocarcinoma

352
Q

Ductal High Yield Summary

Oriental cholangioheatitis (recurrent pyogenic)

A
-Associations with clonorchiasis,
ascariasis
-Lots of Stones
-Favors the left ductal system
- Strongly Associated with
Cholangiocarcinoma
353
Q

Ductal High Yield Summary

AIDS cholangiopathy

A
-Related to Cryptosporidium or
cytomegalovirus.
-Segmental Strictures (looks like PSC)
-Ducts look like PSC + Papillary
Stenosis
- Associated with Cholangiocarcinoma
354
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma VS B9 Strictures

A

CA Strictures tends to be long, with “shouldering.’

B9 strictures tend to be abrupt and short.

355
Q

Duct path association

A

If you can’t remember what
the association is, and it’s
ductal pathology, always
guess Cholangiocarcinoma.``

356
Q

Normal Gallbladder

A

The normal gallbladder is found inferior to the interlobar fissure between the right and left lobe. The size varies depending on the last meal, but is supposed to be < 4 x < 10cm. The
wall thickness should be < 3mm. The lumen should be anechoic.

357
Q

Gallbladder

phyrgian cap

A

A phrygian cap is seen when the GB folds on itself. It means nothing.

358
Q

Gallbladder

intrahepatic gallbladder

A

Variations in gallbladder location are rare, but the intrahepatic gallbladder is probably the most frequently recognized variant. Most are found right above the interlobar fissure.

359
Q

Gallbladder

duplicated

A

it can happen

360
Q

Gallbladder duct of luschka

A

An accessory cystic duct. This can cause a big problem (persistent bile leak) after cholecystectomy. There are several subtypes which is not likely to be tested.

361
Q

GB Wall Thickening (> 3mm):

A

Very non-specific. Can occur from biliary (Cholecystitis, AIDS, PSC…) or non-biliary causes (hepatitis, heart failure, cirrhosis, etc….).

362
Q

Gallstones

A

Gallstones are found in 10% o f asymptomatic patients/ Most (75%) are cholesterol, the other 25% are pigmented. They cast shadows.

363
Q

Reasons a gallstone might not cast a shadow

A
  • It’s not a stone
  • It’s a stone, but < 3mm in size
  • The sonographer is an amateur (Bush league psyche-out stuff. Laughable, man)
364
Q

Gallbladder shadowing

A

(1) Gallbladder full of stones
* Clean shadowing.
(2) Porcelain Gallbladder
* Variable shadowing
(3) Emphysematous Cholecystitis
* Dirty shadowing.

365
Q

Mirrizzi syndrome

A

This occurs when the common hepatic duct is obstructed secondary to an impacted cystic duct stone. The stone can eventually erode into the CHD or GI tract.

366
Q

Mirrizzi syndrome

key point

A

increased co-incidence o f gallbladder CA (5x more risk) with Mirizzi.

367
Q

Mirrizzi syndrome

trivia

A

Mirizzi occurs more in people with a low cystic duct insertion (normal variant), allowing for a more parallel course and closer proximity to the CHD.

368
Q

Clinically Meaningless THIS vs THAT:
Gallbladder Adenomyomatosis VS Cholesterolosis

overview

A

Nothing makes an Academic Radiologist happier than spending time deploying intense focused concentration targeted at distinguishing between two very similar appearing completely benign (often incidental) processes. They believe this “adds value” and will save them from the eventual avalanche of reimbursement cuts with subsequent AI
takeover.

369
Q

Clinically Meaningless THIS vs THAT:
Gallbladder Adenomyomatosis VS Cholesterolosis

classic example

A

Adenomyomatosis vs Gallbladder Cholesterolosis. These things are actually different - and even though it makes zero difference clinically, this is just the kind of thing people who write questions love to write questions about.

370
Q

Clinically Meaningless THIS vs THAT:
Gallbladder Adenomyomatosis VS Cholesterolosis

adenomyomatosis

A

You have hypertrophied mucosa and muscularis propria, with the cholesterol crystals deposited in an intraluminal location (within Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses).

371
Q

Clinically Meaningless THIS vs THAT:
Gallbladder Adenomyomatosis VS Cholesterolosis

cholesterolosis

A

Cholesterol and triglyceride deposition is within the substance of the lamina propria, and associated with formation o f cholesterol polyps.

372
Q

Adenomyomatosis

imaging

A

manifest from the unique acoustic signature as comet-tail artifact (highly specific for adenomyomatosis).

373
Q

Adenomyomatosis

3 types

A

Generalized (diffuse), Segmental (annular), and Fundal (localized or adenomyoma). The Localized form can’t be differentiated from GB cancer.

374
Q

Adenomyomatosis

gamesmanship

A

Don’t be tricked into selecting “Adenomyosis” as a distractor. That shit is in the uterus. Remember the larger word is in the smaller organ. Or, you can think about the two Ms in MyoMat - turned inward sorta looks like a gallbladder.

