Genomic Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the central dogma of genetics?

A

***DNA transcribes to RNA which translates to proteins

DNA can replicate via mitosis

RNA can be reverse transcribed into DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DNA is double-stranded and anti-parallel. These strands are connected ________ bonds.

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the backbone of DNA consist of?

A

Sugar-Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mitotic chromosomes are condensed 500 times when compared with interphase chromosomes. Why?

A

To prevent physical damage to the DNA as chromosomes are separated and passed on to daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DNA is wound around what proteins?

A

Histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Approximately 20 percent of histone protein amino acid residues are either _______ or _______. A lot of positive charges, which attract to the negatively charged backbone.

A

Lysine

Arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lysine residues in histone proteins are the target of what?

A

Post-translational modifications (PTMs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many proteins make up a histone?

A

8 (octamer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These are the basic unit of chromosome packing. Includes core histone particle and linker DNA.

A

Nucleosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Protein and DNA make up what?

A

Chromatin (“beads on a string”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is the lightly packed form of chromatin and is highly enriched in genes. Often (but not always) under active transcription.

A

Euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is very condensed chromatin thought to be late replicating and genetically inactive.

A

Heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In Feb. 2001 the sequence of the human genome was announced, but it was only 90 percent of sequence. It was finished in 2004. It involved 2000 people at the cost of 1 billion dollars. This project was called…

A

The Human Genome Project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

About how many genes are in the genome?

A

26,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of the genome is responsible for coding?

A

1.5 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

People usually have 1,000 differences in their genome, which are called…

A

Copy number variations (CNVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CNVs are the basis for our differences and for disease states. How are they detected?

A

Comparative genome hybridization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In ________ ________ ________, we probe human genome CHIP with DNA from one person and with DNA from a ‘normal’ reference DNA. Then it detects copy number variation. Used now clinically.

A

Comparative genome hybridization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is the term for the biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression, or translation by neutralizing targeted mRNA molecules.

A

RNAi (RNA interference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This is the term for identical sequences of DNA that are repeated hundreds or thousands of times. They’re found at either end of retrotransposons (proviral DNA) and are formed by reverse transcription of retroviral RNA.

A

LTRs (Long terminal repeats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are long terminal repeats (LTRs) in viruses used for?

A

To insert their genetic material into the host genomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This type of RNA is responsible for preventing gene expression by blocking translation or degrading the mRNA.

A

miRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This enzyme is responsible for cutting miRNA into shorter segments.

A

Dicer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This enzyme unwinds the DNA helix.

A

Helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This enzyme relieves overwound supercoils (called DNA gyrase in bacteria).

A

Topoisomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This enzyme helps stabilize the unwound DNA. It prevents the formation of hairpins, but keeps the DNA bases exposed.

A

Single-stranded DNA-binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This enzyme synthesizes RNA-DNA primer.

A

DNA polymerase alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This enzyme synthesizes new DNA chain in the 5’-3’ direction.

A

DNA polymerases d and e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

This enzyme fills in gap in DNA replication.

A

DNA polymerase d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This enzyme seals nicks in DNA replication.

A

DNA ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Because DNA synthesis involves the formation of 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds, nucleoside analogues that lack the _______ group act as drugs that inhibit DNA replication. Such nucleosides need to be converted to _______ before they can act as inhibitors of DNA polymerase.

A

3’ -OH
dNTPs

***Correlation Box: Nucleoside analogue inhibitors (324)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give some examples of nucleoside analogue inhibitors of DNA synthesis.

A

ara-C – used in leukemia treatment
Acyclovir – used in chicken pox, herpes, shingles, etc.
AZT – used in HIV therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This histone modification can activate or deactivate (loosen or tighten) DNA, but if this is done directly to DNA then it is deactivated.

A

Methylation

***Added to cytosine and adenine on DNA molecule

34
Q

This histone modification relaxes their association with DNA, making DNA available for transcription.

A

Acetylation

35
Q

This histone modification is a critical intermediate step in chromosome condensation during cell division, transcriptional regulation, and DNA damage repair.

A

Phosphorylation

36
Q

DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in what direction?

A

5’ to 3’

37
Q

DNA polymerase requires a primer with a free _______ to begin processing.

A

3’ -OH

38
Q

The _______ strand has continuous synthesis, and the _______ strand has discontinuous synthesis in DNA replication.

A

Leading

Lagging

39
Q

The lagging strand creates fragments called…

A

Okazaki fragments

40
Q

DNA helicase is a protein with 6 identical subunits and binds and hydrolyzes ______ to propel itself forward like a rotary engine.

A

ATP

41
Q

Pharmaceutical drugs that target this enzyme of DNA replication, are used as anti-cancer agents.

A

DNA topoisomerase

42
Q

Why are topoisomerase inhibitors used as anti-cancer agents?

A
    • Block the cell cycle
    • Generate single and double stranded breaks
    • Harms the integrity of the genome
    • Leads to apoptosis and cancer cell death
43
Q

_______ cells have low mutation rates – maintain species.

A

Germ

44
Q

_______ cells have low mutation rates – avoid uncontrolled proliferation/cancer.

A

Somatic

45
Q

If there is a mutation in replication, we have “spell check” or proofreading thanks to what enzyme?

A

DNA polymerase

46
Q

What enzyme is responsible for deacetylation of histones?

A

Histone Deacetylase (HDAC)

***Represses gene expression

47
Q

What enzyme is responsible for acetylation of histones?

A

Histone Acetyl Transferase (HAT)

***Activates gene expression

48
Q

Genes can be repressed by deacetylation blocking the ________ _______ signal from its appropriate ligand. Acetylation removes this block and allows the ligand to bind, stimulating the gene.

