Genitourinary Cancers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors in prostrate cancer and BPH? And what are their major side effects?

A

5-AR inhibitors (Finasteride, Dutasteride) work to block conversion of testosterone to DHT (dihydrotestosterone), the most active androgen in the prostrate. They can be used as chemoprevention in men at high risk of prostate cancer and have been shown to reduce the incidence of prostrate cancer, but have no overall survival benefit

They are frequently used in BPH and reduce the PSA by up to 50%, reduce prostrate gland size and volume, and reduce the need for prostrate reducing surgery. These effects occur over 6-12 months

Side effects: gynecomastia, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the next best step in management for a man with an abnormal prostate on PR exam, but normal PSA and asymptomatic?

A

Any abnormal DRE warrants urological exam, regardless of serum PSA level. The definitive diagnostic test for prostate cancer is transrectal biopsy with multiple core samples from all parts of the prostate gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should bony metastases in prostate cancer be managed?

A
  • Monthly Bisphosphonates (Zoledronic acid or Pamidronate)
  • Radiation therapy
  • Radium 223 (alpha-emitting radionucleotide which kills prostate cancer cells without damaging surrounding tissue)
  • Sipuleucel-T for hormone refractory prostate cancer (autologous cellular immunotherapy) to activate the patients own dendritic cells to attack the prostate cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What agents are used in chemical castration of prostate cancer?

A

GnRH agonists/antagonists (Goserelin)
- work by competitively binding GnRH receptors on pituitary cells resulting in an initial transient increased release of FSH/LH (‘flare’) with subsequent increased testosterone release from Leydig cells, followed by down-regulation of GnRH receptors and thus decline in pituitary production of FSH/LH

GnRH agonists are used in combination with antiandrogens for combined androgen blockade
- Antiandrogens (Flutamide, Bicalutamide) competitively bind to androgen receptors, inhibiting the binding of testosterone and DHT

Give calcium and cholecalciferol to all men receiving androgen deprivation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are GnRH agonists/antagonists recommended prior to radiation therapy in high-risk, locally advanced prostate cancer?

A

Combination therapy improves overall survival compared with radiation alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat hormone-refractory prostate cancer and progressive metastatic disease?

A

Patients with hormone-refractory or progressive metastatic disease due to prostate cancer may benefit from chemotherapy

Use Docetaxel (taxane - stabilises microtubules) with Prednisolone

This combination has demonstrated a 3-6 month survival benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common solid tumour in young men?

A

Testicular cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

95% of testicular tumours are germ cell tumours. What are the 2 classes of germ cell testicular cancers and what significant does this have for prognosis?

A

Germ cell testicular tumours are classified as either seminomatous or non-seminomatous.

Seminoma (50%):
- good prognosis with very high cure rate

Non-seminoma (50%):

  • histological types: embryonal, choriocarcinoma, yolk sac carcinoma, teratoma or mixed type
  • have elevated serum AFP
  • have poorer prognosis and require more aggressive treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Klinefelter syndrome
Cryptorchidism
FHx testicular cancer

  • surgical correction of an undescended testis in early life substantially reduces risk of testicular cancer, but does not eliminate the risk
  • testicular cancer can also develop in the normal descended testicle of a patient with cryptorchidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do testicular cancers present and what tumour markers are used for testicular cancer?

A

Unilateral testicular mass or swelling
Acute pain (10%)
Signs and symptoms of metastases (10%)
Gynaecomastia (5%) - d/t elevated bHCG

Testicular cancer serum markers:

  • serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
  • bHCG
  • LDH

** an elevated AFP defines the tumour as a non-seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the risk factors for prostrate cancer?

A
Black men
Increasing age
Prostate ca in a first degree relative
High fat, low-fibre diet
Prostatitis

Vasectomy is NOT associated with increased risk of prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you treat testicular cancer?

A

All require radical orchidectomy

Seminoma:
- post-orchidectomy, active surveillance vs single agent Carboplatin chemo (1 cycle)

Nonseminona:

  • post-orchidectomy, active surveillance OR retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RLND) OR 2 cycles of multi-agent chemo (platinum, Etoposide and bleomycin)
  • active surveillance has 20-30% recurrence rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the predominant histological type of bladder cancer? And what are the risk factors for bladder cancer?