375
Q

Porcelain gallbladder

A
  • Extensive wall calcification.
  • The key point is increased risk o f GB Cancer.
  • These are surgically removed.
376
Q

Gallbladder polyps benign

A

< 5mm
* these are nearly always cholesterol polyps
Pedunculated
Multiple
Comet Tail Artifact on Ultrasound (seen in cholesterol polyps)

377
Q

Gallbladder polyps malignat

A

> 1cm
*between 5mm-10mm usually get followed for growth
Sessile
Solitary
Enhancement on CT/MRI greater than the adjacent gallbladder wall. Flow on Doppler.

378
Q

Gallbladder polyps overview

A

These can be cholesterol (by far the most common), or non cholesterol (adenomas, papillomas). Cholesterol polpys aren’t real polyps, but instead are essentially enlarged papillary fronds full o f lipid filled macrophages, that are attached to the wall by a stalk.

The non-cholesterol subtypes are almost always solitary and are typically larger. The larger polyps may have Doppler flow. They are NOT mobile and do NOT shadow. Once they get to be 1 cm, people start taking them out.

379
Q

Gallbladder cancer classic vignette

A

elderly women with nonspecific RUQ pain, weight loss, anorexia and a long standing history o f gallstones, PSC, or large gallbladder polyps.

380
Q

Gallbladder cancer risk factors

A
  • Mirizzi syndrome has a well described increased risk o f GB cancer
  • Other risk factors include smoldering inflammatory processes (PSC, Chronic Cholecystitis, Porcelain Gallbladder), and large polyps (“large” = bigger than 1cm)
381
Q

Gallbladder cancer presentation

A

Unless the cancer is in the fundus (which can cause biliary obstruction) they often present late and have horrible outcomes with 80% found with direct tumor invasion o f the liver or portal nodes at the time of diagnosis.

382
Q

Duplex

A

means color

383
Q

spectral

A

means color with a waveform

384
Q

Concept of arterial resistance

A

Some organs require continuous flow (brain), whereas others do not (muscles). The body is
smart enough to understand this, and will make alterations in resistance / flow to preserve energy.
When an organ needs to be “on,” its arteriolar bed dilates, and the waveform becomes low
resistance. This allows the organ to be appropriately perfused. When an organ goes to “power
save” mode, its arterioles constrict, the waveform switches to high resistance, and blood flow is
diverted to other more vital organs.

385
Q

Continuous diastolic flow

A

low resistance

386
Q

RI

A

To help quantify this low resistance high
resistance thing, we use this “Resistive
Index (RI)” - which is defined as V1-V2 /
VI.

RI = PSV - EDV / PSV

387
Q

Tardus

A
Refers to a slowed systolic
upstroke. This can be measured by
acceleration time, the time from end
diastole to the first systolic peak. An
acceleration time > 0.07 sec correlates with
>50% stenosis of the renal artery
388
Q

parvus

A
Refers to decreased systolic
velocity. This can be measured by
calculating the acceleration index, the
change in velocity from end diastole to the
first systolic peak.
389
Q

Upstream

A

Blood that has NOT yet passed through the stenosis

390
Q

Downstream

A

Blood that has passed through the area o f stenosis

391
Q

Stenosis direct sign

A

The direct signs are those found at the stenosis itself and they include elevated
peak systolic velocity and spectral broadening (immediate post stenotic).

392
Q

Stenosis indirect sign

A

The indirect signs are going to be tardus parvus (downstream) - with time to
peak (systolic acceleration) > 70msec. The RI downstream will be low (< 0.5) because the
liver is starved for blood. The Rl upstream will be elevated (> 0.7) because that blood needs
to overcome the area o f stenosis.

393
Q

Hepatic vein flow

A

Flow in the hepatic veins is complex, with alternating forward and backward flow. The bulk
of the flow should be forward “antegrade” (liver -> heart). Things that mess with the
waveform are going to be pressure changes in the right heart which are transmitted to the
hepatic veins (CHF, Tricuspid Regurg) or compression o f the veins directly (cirrhosis).

Anything that increases right atrial
pressure (atrial contraction) will
cause the wave to slope upward.
“A” represents atrial contraction.

Anything that decreases right atrial
pressure will cause the wave to
slope downward.

394
Q

Abnormal Flepatic Vein
Waveforms can manifest in one o f three main
categories:

A

1) More Pulsatile
(2) Less Pulsatile
(3) Absent = Budd Chiari

395
Q

Tricuspid regurg vs right sided chf on hepatic vein us

A
  • Tricuspid Regurg - D deeper than S

* Right Heart Failure - S deeper than D

396
Q

Portal vein us

A

Flow in the portal vein should always be towards the liver (antegrade). You can see some
normal cardiac variability from hepatic venous pulsatility transmitted through the hepatic
sinusoids. Velocity in the normal portal vein is between 20-40 cm/s. The waveform should be a
gentle undulation , always remaining above the baseline.

397
Q

portal vein us patterns

A

(1) Normal
(2) Pulsatile
(3) Reversed

398
Q

Causes o f Portal Vein Pulsatility

A

Right-sided CHF, Tricuspid Regurg, Cirrhosis with Vascular

AP shunting.

399
Q

Causes o f Portal Vein Reversed ¥\ow

A

The big one is Portal HTN (any cause).

400
Q

Portal vein absent flow

A

This could be considered a fourth pattern. It’s seen in thrombosis, tumor invasion,
and stagnant flow from terrible portal HTN.

