Gestational Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

symptoms of HG often gets better after the _ week of pregnancy but may last the entire pregnancy duration

A

20th

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2
Q

when vomiting is severe, it may result in loss of _% or more of pre-pregnancy body weight

A

5

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3
Q

nutritional disorders associated with HG

A

B1 thiamine
B6 pyridoxine
B12 cobalamine

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4
Q

HG can be aggravated by prenatal vitamins, especially those containing

A

iron

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5
Q

excessive salivation

A

sialorrhea gravidarum

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6
Q

HG tends to occur in the _ trimester and lasts significantly longer than morning sickness.

A

first

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7
Q

main causes of HG

A

elevated bHCG and estrogen

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8
Q

first line treatment of HG

A

dry bland food and oral rehydration

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9
Q

infants of women with HG who gain less than 7kg during pregnancy tend to be _.

A

LBW
SGA
preterm

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10
Q

infants of women with HG who gain more than 7kg during pregnancy tend to be _.

A

normal

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11
Q

in _ over 50 pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy occurs

A

1

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12
Q

most often, ectopic pregnancy happens within the _ few weeks of pregnancy, usually by the _ week of pregnancy.

A

first
8th

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13
Q

in EP, if fallopian tube has not ruptured and pregnancy has not progressed, what will be done?

A

laparoscopic surgery

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14
Q

type of gestational trophoblastic disease

A

hydatidiform mole

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15
Q

in _ every 1000 pregnancy is molar

A

1

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16
Q

a repeat molar pregnancy happens in about - out of every 100 women

A

1-2

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17
Q

symptoms of h-mole include vaginal bleeding during the first _ months of pregnancy

A

3

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18
Q

symptoms of (2) may occur in h-mole

A

hyperthyroidism
preeclampsia

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19
Q

if you had a h-mole, avoid another pregnancy for - months.

A

6-12

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20
Q

incompetent cervix happens during the _ trimester.

A

second

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21
Q

cervical weakness has a cervix length of less than _ mm at or before _ weeks.

A

25mm
24 weeks

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22
Q

these procedures are associated with spontaneous abortion and defects during the 1st trimester but not the 2nd trimester.

A

amniocentesis
CVS

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23
Q

cervical incompetence does not cause 1st trimester spontaneous abortion, rather, in the _ trimester. is it identified after a premature birth has occurred at about - weeks into the pregnancy.

A

2nd trimester
16-18 weeks

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24
Q

during the _ trimester, major trauma can result in a miscarriage.

A

2nd

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25
does NVP increase or decrease the risk of miscarriage
decrease
26
describes any bleeding during pregnancy, prior to viability that has yet to be assessed. At investigation it may be found that the fetus remains viable and the pregnancy continues without further problems.
threatened abortion
27
occurs when the cervix has already dilated, but the fetus has yet to be expelled. This usually will progress to a complete abortion. The fetus may or may not have cardiac activity.
inevitable abortion
28
is when all products of conception have been expelled; these may include the trophoblast, chorionic villi, gestational sac, yolk sac, and fetal pole (embryo); or later in pregnancy the fetus, umbilical cord, placenta, amniotic fluid, and amniotic membrane.
complete abortion
29
occurs when some products of conception have been passed, but some remains inside the uterus.
incomplete abortion
30
is when the embryo or fetus has died, but a miscarriage has not yet occurred. It is also referred to as delayed miscarriage, silent miscarriage, or missed miscarriage.
missed abortion
31
occurs when the tissue from a missed or incomplete miscarriage becomes infected, which carries the risk of spreading infection (septicaemia) and can be fatal.
septic abortion
32
is the occurrence of multiple consecutive miscarriages; the exact number used to diagnose recurrent miscarriage varies.
recurrent abortion
33
may be performed by a physician for women who do not want to continue the pregnancy.
induced abortion
34
performed by a woman or a non-medical personnel, is extremely dangerous and is still a cause of maternal mortality in some countries.
self-induced abortion
35
after _ weeks of gestation and abortion occurs, there is a higher risk of placenta retention.
13 weeks
36
placenta previa commonly occurs around _ weeks of gestation, but can be as early as late _ trimester.
32 weeks midtrimester
37
placenta previa should be suspected if there is bleeding after _ weeks of gestation.
24
38
bleeding after delivery occurs in about _% of those affected with placenta previa.
22
39
recurrence rate of placenta previa
4-8%
40
malpresentation during placenta previa is found in about _% cases.
35
41
in confirmatory of placenta previa, repeat scanning is done after an interval of _-_ minutes.
15-30
42
which is more suitable for placenta previa, transvaginal utz or transabdominal utz
43
rate of IUGR incidence for those with placenta previa
15%
44
abruptio placenta occurs around _ weeks of pregnancy.
25 weeks
45
AP class 1 incidence rate
mild, 48%
46
AP class 2 incidence rate
moderate, 27%
47
AP class 3 incidence rate
severe, 24%
48
the use of _ before 16 weeks of pregnancy to prevent pregnancy-eclampsia also appear effective in preventing AP
aspirin
49
placenta that is not complete divided into lobes
placenta bipartita
50
placenta separated into parts
placenta duplex
51
placenta with accessory lobe
succenturiate placenta
52
placenta associated with fetal growth retardation, postpartum and antepartum hemorrhage
ring shaped placenta
53
placenta with central portion of the maternal is missing
fenestrated placenta
54
placenta where chorionic plate is smaller than basal plate
extrachorial placenta
55
extrachorial placenta with fetal surface presenting a central depression surround by thickened white graying ring.
circumvallate
56
extrachorial placenta with white grayish ring located at the margin of the placenta.
circummarginate
57
placenta with fetal membrane covered by functioning villi
membranous placenta/placenta diffusa
58
placenta associated with syphilis and erythroblastosis fetalis
large placenta
59
retained placenta that becomes a polyp may be covered by regenerated endometrium
placental polyp
60
placenta is implanted in a thin and poorly formed decidua
abnormally adherent placenta
61
abnormally adherent placenta attached to the myometrium
placenta accreta
62
abnormally adherent placenta attached deeply in the myometrium
placenta increta
63
abnormally adherent placenta attached in the myometrium, perimetrium, and the bladder
placenta percreta
64
reduced placental function
placental inssuficiency
65
PPROM occurs before _ weeks.
37
66
when the fetal membranes rupture early, at least before labor has started
PROM
67
a case of PROM in which more than 18 hours had passed between the rupture and the onset of labor
prolonged PROM
68
PROM that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation
PPROM
69
PROM that occurs before 24 weeks gestation
mid-trimester/pre-viable PROM
70
for PPROM, what is given to allow maximum efficacy of corticosteroids for fetal lungs and also confer benefit to fetal brain and gut before delivery
magnesium sulfate infusion
71
one time dose of corticosteroids (2 separate adm, 12-24 hours apart before _ weeks)
34 weeks
72
HELLP syndrome in pre-eclampsia
hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet
73
medicines (3) used for severe pregnancy hypertension
methyldopa hydralazine labetalol
74
in PI, the fetus is at increased risk of _ (immature lungs).
pulmonary hypoplasia
75
blighted ovum caused about 1-2 miscarriages in the _ trimester of pregnancy.
first
76
in normal pregnancy, after how many weeks does the gestational sac grow into 18mm?
5-6 weeks
77
most doctors recommend to wait at least _-_ regular menstrual cycles before trying to conceive again after any type of miscarriage.
1-3