GetAhead Surgery SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the investigation in suspected causes of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Tensilon test

*Tensilon = trade name for edrophonium bromide (short acting anti-cholinesterase)

  • when administrated IV -> sudden improvement in muscle weakness (prolonged action of acetylcholine is allowed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s a typical Rx of PID?

A

2 weeks of :

  • Ofloxacin (anti-chlamydia and gonorrhoea) and
  • Metronidazole (anti- anaerobes and protozoa)

*if significant systemic upset - IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome?

A

RUQ pain caused by inflammation of connective tissue around the liver by the pelvic infection (e.g. in PID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s Herpes Simplex Keratitis?

  • detection
  • symptoms
  • treatment
A

Infection of the cornea with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

  • it may be present after many years of first HSV encounter (dormant in the trigeminal nerve)
  • Symptoms: painful, watery, red eye

corneal injection,

  • Detection: cobalt blue light with fluorescein -> branch-line lesion= dendritic ulcer that contains live virus
  • Treatment: aciclovir until an ulcer heals
  • Complications: risk of corneal scarring and blindness -> urgent ophthalmological assessment is needed

*steroids are contraindicated - as they weaken immune system and increase viral burdne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s a triad of Budd-Chari syndrome?

A
  • abdo pain
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • ascities

*it’s venous flow obstruction secondary to thrombosis of hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s ABCD2 score?

scoring / results

A

ABCD2 following TIA

A → age > 65 (1 point)

B → Blood pressure systolic >140 or diastolic >90 (1 point)

C → unilateral weakness (2 points), speech disturbance (1 point)

D → duration >60 minutes (2 points), 10-59 minutes (1 point)

D → diabetes (1 point)

Results: (total score 7)

  • 4 or more → admission for inpatient assessment (re suitability for carotid endarterectomy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who needs an urgent admission following TIA? (2)

A
  • 4 or more admission for inpatient assessment (re suitability for carotid endarterectomy)
  • Two or more episodes of TIA in a quick succession ‘crescendo TIA’) → need urgent admission regardless of ABCD2 score
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s March fracture?

A
  • undisplaced hairline fracture
  • caused by repetitive stress e.g. marching, running
  • common sites: neck of 2nd or 3rd metatarsal
  • X ray mostly normal
  • periosteal reaction (formation of a new bone/callus in response to stimuli) may be seen
  • Rx: analgesia → pain resolves after few weeks (as the fracture union occurs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s Marjolin’s ulcer?

A
  • aggressive but slow - growing squamous cell carcinoma
  • arises from the area of previously traumatised skin (e.g. scars, burns)
  • lesions: ulcerated, raised and painless
  • invade locally
  • Dx: biopsy
  • Rx: wide local excision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hypertrophic vs keloid scars

A

Both occur when there is overgrowth of fibrous tissue within a healing scar

Hypertrophic:

  • raised lesions
  • within boundary of the original scar

Keloid:

  • beyond original scar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class I criteria

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class II criteria

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class III criteria

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Haemorrhagic Shock Class IV criteria

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What’s Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

Aka Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

  • Autosomal Dominant condition
  • Characteristics: telangiectasia, AV malformations at multiple sites, recurrent epistaxis
  • Other problems: GI bleeds, hemoptysis, resp compromise due to AV malformations in the lungs, haemorrhagic strokes
  • 10% patients have neuro features: headaches, seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What features would be suggestive that there is no C-spine injury (when can we remove C - spine collar)?

A
  • patient is not drunk and not under the influence of any drugs
  • patient is alert and oriented
  • no head injury
  • no neck pain
  • no abnormal neurology
  • no C- spine tenderness or deformity

*if any of these are present → must do imaging

* life- saving procedures take priority over C-spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adrenaline as local anaesthetic

  • MoA
  • contraindications
A
  • MoA: Adrenaline will constrict the arteries → prolong the action of local anaesthetics by slowing down system absorption
  • Contraindications: end arteries e.g. penis, nose and digits (due to risk of ischaemic necrosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pseudobulbar vs bulbar palsy

A

Pseudobulbar

  • bilateral UPPER motor neurone lesion (9th and 12th CN)

Bulbar

  • bilateral LOWER motor neurone lesion (9th and 12th)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long would it take for the fracture to heal?

  • upper limb
  • lower limb
A
  • upper: 6-8 weeks
  • lower: 12-16 weeks

*these numbers are halved in children

21
Q

What’s Mackler’s triad?

A
  • vomiting
  • lower thoracic/chest pain
  • subcutaneous emphysema

Suggestive of Boerhaave’s syndrome → a spontaneous transmural rupture of the oesophagus

22
Q

What’s the triad of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A
  • gastrin-producing tumour
  • gastric hypersecretion
  • severe peptic ulceration

Rx: PPIs and tumour resection

23
Q

What’s Maydl’s hernia?

A
  • Hernia that contains ‘W’ loop of intestine within its sac
  • Middle segment is liable to become strangulated
24
Q

What’s a gluteal hernia?