401
Q

Portal vein slow flow

A

Velocities less than 15 cm/s. Portal HTN is the most common cause. Additional
causes are grouped by location:

  • Pre - Portal Vein Thrombosis
  • Intra - Cirrhosis (any cause)
  • Post - Right-sided Heart Failure, Tricuspid Regurg, Budd-Chiari
402
Q

Liver doppler trivia

A

An ultra-common quiz question is to ask “what should the
Doppler angle be?” Now even though ultrasound physics
is covered in more detail in the dedicated section o f the War
Machine this is a high yield enough point to warrant
repetition. The answer is “less than 60. ”

Why? Doppler strength follows the cosine o f the angle. For
example, Cos 90 = 0, Cos 60 = 0.5, Cos 0 = 1.0 - the
doppler strength follows the Cos.

403
Q

Pancreas anatomy

A

The pancreas is a retroperitoneal structure (the tail may be intraperitoneal).

404
Q

Pancreas Classic US Trivia

A

The Pancreatic Echogenicity should be

GREATER than the normal liver.

405
Q

Pancrease CF

A

The pancreas is involved in 85-90% of CF patients. Inspissated secretions cause proximal duct obstruction leading to the two main changes in CF:

(1) Fibrosis (decreased T1 and T2 signal)
(2) Fatty replacement (increased T l) - the more common of the two

Patients with CF, who are diagnosed as adults, tend to have more pancreas problems than those diagnosed as children. Just remember that those with residual pancreatic exocrine function tend to have bouts of recurrent acute pancreatitis (they keep getting clogged up with thick secretions). Small (1-3 mm) pancreatic cysts are common.

406
Q

Pancreas high yield trivia

A

• Complete fa tty replacement is the most common imaging finding in adult CF
• Markedly enlarged with fatty replacement has been termed lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas.
*This is a buzzword.
• Fibrosing Colonopathy: Wall thickening of the proximal colon as a complication of enzyme replacement therapy.

407
Q

Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome

A

The 2nd most common cause of pancreatic insufficiency in kids (CF #1). Basically, it’s a kid with diarrhea, short stature (metaphyseal chondroplasia), and eczema. Will also cause lipomatous pseudohypertrophy o f the pancreas.

408
Q

Pancreatic lipomatosis

A

Most common pathologic condition involving the pancreas. The most common cause in childhood is CF (in adults it’s Burger King).

Additional causes worth knowing are Cushing Syndrome, Chronic Steroid Use, Hyperlipidemia, and Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome.

409
Q

Pancreatic agensis does not have a

A

duct

410
Q

Dorsal Pancreatic Agenesis

A

All you need to know is that (1) this sets you up for diabetes (most o f your beta cells are in the tail), and (2) it’s associated with polysplenia.

411
Q

Annular Pancreas

A

Essentially an embryologic screw up (failure o f ventral bud to rotate with the duodenum), that results in encasement o f the duodenum. Results in a rare cause o f duodenal obstruction (10%), that typically presents as duodenal obstruction in children and pancreatitis in adults. Can also be associated with other vague symptoms (postprandial fullness, “symptoms of peptic ulcer disease”, etc…).

412
Q

Annular pancreas adults vs kids

A

Remember in adults this can present with pancreatitis (the ones that present earlier - in kids - are the ones that obstruct).

413
Q

Annular pancreas imaging

A

look for an annular duct encircling the descending duodenum.

414
Q

Pancreatic Trauma

overview

A

The pancreas sits in front o f the vertebral body, so it’s susceptible to getting smashed in blunt trauma. Basically, the only thing that matters is integrity of the duct. If the duct is damaged, they need to go to the OR. The most common delayed complication is pancreatic fistula (10-20%), followed by abscess formation. Signs of injury can be subtle, and may include focal pancreatic enlargement or adjacent stranding/fluid.

415
Q

Pancreatic Trauma

imaging pearls

A

• Remember it can be subtle with just focal enlargement of the pancreas
• If you see low attenuation fluid separating two portions o f the enhancing pancreatic
parenchyma this is a laceration, NOT contusion.
• The presence o f fluid surrounding the pancreas is not specific, it could be from injury or
just aggressive hydration — on the test they will have to show you the liver and IVC to
prove it’s aggressive fluid resuscitation.

416
Q

Pancreatic trauma high yield

A

Traumatic Pancreatitis in a kid too young to ride a bike = NAT.

417
Q

Suspected pancreatic duct injury?

A

Next Step - MRCP or ERCP

418
Q

Acute pancreatitis

Etiology

A

By far the most common causes are gallstones and EtOH which combined makeup 80% o f the cases in the real world. However, for the purpose o f multiple choice tests, a bite from the native scorpion o f the island of Trinidad and Tobago is more likely to be the etiology. Additional causes include ERCP (which usually results in a mild course), medications (classically valproic acid), trauma (the most common cause in a child), pancreatic cancer, infectious (post viral in children), hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, autoimmune pancreatitis, pancreatic divisum, groove (para-duodenal) pancreatitis, tropic
pancreatitis, and parasite induced.