A

90% of bladder cancers are urothelial (transitional cell) in origin

Risk factors:
Smoking** (risk proportional to pack years)
M>F
Age >60yo
Occupational exposure in metal workers, painters & leather workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where do most renal cancers originate, and what are the predominant histological types?

A

Most renal cancers originate in the renal cortex

Most are clear cell type
10-15% are papillary tumours
10% are chromophobe
Few are oncocytomas

Papillary tumours tend to be early-stage lesions at diagnosis and thus have a better prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the risk factors for renal cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking
Obesity
Occupational exposure (calcium, asbestos, gasoline)
Effects of dialysis (acquired cystic kidney disease)
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

*VHL gene mutations results in sporadic clear cell cancer due to over-expression of VEGF (respond to VEGF inhibitors ie. Bevacizumab, Sorafenib, Sunitinib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What sites do renal cell cancers typically metastasise to?

A

Lung
Liver
Brain
Renal fossa

17
Q

What is the significance of a normal AFP after treatment of testicular cancer?

A

Normalisation of AFP after treatment of testicular cancer is an independent indicator for overall survival and reduced disease recurrence. The faster the AFP/bHCG falls, the better the prognosis.

An elevated AFP (or bHCG) level is the most sensitive marker for recurrence of testicular cancer

18
Q

What is the mechanism of action and major side effects of Abiraterone in prostate cancer?

A

Androgens are produced at 3 critical sites leading to prostate cancer proliferation:
1. Testes (85-90%)
2. Adrenal gland
3. Prostate tumour cells
Abiraterone inhibits biosynthesis of androgens at all sites

Abiraterone receptor is activated in the cytoplasm, then translocated to the nucleus where it binds and activates AR-target genes. It blocks androgen ligand and thus stops the androgen receptor from functioning

Abiraterone blocks both CYP 17, 17-alpha-hydroxylase AND CYP 17, 20-lyase

  • By blocking both CYP 17 pathways, it blocks all crucial androgen pathways. Thus reduced circulating testoserone
  • BUT blocking these results in accumulation of upstream steroids and cholesterol precursors

Abiraterone toxicity = syndrome of mineralocorticoid excess

  • Hypo-K
  • Hypertension
  • Fluid overload
19
Q

Why is Abiraterone given with Prednisolone in prostate cancer?

A

Abiraterone blocks both CYP 17, 17-alpha-hydroxylase AND CYP 17, 20-lyase

  • By blocking both CYP 17 pathways, it blocks all crucial androgen pathways. Thus reduced circulating testoserone
  • BUT blocking these results in accumulation of upstream steroids and cholesterol precursors

Abiraterone toxicity = syndrome of mineralocorticoid excess

  • Hypo-K
  • Hypertension
  • Fluid overload

Thus given Prednisolone to prevent mineralocorticoid excess/symptoms

20
Q

What is the mechanism of Enzalutamide in prostate cancer?

A

Enzalutamide is a 2nd generation anti-androgen that specifically inhibits androgen binding (i.e. androgen-receptor antagonis). It works in several ways:

  • Inhibits andorgen receptor - testosterone binding
  • Causes receptor inhibition to block the activational changes induced by AR-testosterone binding
  • Inhibits andogen receptor - testosterone nuclear translocation and DNA transctiption
21
Q

What are the side effects of Enzalutamide?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Diarrhoea
  • Reduced seizure threshold as it crosses the BBB (usually seizures only occur if another risk factor is present ie. cerebral mets)
  • Hypertension
  • Hot flushes
  • Back pain
22
Q

What is Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome?

A

Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is characterised by multifocal kidney cancer due to mutation in the folliculin gene

  • lifetime risk of 30% (by 50yo)
  • 80% have multiple long cysts +/- pneumothorax
  • Classical skin lesions = fibrofolliculomas (benign hamartomas of the hair follicles on the nose and cheeks)
23
Q

Von Hippel Lindau syndrome results from autosomal dominant inheritence of a germline mutation of VHL gene on chromosome 3p. What are the features of Von Hippel Lindau syndrome?

A
  1. Haemangioblastomas (cerebellar or thymal)
  2. Retinal angiomas (70%)
  3. Renal clear cell cancer (30%)
  4. Phaeochromocytoma (10%)