GetAhead Surgery SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the investigation in suspected causes of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Tensilon test

*Tensilon = trade name for edrophonium bromide (short acting anti-cholinesterase)

  • when administrated IV -> sudden improvement in muscle weakness (prolonged action of acetylcholine is allowed)
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2
Q

What’s a typical Rx of PID?

A

2 weeks of :

  • Ofloxacin (anti-chlamydia and gonorrhoea) and
  • Metronidazole (anti- anaerobes and protozoa)

*if significant systemic upset - IV antibiotics

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3
Q

What’s Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome?

A

RUQ pain caused by inflammation of connective tissue around the liver by the pelvic infection (e.g. in PID)

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4
Q

What’s Herpes Simplex Keratitis?

  • detection
  • symptoms
  • treatment
A

Infection of the cornea with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

  • it may be present after many years of first HSV encounter (dormant in the trigeminal nerve)
  • Symptoms: painful, watery, red eye

corneal injection,

  • Detection: cobalt blue light with fluorescein -> branch-line lesion= dendritic ulcer that contains live virus
  • Treatment: aciclovir until an ulcer heals
  • Complications: risk of corneal scarring and blindness -> urgent ophthalmological assessment is needed

*steroids are contraindicated - as they weaken immune system and increase viral burdne

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5
Q

What’s a triad of Budd-Chari syndrome?

A
  • abdo pain
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • ascities

*it’s venous flow obstruction secondary to thrombosis of hepatic vein

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6
Q

What’s ABCD2 score?

scoring / results

A

ABCD2 following TIA

A → age > 65 (1 point)

B → Blood pressure systolic >140 or diastolic >90 (1 point)

C → unilateral weakness (2 points), speech disturbance (1 point)

D → duration >60 minutes (2 points), 10-59 minutes (1 point)

D → diabetes (1 point)

Results: (total score 7)

  • 4 or more → admission for inpatient assessment (re suitability for carotid endarterectomy)
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7
Q

Who needs an urgent admission following TIA? (2)

A
  • 4 or more admission for inpatient assessment (re suitability for carotid endarterectomy)
  • Two or more episodes of TIA in a quick succession ‘crescendo TIA’) → need urgent admission regardless of ABCD2 score
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8
Q

What’s March fracture?

A
  • undisplaced hairline fracture
  • caused by repetitive stress e.g. marching, running
  • common sites: neck of 2nd or 3rd metatarsal
  • X ray mostly normal
  • periosteal reaction (formation of a new bone/callus in response to stimuli) may be seen
  • Rx: analgesia → pain resolves after few weeks (as the fracture union occurs)
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9
Q

What’s Marjolin’s ulcer?

A
  • aggressive but slow - growing squamous cell carcinoma
  • arises from the area of previously traumatised skin (e.g. scars, burns)
  • lesions: ulcerated, raised and painless
  • invade locally
  • Dx: biopsy
  • Rx: wide local excision
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10
Q

Hypertrophic vs keloid scars

A

Both occur when there is overgrowth of fibrous tissue within a healing scar

Hypertrophic:

  • raised lesions
  • within boundary of the original scar

Keloid:

  • beyond original scar
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11
Q
A
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12
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class I criteria

A
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13
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class II criteria

A
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14
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class III criteria

A
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15
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class IV criteria

A
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16
Q

What’s Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

Aka Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

  • Autosomal Dominant condition
  • Characteristics: telangiectasia, AV malformations at multiple sites, recurrent epistaxis
  • Other problems: GI bleeds, hemoptysis, resp compromise due to AV malformations in the lungs, haemorrhagic strokes
  • 10% patients have neuro features: headaches, seizures
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17
Q

What features would be suggestive that there is no C-spine injury (when can we remove C - spine collar)?

A
  • patient is not drunk and not under the influence of any drugs
  • patient is alert and oriented
  • no head injury
  • no neck pain
  • no abnormal neurology
  • no C- spine tenderness or deformity

*if any of these are present → must do imaging

* life- saving procedures take priority over C-spine injury

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18
Q

Adrenaline as local anaesthetic

  • MoA
  • contraindications
A
  • MoA: Adrenaline will constrict the arteries → prolong the action of local anaesthetics by slowing down system absorption
  • Contraindications: end arteries e.g. penis, nose and digits (due to risk of ischaemic necrosis)
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19
Q

Pseudobulbar vs bulbar palsy

A

Pseudobulbar

  • bilateral UPPER motor neurone lesion (9th and 12th CN)

Bulbar

  • bilateral LOWER motor neurone lesion (9th and 12th)
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20
Q

How long would it take for the fracture to heal?

  • upper limb
  • lower limb
A
  • upper: 6-8 weeks
  • lower: 12-16 weeks

*these numbers are halved in children

21
Q

What’s Mackler’s triad?

A
  • vomiting
  • lower thoracic/chest pain
  • subcutaneous emphysema

Suggestive of Boerhaave’s syndrome → a spontaneous transmural rupture of the oesophagus

22
Q

What’s the triad of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A
  • gastrin-producing tumour
  • gastric hypersecretion
  • severe peptic ulceration

Rx: PPIs and tumour resection

23
Q

What’s Maydl’s hernia?

A
  • Hernia that contains ‘W’ loop of intestine within its sac
  • Middle segment is liable to become strangulated
24
Q

What’s a gluteal hernia?