419
Q

Acute pancreatitis

clinical outcomes

A

Prognosis can be estimated with the “Balthazar Score.” Essentially, you can think about pancreatitis as “mild” (no necrosis) or “severe” (having necrosis). Patients with necrosis don’t start doing terrible until they get infected, then the mortality is like 50-70%

420
Q

Acute pancreatitis

key point

A

Outcomes are directly correlated with the degree o f pancreatic necrosis

421
Q

Acute pancreatitis

severe pancreatitis

A

Severe acute pancreatitis has a biphasic course. With the first two weeks being a proinflammatory phase. This is a sterile
response in which infection rarely occurs. The third and fourth weeks transition to an anti-inflammatory period in which the
risk of translocated intestinal flora and thesubsequent development o f infection
increases.

422
Q

Acute pancreatitis

words??

A

No necrosis < 4 week > acute peripancreatic fluid collection
No necrosis > 4 weeks > pseudocyst
Necrosis < 4 weeks > acute necrotic collection
Necrosis > 4 weeks > Walled off necrosis

423
Q

Acute pancreatitis

Vascular compications

A
  • Splenic Vein and Portal Vein Thrombosis
    O Isolated gastric varices can be seen secondary to splenic vein occlusion
  • Pseudo-aneurysm o f the GDA and Splenic Artery
424
Q

Acute pancreatitis

nonvascular compications

A
  • Abscess, Infection, etc… as discussed
  • Gas, as a characteristic sign of an infected fluid collection, is detected in only 20% of cases o f pancreatic abscesses.
425
Q

Acute pancreatitis

random imaging pearl

A

On Ultrasound, an inflamed pancreas will be hypoechoic (edematous) when compared to the liver (opposite o f normal).

426
Q

Pancreatic Divisum

anatomy

A

There are two ducts, a major (Wirsung), and a minor (Santorini). Under “normal” conditions the major duct will drain in the inferior of the two duodenal papilla (major papilla). The minor duct will drain into the superior of the two duodenal papilla (minor papilla). The way I remember this is that “Santorini drains Superior”, and “Santorini is Small,” i.e. the minor duct.

427
Q

Pancreatic Divisum

overview

A

Pancreatic Divisum is the most common anatomic variant of the human pancreas, and occurs when the main portion of the pancreas is drained by the minor or accessory papilla. The clinical relevance is an increased risk of pancreatitis.

428
Q

Chronic Pancreatitis

Overview

A

CP represents the end result o f prolonged inflammatory change leading to irreversible fibrosis of the gland. Acute pancreatitis and chronic pancreatitis are thought o f as different disease processes, and most cases of acute pancreatitis do not result in chronic disease. So, acute doesn’t have to lead to chronic (and usually doesn’t), but chronic can still have recurrent acute.

429
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

Etiology

A

Same as acute pancreatitis, the most common causes are chronic alcohol abuse and cholelithiasis which together result in about 90% of the cases. (EtOH is #1)

430
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

imaging findings

early

A
  • Loss o f T1 signal (pancreas is normally the brightest T1 structure in the body)
  • Delayed Enhancement
  • Dilated Side Branches
431
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

imaging findings late

A
  • Commonly small, uniformly atrophic - but can have focal enlargement
  • Pseudocyst formation (30%)
  • Dilation and beading of the pancreatic duct with calcifications
    • most characteristic finding o f CP.
432
Q

This vs that CP vs Cancer

CP

A

Dilatation is irregular

duct is <50% of the AP gland diameter

433
Q

This vs that CP vs Cancer

Cancer

A

Dilation is uniform

duct is >50% of the AP gland diameter

434
Q

Chronic pancreatitis complication

A

Pancreatic cancer (20 years o f CP = 6% risk o f Cancer) is the most crucial complication in CP and is the biggest diagnostic challenge because focal enlargement o f the gland induced by a fibrotic inflammatory pseudotumor may be indistinguishable from pancreatic carcinoma.

435
Q

Autoimmune pancreatitis

A

Associated with elevated IgG4

Absence of Attack Symptoms

Responds to steroids

Sausage Shaped Pancreas, capsule like delayed rim enhancement around gland (like a scar). No duct dilation. No calcifications.

436
Q

Groove pancreatitis

A

Looks like a pancreatic head
Cancer - but with little or no biliary obstruction.

Less likely to cause obstructive
jaundice (relative to pancreatic CA)

Duodenal stenosis and /or strictures of the CBD in 50% of the cases

Soft tissue within the pancreaticoduodenal groove, with or without delayed enhancement

437
Q

Tropic pancreatitis

A

Young Age at onset, associated with malnutrition

Increased risk of adenocarcinoma

Multiple large calculi within a dilated pancreatic duct

438
Q

Hereditary Pancreatitis

A

Young Age at Onset

Increased risk of adenocarcinoma

SPINK-1 gene

Similar to Tropic Pancreatitis

439
Q

Ascaris Induced

A

Most commonly implicated parasite in pancreatitis

Worm may be seen within the bile ducts

440
Q

1 Say Autoimmune Pancreatitis

A

you say IGG4

441
Q

I Say IgG4

A
Autoimmune Pancreatitis
Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
Sclerosing Cholangitis
Inflammatory Pseudotumor
Riedel’s Thyroiditis
442
Q

THIS vs THAT:

Autoimmune Pancreatitis vs Chronic Pancreatitis

A

Autoimmune Pancreatitis Chronic Pancreatitis
No ductal dilation Ductal Dilation
No calcifications Ductal Calcifications

443
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst

A

When you see a cystic lesion in the pancreas, by far the most common cause is going to be an inflammatory pseudocyst, either from acute pancreatitis or chronic pancreatitis.