A
  • protrudes through a greater sciatic foramen
  • results from the weakness or deficiency of gluteal muscle fibres
25
What's a **sciatic hernia**?
* protrudes through the lesser sciatic foramen
26
What's **Littre's hernia**?
* hernia that contains Meckel's diverticulum
27
28
What's ***Spigelian hernia***?
* protrudes through semilunar line * usually below the level of umbilicus * small * develop in over 50s * high risk of strangulation
29
What are (5) types of hypersensitivity + describe
* **Type I (anaphylactic)** → IgE-mediated from allergen exposure * **Type II (cytotoxic)** → antibody-mediated * **Type III (complexes)** → immune complex-mediated * **Type IV (delayed)** → sensitised T cell - mediated * **Type V (stimulatory)** → stimulatory anti-receptor antibody mediated
30
What's ***Richter's hernia***?
* strangulation of one sidewall of the bowel within a hernia sac * ***Richter's hernia*** → features of strangulation (painful, erythematous) but without characteristics of obstruction \*to compare - strangulated hernia describes strangulation of the entire lumen of the bowel)
31
What's incarcerated hernia?
* adhesions develop between hernia sac and its content * painless, irreducible lump * incarcerated hernia predispose to strangulation
32
What's a strangulated hernia?
* necrosis occurs within 6 hours
33
condylomata acuminata vs condylomata lata
* condylomata acuminata = anal warts → due to HPV infection * condylomata lata → due to secondary syphilis
34
What's ganglion?
* benign, tense, cystic swelling * often at the back of the wrist * occurs due to degeneration of the fibrous tissue surrounding the joints * often painless (may be painful if compress an adjacent nerve) Asymptomatic ganglia do not require treatment Symptomatic -\> excision (may do aspiration but half will reoccur)
35
What's pyogenic granuloma?
* acquired haemangioma * occurs most often at the head, trunk, hands and feet * it is a result of the trauma (occurs at the site of trauma/injury) (e.g. thorn prick) * bright red nodule * bleeds easily * rapid grow in 2-3 weeks * benign lesions Rx: excision but small lesions may resolve on its on
36
(4) characteristics of osteoarthritis on x - ray
* loss (narrowing)of joint space → due to cartilage loss * osteophytes * subchondral sclerosis → laying down new bone * cyst formation
37
What's Juvenile RA?
* autoimmune arthritis * children (under 16 yo) * joint inflammation * last more than 6 weeks
38
What's Still's disease?
* systemic form of juvenile arthritis (autoimmune arthritis in kids) * intermittent high fever * transient generalised 'salmon-pink' rash * other features: arthralgia, myalgia, hepatosplenomegaly, pericarditis, lymphadenopathy Dx: clinical + raised inflammatory markers \*RF and ANA are usually negative Prognosis: self-limiting
39
What's Osgood - Schlatter disease?
* affects athletic adolescents * cause: traction of tibial tubercle at the point of insertion of the patellar tendon **Presentation**: pain after activity, tender lump over the tibial tuberosity **Treatment**: rest, analgesia, stop sport until the symptoms resolve
40
What is Sistrunk's operation for?
Excision of the cyst and thyroglossal duct
41
What's a short ***Synacthen*** test?
Ix for Addison's (adrenal insufficiency) plasma cortisol levels are measured → half an hour later: administration of single IM dose of ACTH → no raise of the cortisol after ACTH administration =\> adrenal insufficiency/Addison's
42
(3) Features of ***Necrotising Enterocolitis*** (paeds)
* bile- stained vomit * erythematous abdomen * mucus and blood in the stool
43
AAA * size of normal abdominal aorta * what size does define aortic aneurysm * what to do if aortic aneurysm is \<4cm * what to do if aortic aneurysm is 4.0-5.5 cm * what to do if \>5.5
* normal abdo aorta →2cm * aortic aneurysm →dilation above 3cm * \<4cm → low risk of rupture →annual USS * 4.0-5.5 cm → 6 monthly USS * \>5.5 cm → surgical intervention
44
Duke's staging
Duke's staging → grading of colorectal cancer Dukes' A → confined to bowel wall Dukes' B → invades through the bowel wall but does not involve the lymph nodes Dukes' C → invade through the bowels wall and involve lymph nodes Dukes'D → distal metastases
45
What compartment pressure (mm/Hg) would indicate the need for urgent fasciotomy?
\> 40 mmHg
46
What's Cushing's ulcer?
Development of peptic ulcer following raised intracranial pressure (e.g. head injury) * mostly in the antrum of the stomach * cause: stimulation of vagus nerve within brain → increased gastric acid secretion
47
What's Curling's ulcer?
* acute duodenal ulcer few days follwing severe burns * cause: burn injury → reduced plasma volume → necrosis of gastric mucosa
48
What's Decubitus ulcer?
Another name for pressure sore
49
What's Martorell's ulcer?