Gestational Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

symptoms of HG often gets better after the _ week of pregnancy but may last the entire pregnancy duration

A

20th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when vomiting is severe, it may result in loss of _% or more of pre-pregnancy body weight

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nutritional disorders associated with HG

A

B1 thiamine
B6 pyridoxine
B12 cobalamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HG can be aggravated by prenatal vitamins, especially those containing

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

excessive salivation

A

sialorrhea gravidarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HG tends to occur in the _ trimester and lasts significantly longer than morning sickness.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

main causes of HG

A

elevated bHCG and estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

first line treatment of HG

A

dry bland food and oral rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

infants of women with HG who gain less than 7kg during pregnancy tend to be _.

A

LBW
SGA
preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

infants of women with HG who gain more than 7kg during pregnancy tend to be _.

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in _ over 50 pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy occurs

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most often, ectopic pregnancy happens within the _ few weeks of pregnancy, usually by the _ week of pregnancy.

A

first
8th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in EP, if fallopian tube has not ruptured and pregnancy has not progressed, what will be done?

A

laparoscopic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of gestational trophoblastic disease

A

hydatidiform mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in _ every 1000 pregnancy is molar

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a repeat molar pregnancy happens in about - out of every 100 women

A

1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

symptoms of h-mole include vaginal bleeding during the first _ months of pregnancy

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

symptoms of (2) may occur in h-mole

A

hyperthyroidism
preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if you had a h-mole, avoid another pregnancy for - months.

A

6-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

incompetent cervix happens during the _ trimester.

A

second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cervical weakness has a cervix length of less than _ mm at or before _ weeks.

A

25mm
24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

these procedures are associated with spontaneous abortion and defects during the 1st trimester but not the 2nd trimester.

A

amniocentesis
CVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cervical incompetence does not cause 1st trimester spontaneous abortion, rather, in the _ trimester. is it identified after a premature birth has occurred at about - weeks into the pregnancy.

A

2nd trimester
16-18 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

during the _ trimester, major trauma can result in a miscarriage.

A

2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

does NVP increase or decrease the risk of miscarriage

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describes any bleeding during pregnancy, prior to viability that has yet to be assessed. At investigation it may be found that the fetus remains viable and the pregnancy continues without further problems.

A

threatened abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

occurs when the cervix has already dilated, but the fetus has yet to be expelled. This usually will progress to a complete abortion. The fetus may or may not have cardiac activity.

A

inevitable abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

is when all products of conception have been expelled; these may include the
trophoblast, chorionic villi, gestational sac, yolk sac, and fetal pole (embryo); or later in pregnancy the fetus, umbilical cord, placenta, amniotic fluid, and amniotic membrane.

A

complete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

occurs when some products of conception have been passed, but some remains inside the uterus.

A

incomplete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

is when the embryo or fetus has died, but a miscarriage has not yet occurred. It is also referred to as delayed miscarriage, silent miscarriage, or missed miscarriage.

A

missed abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

occurs when the tissue from a missed or incomplete miscarriage becomes
infected, which carries the risk of spreading infection (septicaemia) and can be fatal.

A

septic abortion

32
Q

is the occurrence of multiple consecutive miscarriages; the exact number used to diagnose recurrent miscarriage varies.

A

recurrent abortion

33
Q

may be performed by a physician for women who do not want to continue the pregnancy.

A

induced abortion

34
Q

performed by a woman or a non-medical personnel, is extremely dangerous and is still a cause of maternal mortality in some countries.

A

self-induced abortion

35
Q

after _ weeks of gestation and abortion occurs, there is a higher risk of placenta retention.

36
Q

placenta previa commonly occurs around _ weeks of gestation, but can be as early as late _ trimester.

A

32 weeks
midtrimester

37
Q

placenta previa should be suspected if there is bleeding after _ weeks of gestation.

38
Q

bleeding after delivery occurs in about _% of those affected with placenta previa.

39
Q

recurrence rate of placenta previa

40
Q

malpresentation during placenta previa is found in about _% cases.

41
Q

in confirmatory of placenta previa, repeat scanning is done after an interval of - minutes.

42
Q

which is more suitable for placenta previa, transvaginal utz or transabdominal utz

43
Q

rate of IUGR incidence for those with placenta previa

44
Q

abruptio placenta occurs around _ weeks of pregnancy.

45
Q

AP class 1 incidence rate

46
Q

AP class 2 incidence rate

A

moderate, 27%

47
Q

AP class 3 incidence rate

A

severe, 24%

48
Q

the use of _ before 16 weeks of pregnancy to prevent pregnancy-eclampsia also appear effective in preventing AP

49
Q

placenta that is not complete divided into lobes

A

placenta bipartita

50
Q

placenta separated into parts

A

placenta duplex

51
Q

placenta with accessory lobe

A

succenturiate placenta

52
Q

placenta associated with fetal growth retardation, postpartum and antepartum hemorrhage

A

ring shaped placenta

53
Q

placenta with central portion of the maternal is missing

A

fenestrated placenta

54
Q

placenta where chorionic plate is smaller than basal plate

A

extrachorial placenta

55
Q

extrachorial placenta with fetal surface presenting a central depression surround by thickened white graying ring.

A

circumvallate

56
Q

extrachorial placenta with white grayish ring located at the margin of the placenta.

A

circummarginate

57
Q

placenta with fetal membrane covered by functioning villi

A

membranous placenta/placenta diffusa

58
Q

placenta associated with syphilis and erythroblastosis fetalis

A

large placenta

59
Q

retained placenta that becomes a polyp may be covered by regenerated endometrium

A

placental polyp

60
Q

placenta is implanted in a thin and poorly formed decidua

A

abnormally adherent placenta

61
Q

abnormally adherent placenta attached to the myometrium

A

placenta accreta

62
Q

abnormally adherent placenta attached deeply in the myometrium

A

placenta increta

63
Q

abnormally adherent placenta attached in the myometrium, perimetrium, and the bladder

A

placenta percreta

64
Q

reduced placental function

A

placental inssuficiency

65
Q

PPROM occurs before _ weeks.

66
Q

when the fetal membranes rupture early, at least before labor has started

67
Q

a case of PROM in which more than 18 hours had passed between the rupture and the onset of labor

A

prolonged PROM

68
Q

PROM that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation

69
Q

PROM that occurs before 24 weeks gestation

A

mid-trimester/pre-viable PROM

70
Q

for PPROM, what is given to allow maximum efficacy of corticosteroids for fetal lungs and also confer benefit to fetal brain and gut before delivery

A

magnesium sulfate infusion

71
Q

one time dose of corticosteroids (2 separate adm, 12-24 hours apart before _ weeks)

72
Q

HELLP syndrome in pre-eclampsia

A

hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet

73
Q

medicines (3) used for severe pregnancy hypertension

A

methyldopa
hydralazine
labetalol

74
Q

in PI, the fetus is at increased risk of _ (immature lungs).

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

75
Q

blighted ovum caused about 1-2 miscarriages in the _ trimester of pregnancy.

76
Q

in normal pregnancy, after how many weeks does the gestational sac grow into 18mm?

77
Q

most doctors recommend to wait at least - regular menstrual cycles before trying to conceive again after any type of miscarriage.