444
Q

Pancreatic simple cyst

A

True epithelial lined cysts are rare, and tend to occur with syndromes such as VHL, Polycystic Kidney Disease, and Cystic Fibrosis.

445
Q

Pancreas serous cystadenoma

demographics

A

(Grandma). The former term “microcystic adenoma” helps me think o f a little old lady, which is appropriate for a lesion primarily found in elderly ladies. The lesion is benign

446
Q

Pancreas serous cystadenoma

imaging

A

classically described as a heterogeneous, mixed-density lesion made up o f multiple small cysts, which resembles a sponge. They are more commonly (70%) located in the pancreatic head (mucinous is almost always in the body or tail). An additional key distinction is that it does NOT communicate with the pancreatic duct (IPMNs do). About 20% of the time they will have the classic central scar, with or without central calcifications (mucinous calcifications are peripheral).

Rarely, they can be unilocular. When you see a unilocular cyst with a lobulated contour located in the head o f the pancreas, you should think about this more rare unilocular macrocystic serous cystadenoma subtype.

447
Q

Pancreas serous cystadenoma

trivia

A

Serous Cystadenoma is associated with Von Hippel Lindau

448
Q

Pancreas serous cystadenoma

Memory aid

A

“GRANDMA Serous is the HEAD o f the household”

449
Q

Pancreas mucinous cystic neoplasm

demographics

A

Mother. This pre-malignant lesion is “always” found in women, usually in their 50s. All are considered pre-malignant and need to come out.

450
Q

Pancreas mucinous cystic neoplasm

imaging

A

They are found in the body and tail (serous was more common in the head). There is generally no communication with the pancreatic duct (IPMNs will communicate). Peripheral calcifications are seen in about 25% o f cases (serous was more central). They are typically unilocular. When mutlilocular, individual cystic spaces tend to be larger than 2 cm in diameter (serous spaces are typically smaller than 2 cm).

451
Q

Pancreas mucinous cystic neoplasm

memory aid

A

Mucinous in the mother

452
Q

Solid Pseudopapillary Tumor of the Pancreas

Demographics

A

(Daughter): Very rare, low grade malignant tumor that occurs almost exclusively in young (30s) females (usually Asian or Black).

453
Q

Solid Pseudopapillary Tumor of the Pancreas

imaging findings

A

It is typically large at presentation, has a predilection for the tail, and has a “thick capsule.” Similar to a hemangioma it may demonstrate progressive fill-in o f the solid
portions.

454
Q

IPMN - intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm

Overview

A

These guys are mucin producing

tumors that arise from the duct epithelium. They can be either side branch, main branch, or both.

455
Q

IPMN - intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm

side branch

A

“The pulmonary nodule of the pancreas”

common and usually meaningless

typically appear as a small cystic mass, often in the head or uncinate process

if large amounts of mucin are produced it may result in main duct enlargement

lesions less than 3 cm are usually benign

456
Q

IPMN - intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm

main branch

A

produces diffuse dilation of the main duct

atrophy of the gland and dystrophic calcs may be seen (mimicking chronic pancreatitis

have a much higher%of malignancy compared to side branch

all main ducts are considered malignany and resection should be considered

457
Q

IPMN - intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm

Features concerning for malignancy

A

main duct >10mm (some sources say 1.5 cm)

enhancing nodules

solid hypovascular mass

458
Q

Main Branch IPMN summary

A
  • “The Bad One”

- Has malignant potential

459
Q

Solid Pseudopapillary summary

A
  • Daughter Lesion
  • Solid with Cystic parts, enhances like a hemangioma
  • Capsule
460
Q

Side Branch IPMN summary

A
  • “Common One”
  • Has much less malignant potential
  • Often in head /uncinate
  • Communicates with duct
461
Q

Serous cystic summary

A
  • Grandma Lesion
  • Benign
  • Microcystic, with central calcifications
462
Q

Mucinous cystic summary

A
  • Mother Lesion
  • Premalignant
  • Body / Tail - 95%
  • Unilocular with thick wall septations
463
Q

Solid Pancreatic lesions

overview

A

Pancreatic Cancer basically comes in two flavors. (1) Ductal Adenocarcinoma - which is hypovascular and (2) Islet Cell / Neuroendocrine which is hypervascular.

464
Q

Ductal Adenocarcinoma

overview

A

In the setting of a multiple choice test, the finding o f an enlarged gallbladder with painless jaundice is highly suspicious for pancreatic adenocarcinoma, especially when combined with migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome). The peak incidence is in the 7th or 8th decade. The strongest risk factor is smoking.

465
Q

Ductal Adenocarcinoma

imaging findings

A

Approximately two-thirds o f these cancers arise from the pancreatic head. On ultrasound, obstruction o f both the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct is referred to as the “double duct sign”. On CT, the findings are typically a hypo-enhancing mass which is poorly demarcated and low attenuation compared to the more brightly enhancing background parenchyma. The optimal timing is on a pancreatic phase (40 seconds).