A

Nuclear receptor

49
Q

Histone proteins H3 and H4 have long protruding tails from the nucleosome that often are the target for what?

A

Post-Translational Modification (PTM)

50
Q

DNA damage can occur from exposure to reactive forms of _____ in the cell or chemicals in the environment.

A

O2

51
Q

This type of DNA damage is due to UV radiation from the sun, which can produce a covalent linkage between two adjacent _________, called _______ _______.

A

Pyrimidines (T-T or C-T)

Pyrimidine dimers

52
Q

DNA damage via UV radiation is also called…

A

Non-ionizing radiation

53
Q

Ionizing radiation (i.e., X-rays) and the resulting reactive oxygen species can induce what changes in DNA?

A
    • Strand breaks
    • 40-60 chemical modifications of bases
    • DNA-protein cross-links (i.e., Thymine-Tyrosine cross-link)
54
Q

Depurination and deamination are examples of what type of DNA damage?

A

Spontaneous

55
Q

In ________, the purine base is removed from the nucleotide via hydrolysis of the N-glycosidic bond between the base and the deoxyribose group. Creates a sugar-phosphate by itself. 5000 purines lost per day.

A

Depurination

56
Q

In ________, the amino group of purine or pyrimidine base is hydrolyzed such that adenine is converted to hypoxanthine, guanine is converted to xanthine, and cytosine is converted to uracil, which forms an unnatural deoxyuridine.

A

Deamination

57
Q

What are the possible outcomes of spontaneous DNA damage?

A
    • DNA replication ensues

- - Base deletion or substitution

58
Q

The methylation of ______ ______ can stably silence genes (cancer/DNA repair genes). However, the deamination of these can produce a mismatched _____ with _____.

A

CpG islands
T
G

59
Q

This is an epoxide that is considered a carcinogen. It is due to well-done grilled meats.

A

BPDE

60
Q

What is the pro-carcinogen that forms BPDE?

A

benzo[a]pyrene

61
Q

List some of the cross-linking agents.

A

Nitrogen mustard
Cisplatin
Mitomycin C

62
Q

List some alkylating agents.

A

Diemthylsulfate (DMS)

Methylmethanesulfonate (MMS)

63
Q

List some intercalating agents.

A

Ethidium bromide
Thalidomide (caused major birth defects)
Doxorubicin

64
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum is a disease caused by a defect in what kind of repair mechanism?

A

Nucleotide excision repair

65
Q

The skin of people with this disease is extremely sensitive to sunlight, and they are prone to developing melanomas and squamous cell carcinomas. The UV component of sunlight causes thymine dimers to form in the DNA. These can be removed by NER in normal individuals, but defects in certain proteins in the NER complex exhibit the disease.

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

66
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancers are due to a defect in what kind of repair mechanism?

A

Mismatch excision repair

67
Q

This type of disease is caused my mismatch excision repair, which normally fixes a mismatched base in the daughter strand. Individuals with inherited mutations in one of the alleles of genes in the MER complex have an increased chance of getting disease. An acquired mutation in the remaining good gene would then render the MER system nonfunctional, allowing the disease to occur. Autosomal dominant.

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancers

68
Q

This type of recombination repair is responsible for the BRCA1/2 gene in breast cancer.

A

Homologous recombination

69
Q

What are the types of recombination repair that fix double-strand breaks and inter strand cross-linking?

A

NHEJ (Non-homologous end joining)

Homologous recombination

70
Q

This type of repair mechanism will also fix pyrimidine dimers.

A

Direct repair (enzymatic repair)

71
Q

This type of repair mechanism will fix single-base mismatches and non distorting alterations (i.e., depurination).

A

Base excision repair (BER)

72
Q

This disease occurs by a defect in transcription-coupled repair. Normally, TCR will fix a stalled RNA polymerase during transcription. However, the genes ERCC6 and ERCC8 become mutated, which would usually help in TCR of DNA. This disease causes developmental and neurologic delays, photosensitivity, and progeria. Autosomal recessive.

A

Cockayne syndrome

73
Q

BRCA1/2 are (ONCOGENES/TUMOR SUPPRESSORS). Mutations of these genes cause a fivefold increase in women’s risk of developing breast and/or ovarian cancer before menopause.

A

Tumor suppressors

74
Q

This type of repair mechanism will fix unprepared thymine dimers or apurini AP sites.

A

Translation synthesis (bypass synthesis)

75
Q

This type of repair mechanism will fix stalled RNA polymerase during transcription (not replication).

A

Transcription-coupled repair (TCR)

76
Q

In mismatch excision repair, proofreading is done by DNA-dependent ______ ______, which removes almost all errors missed. ______ binds while ______ scans for the nick and triggers degradation of nicked strand.

A

DNA polymerase
MutS
MutL

77
Q

In this type of recombination, the broken ends of DNA are brought together and rejoin by DNA ligation. One or more nucleotides are lost.

A

NHEJ

78
Q

What happens A, G, and C are deaminated, respectively?

A

Forms Hypoxanthine, Xanthine, and Uracil

79
Q

What happens when a depurination occurs?

A

Cut out A/G

80
Q

Ionizing radiation often causes what in DNA?

A

Strand breaks

81
Q

This is what tags proteins to be degraded. It attaches to lysine residue on target proteins.

A

Ubiquitin

82
Q

This process is analogous to ubiquitin, but it does not “tag” proteins for degradation. The protein will bind when the final four proteins are cleaved from C-terminus.

A

SUMOylation