A
  • protrudes through a greater sciatic foramen
  • results from the weakness or deficiency of gluteal muscle fibres
25
Q

What’s a sciatic hernia?

A
  • protrudes through the lesser sciatic foramen
26
Q

What’s Littre’s hernia?

A
  • hernia that contains Meckel’s diverticulum
27
Q
A
28
Q

What’s Spigelian hernia?

A
  • protrudes through semilunar line
  • usually below the level of umbilicus
  • small
  • develop in over 50s
  • high risk of strangulation
29
Q

What are (5) types of hypersensitivity + describe

A
  • Type I (anaphylactic) → IgE-mediated from allergen exposure
  • Type II (cytotoxic) → antibody-mediated
  • Type III (complexes) → immune complex-mediated
  • Type IV (delayed) → sensitised T cell - mediated
  • Type V (stimulatory) → stimulatory anti-receptor antibody mediated
30
Q

What’s Richter’s hernia?

A
  • strangulation of one sidewall of the bowel within a hernia sac
  • Richter’s hernia → features of strangulation (painful, erythematous) but without characteristics of obstruction

*to compare - strangulated hernia describes strangulation of the entire lumen of the bowel)

31
Q

What’s incarcerated hernia?

A
  • adhesions develop between hernia sac and its content
  • painless, irreducible lump
  • incarcerated hernia predispose to strangulation
32
Q

What’s a strangulated hernia?

A
  • necrosis occurs within 6 hours
33
Q

condylomata acuminata vs condylomata lata

A
  • condylomata acuminata = anal warts → due to HPV infection
  • condylomata lata → due to secondary syphilis
34
Q

What’s ganglion?

A
  • benign, tense, cystic swelling
  • often at the back of the wrist
  • occurs due to degeneration of the fibrous tissue surrounding the joints
  • often painless (may be painful if compress an adjacent nerve)

Asymptomatic ganglia do not require treatment

Symptomatic -> excision (may do aspiration but half will reoccur)

35
Q

What’s pyogenic granuloma?

A
  • acquired haemangioma
  • occurs most often at the head, trunk, hands and feet
  • it is a result of the trauma (occurs at the site of trauma/injury) (e.g. thorn prick)
  • bright red nodule
  • bleeds easily
  • rapid grow in 2-3 weeks
  • benign lesions

Rx: excision but small lesions may resolve on its on

36
Q

(4) characteristics of osteoarthritis on x - ray

A
  • loss (narrowing)of joint space → due to cartilage loss
  • osteophytes
  • subchondral sclerosis → laying down new bone
  • cyst formation
37
Q

What’s Juvenile RA?

A
  • autoimmune arthritis
  • children (under 16 yo)
  • joint inflammation
  • last more than 6 weeks
38
Q

What’s Still’s disease?

A
  • systemic form of juvenile arthritis (autoimmune arthritis in kids)
  • intermittent high fever
  • transient generalised ‘salmon-pink’ rash
  • other features: arthralgia, myalgia, hepatosplenomegaly, pericarditis, lymphadenopathy

Dx: clinical + raised inflammatory markers

*RF and ANA are usually negative

Prognosis: self-limiting

39
Q

What’s Osgood - Schlatter disease?

A
  • affects athletic adolescents
  • cause: traction of tibial tubercle at the point of insertion of the patellar tendon

Presentation: pain after activity, tender lump over the tibial tuberosity

Treatment: rest, analgesia, stop sport until the symptoms resolve

40
Q

What is Sistrunk’s operation for?

A

Excision of the cyst and thyroglossal duct

41
Q

What’s a short Synacthen test?

A

Ix for Addison’s (adrenal insufficiency)

plasma cortisol levels are measured → half an hour later: administration of single IM dose of ACTH → no raise of the cortisol after ACTH administration => adrenal insufficiency/Addison’s

42
Q

(3) Features of Necrotising Enterocolitis (paeds)

A
  • bile- stained vomit
  • erythematous abdomen
  • mucus and blood in the stool
43
Q

AAA

  • size of normal abdominal aorta
  • what size does define aortic aneurysm
  • what to do if aortic aneurysm is <4cm
  • what to do if aortic aneurysm is 4.0-5.5 cm
  • what to do if >5.5
A
  • normal abdo aorta →2cm
  • aortic aneurysm →dilation above 3cm
  • <4cm → low risk of rupture →annual USS
  • 4.0-5.5 cm → 6 monthly USS
  • >5.5 cm → surgical intervention
44
Q

Duke’s staging

A

Duke’s staging → grading of colorectal cancer

Dukes’ A → confined to bowel wall

Dukes’ B → invades through the bowel wall but does not involve the lymph nodes

Dukes’ C → invade through the bowels wall and involve lymph nodes

Dukes’D → distal metastases

45
Q

What compartment pressure (mm/Hg) would indicate the need for urgent fasciotomy?

A

> 40 mmHg

46
Q

What’s Cushing’s ulcer?

A

Development of peptic ulcer following raised intracranial pressure (e.g. head injury)

  • mostly in the antrum of the stomach
  • cause: stimulation of vagus nerve within brain → increased gastric acid secretion
47
Q

What’s Curling’s ulcer?

A
  • acute duodenal ulcer few days follwing severe burns
  • cause: burn injury → reduced plasma volume → necrosis of gastric mucosa
48
Q

What’s Decubitus ulcer?

A

Another name for pressure sore

49
Q

What’s Martorell’s ulcer?

A