466
Q

Ductal Adenocarcinoma

staging

A

The key to staging is assessment o f the SMA and celiac axis, which if involved make the patient’s cancer unresectable. Involvement o f the GDA is ok, because it comes out with the Whipple.

467
Q

Ductal Adenocarcinoma

trivia

A
• Tumor Marker = CA 19-9
# Hereditary Syndromes with Pancreatic CA:
O HNPCC, BRCA Mutation, Ataxia-Telangiectasia, Peutz-Jeghers
* Small Bowel Follow Through: Reverse impression on the duodenum “Frostburg’s Inverted 3 Sign” or a “Wide Duodenal Sweep.” They would have to actually find a case o f the inverted 3 to show it, but could ask it in words. The ‘Wide Duodenal Sweep ” could actually be shown.
468
Q

Periampullary Tumor

overview

A

Defined as originating within 2cm of the major papilla. It can be difficult to differentiate from a conventional pancreatic adenocarcinoma as both obstruct the bile duct, and present as a mass in the pancreatic head. Basically, all you need to know about them is they can try and treat them with a Whipple and they have a better prognosis than pancreatic adenocarcinoma.

469
Q

Periampullary tumore

trivia

A

There is an increased incidence o f ampullary carcinoma in Gardner’s Syndrome.

470
Q

Islet cell/neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

overview

A

Neuroendocrine tumors are uncommon
tumors of the pancreas. Typically
hypervascular, with brisk enhancement during arterial or pancreatic phase. They can be thought of as non-functional or functional, and then subsequently further divided based on the hormone they make. They can be associated with both MEN 1 and Von Hippel Lindau.

471
Q

Islet cell/neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

Insulinoma

A

The most common type (about 75%). They are almost always benign (90%), solitary, and small (< 2cm).

472
Q

Islet cell/neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

gastrinoma

A

The second most common type overall, but most common type associated with MEN 1. They are malignant like 30-60%. They can cause increased gastric acid output and ulcer formation - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

473
Q

Islet cell/neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

non-functional

A

The 3rd most common type, usually malignant (80%), and are usually large and metastatic at the time of diagnosis.

474
Q

Islet cell/neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

I say nonfunctional

A

you say large with calcification

475
Q

gastrinoma

buzzword

A

Jejunal Ulcer = Zollinger-Ellison

476
Q

Gastrinoma triangle

A

The anatomical region where most (90%) of gastrinomas arise.

Boundaries
• Superior: Junction of the cystic and common bile ducts
• Inferior: Start of the third portion of the duodenum
• Medial: Start of the body of the pancreas

477
Q

Intrapancreatic Accessory Spleen

Overview

A

It is possible to have a pancreatic mass that is actually just a piece of spleen. The typical scenario is that of post traumatic splenosis. Look for the question stem to say something like “history o f trauma. ” Another hint may be the absence of a normal spleen.

478
Q

Intrapancreatic Accessory Spleen

Imaging Findings

A
  • Follows spleen on all image sequences (dark on Tl, and bright on T2 - relative to the liver).
  • It will restrict diffusion (just like the spleen).
  • The classic give away, and most likely way it will be shown is as a tiger striped mass on arterial phase (tiger striped like the spleen on arterial phase).
479
Q

Intrapancreatic Accessory Spleen

trivia

A

Nuclear medicine tests - (1) Heat Treated RBCs, and (2) Sulfur Colloid can be used to prove the mass is spleen (they both take up tracer— just like a spleen).

480
Q

The Whipple Procedure

overview

A

The standard Whipple procedure involves resection of the pancreatic head, duodenum, gastric antrum, and almost always the gallbladder. A jejunal loop is brought up to the right upper quadrant for gastrojejunal, choledochojejunal or hepaticojejunal, and pancreatojejunal anastomosis.

481
Q

The Whipple Procedure

alternative

A

An alternative method used by some surgeons is to perform a pancreatoduodenectomy and preserve the pylorus when possible. There is debate in the surgery literature with regard to which method should be the standard. In this pylorus-preserving pancreatoduodenectomy, the stomach is left intact and the proximal duodenum is used for a duodenojejunal anastomosis.

482
Q

The Whipple Procedure

complications

A

Delayed gastric emptying (needfor NG tube longer than 1- day) and pancreatic fistula (amylase through the surgical drain >50 ml fo r longer than 7-10 days), are both clinical diagnoses and are the most common complications after pancreatoduodenectomy. Wound infection is the third most common complication, occurring in 5%-20% of patients.

483
Q

Pancreas transplant

overview

A

Pancreas transplant (usually with a renal transplant) is an established therapy for severe type 1 diabetes - which is often complicated by renal failure. The vascular anatomy regarding this transplant is quite complicated and beyond the scope of this text. Just know that the pancreas transplant receives arterial inflow from two sources: the donor SMA, (which supplies the head via the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery) and the donor splenic artery, (which supplies the body and tail). The venous drainage is via both the donor portal vein and the recipient SMV. Exocrine drainage is via the bowel (in older transplants via the bladder).

484
Q

Pancreas transplant

graft failure

A

The number one cause of graft failure is acute rejection. The number two cause of graft failure is donor splenic vein thrombosis. Donor splenic vein thrombosis usually occurs within the first 6 weeks of transplant. Venous thrombosis is much more common than arterial thrombosis in the transplant pancreas, especially when compared to other transplants because the vessels are smaller and the clot frequently forms within and propagates from the tied-off stump vessels.

Both venous thrombosis and acute rejection can appear as reversed diastolic flow. Arterial thrombosis is also less of a problem because of the dual supply to the pancreas (via the Y graft). A point of trivia is that the resistive indices are not of value in the pancreas, because the organ lacks a capsule. The graft is also susceptible to pancreatitis, which is common < 4 weeks after transplant and usually mild. Increased rates of pancreatitis were seen with the older bladder drained subtype.

485
Q

Pancreas transplant

shrinking transplant

A

is a buzzword for chronic rejection, where the graft progressively gets smaller in size.

486
Q

Spleen normal trivia

A

By the age of 15 the spleen reaches its normal adult size. The spleen contains both “red pulp” and “white pulp” which contribute to its tiger striped appearance during arterial phase imaging. The red pulp is filled with blood (a lot o f blood), and can contain up to one liter of blood at any time. The spleen is usually about 20 HU less dense than the liver, and slightly more echogenic than the liver (equal to the left kidney). The splenic artery (which usually arises from the celiac trunk) is essentially an end vessel, with minimal collaterals. Occlusion o f the splenic artery will therefore result in splenic infarction. Pathology involving the spleen can be categorized as either congenital, acquired (as the sequela o f trauma or portal hypertension), or related to a “mass.” A general rule is that most things in the spleen are benign with exception o f lymphoma or the rare primary angiosarcoma.

487
Q

Normal Spleen on MRI:

A

Bright on T2, relative to the liver

Dark on T1 relative to the liver

Like a lymph node it restricts diffusion

488
Q

Accessory spleens

A

These are very common; we see them all the time. Some random trivia that might be testable includes the fact that sulfur colloid could be used to differentiate a splcnule from an enlarged pathologic lymph node. Additionally, in the scenario where a patient is post splenectomy for something like ITP or autoimmune hemolytic anemia, an accessory spleen could hypertrophy and present as a mass. Hypertrophy of an accessory spleen can also result in a recurrence of the original hematologic disease process.

489
Q

Wandering Spleen

A

A normal spleen that “wanders” off and is in an unexpected location. Because of the laxity in the peritoneal ligaments holding the spleen, a wandering spleen is associated with abnormalities of intestinal rotation. The other key piece of trivia is that unusual locations set the spleen up for torsion and subsequent infarction. A chronic partial torsion can actually lead to splenomegaly or gastric varices.

490
Q

Splenic Traums

A

The spleen is the most common solid organ injured in trauma. This combined with the fact that the spleen contains a unit or so of blood means splenic trauma can be life threatening. Remember the trauma scan is done in portal venous phase (70 second), otherwise you’d have to tell if that is the normal tiger-striped arterial-phase spleen or it is lacerated.

491
Q

Splenosis

A

This occurs post trauma where a smashed spleen implants and then recruits blood supply. The implants are usually multiple and grow into spherical nodules typically in the peritoneal cavity of the upper abdomen (but can be anywhere). It’s more common than you think and has been reported in 40-60% of trauma. Again, Tc Sulfur colloid (or heat-treated RBC) can confirm that the implants are spleen and not ovarian mets or some other terrible thing.

492
Q

Spleen Gamn Gandy Bodies (siderotic nodule)

A

These are small foci of hemorrhage in the splenic parenchyma that are usually associated with portal hypertension. They are T2 dark.

Gradient is the most sensitive sequence.

493
Q

Spleen sarcoidosis

A

Sarcoid is a disease o f unknown etiology that results in noncaseating granulomas which form in various tissues o f the body (complete discussion in the chest section o f this text). The spleen is involved in 50% - 80% o f patients. Splenomegaly is usually the only sign. However, aggregates o f granulomatous splenic tissue in some patients may appear on CT as numerous discrete l-2cm hypodense nodules. Rarely, it can cause a massive splenomegaly and possibly rupture. Don’t forget that the gastric antrum is the most common site in the GI tract.

494
Q

Spleen

Peliosis

A

This is a rare condition characterized by multiple blood filled cyst-like spaces in a solid organ (usually the liver - peliosis hepatitis). When you see it in the spleen it is usually also in the liver (isolated spleen is extremely rare). The etiology is not known, but for the purpose of multiple choice tests it occurs in women on OCPs, men on anabolic steroids, people with AIDS, renal transplant patients (up to 20%), and patients with Hodgkin lymphoma. It’s usually asymptomatic but can explode spontaneously.

495
Q

Splenic artery aneurysm

A

the most common visceral arterial aneurysm.

Pseudoaneurysm can occur in the setting of trauma and pancreatitis. The incidence is higher in women o f child bearing age who have had two or more pregnancies (4x more likely to get them, 3x more likely to rupture). It’s usually saccular and in the mid-to-distal artery. They usually fix them when they get around 2-3cm.

Colossal fu c k up to avoid: Don’t call them a hypervascular pancreatic islet cell mass and biopsy them.

496
Q

Splenic vein thrombosis

A

frequently occurs as the result o f pancreatitis. Can also occur in the setting o f diverticulitis or Crohn’s. Can lead to isolated gastric varices.

497
Q

Splenic infarction

A

can occur from a number of conditions. On a multiple choice test the answer is sickle cell. The imaging features are classically a wedge-shaped, peripheral, low attenuation defect.

498
Q

Splenic infections

A

Most common radiologically detected splenic infection is histoplasmosis (with multiple round calcifications). Splenic TB can have a similar appearance (but much less common in the US). Another possible cause of calcified granuloma in the spleen in brucellosis, but these are usually solitary and 2 cm or larger. They may have a low density center, encircled by calcification giving the lesion a “bull’s eye” appearance.

In the immunocompetent patient, splenic abscess is usually due to an aerobic organism. Salmonella is the classic bug - which develops in the setting of underlying splenic damage (trauma or sickle cell). In immunocompromised patients, unusual organisms such as fungi, TB, MAI, and PCP can occur and usually present as multiple micro-abscesses. Occasionally, fungal infections may show a “bulls-eye” appearance on ultrasound.

499
Q

Small spleen

ddx

A

sickle cell

post radiation

post thorostras

malabsorption syndromes (uc>crohns)

500
Q

Big spleen ddx

A

passive congestion (heart failure, portal HTN, Splenic vein thrombosis)

lymphoma

leukemia

gauchers

501
Q

Feltys syndrome

A

abnormality o f granulocytes, with a triad of:

(1) Splenomegaly, (2) Rheumatoid Arthritis, (3) Neutropenia

502
Q

Splenic post traumatic cysts

A

(pseudocysts) are the most common cystic lesion in the spleen. They can occur secondary to infarction, infection, hemorrhage, or extension from a pancreatic pseudocyst. As a point o f trivia they are “pseudo” cysts because they have no epithelial lining. They may have a thick wall or prominent calcifications peripherally.

503
Q

Splenic epidermoid cysts

A

second most common cystic lesion in the spleen. They are congenital in origin. As a point o f absolutely worthless trivia, they are “true” cysts and have an epithelial lining. They typically grow slowly and are usually around 10cm at the time o f discovery. They can cause symptoms if they are large enough. They are solitary 80% o f the time, and have peripheral calcifications 25% o f the time.

504
Q

Hydatid or echinococcal cysts

A

third most common cystic lesion in the spleen. They are caused by the parasite Echinococcus Granulosus. Hydatid cysts consist o f a spherical “mother cyst” that usually contains smaller “daughter cysts.” Internal septations and debris are often referred to as “hydatid sand.” The “water lily sign” is seen when there is detachment o f the endocyst membrane resulting in floating membranes within the pericysts (looks like a water lily). This was classically described on CXR in pulmonary echinococcal disease.

505
Q

Splenic hemangiom

A

most common benign neoplasm in the spleen. This dude is usually smooth and well marginated demonstrating contrast uptake and delayed washout. The classic peripheral nodular discontinuous enhancement seen in hepatic lesions may not occur, especially if the tumor is smaller than 2 cm.

506
Q

Splenic lymphangiomas

A

rare entities in the spleen but can occur. Most occur in childhood. They may be solitary or multiple, although most occur in a subcapsular location. Diffuse lymphangiomas may occur (lymphangiomatosis).

507
Q

Splenic hamartomas

A

rare in the spleen, but can occur. Typically this is an incidental finding. Most are hypodense or isodense and show moderate heterogeneous enhancement. They can be hyperdense if there is hemosiderin deposition.

508
Q

Spleen littoral cell angiomas

A

zebra that shows up occasionally in books and possibly on multiple choice tests. Clinical hypersplenism is almost always present. Usually presents as multiple small foci which are hypoattenuating on late portal phase. MR shows hemosiderin : 5 ; : (low T1 & T2).

509
Q

Malignant Masses of the Spleen

overview

A

Most things that occur in the spleen are benign. Other than lymphoma (discussed below) it is highly unlikely that you will encounter a primary malignancy of the spleen (but i f you do i t ’s likely to be vascular). For the purposes o f academic discussion (and possible multiple choice trivia), angiosarcoma is the most common.

510
Q

Splenic angiosarcoma

A

It is aggressive and has a poor prognosis. On CT it can manifest as a poorly defined area o f heterogeneity or low density in an enlarged spleen. They can contain necrosis and get big enough to rupture (spontaneous rupture occurs like 30% o f the time). Contrast enhancement is usually poor. Yes, these can occur from prior thorotrast exposure.

511
Q

Splenic lymphoma

A

is the most common malignant tumor o f the spleen, and is usually seen as a manifestation of systemic disease. Splenomegaly is the most common finding (and maybe the only finding in low-grade disease). Although both Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkins types can involve the spleen, Flodgkins type and high-grade lymphomas can show discrete nodules o f tumor. With regard to imaging, they are low density on CT, T1 dark, and are PET hot.

512
Q

Spleen mets

A

Metastatic Disease to the spleen is rare. When it does occur, it occurs via common things (Breast, Lung, Melanoma).

Trivia: Melanoma is the most common primary neoplasm to met to the spleen.